"What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
I open with a quote: "Is truth a property of sentences (which are linguistic entities in some language or other), or is truth a property of propositions (nonlinguistic, abstract and timeless entities)? The principal issue is: What is truth?"
https://iep.utm.edu/truth/#H7
Of all the theories featured in the linked source, I find the simplest one most plausible. P is true is just fancy talk for P. This is the 'redundancy' theory.
[quote = link]
It is worthy of notice that the sentence I smell the scent of violets has the same content as the sentence It is true that I smell the scent of violets. So it seems, then, that nothing is added to the thought by my ascribing to it the property of truth. (Frege, 1918)
[/quote]
Why else is this approach attractive ? If true claims can be unwarranted and unwarranted claims can be true, then defining truth in terms of warrant seems unwarranted.
Correspondence, a popular and maybe even default choice, also seems problematic. "The theory says that a proposition is true provided there exists a fact corresponding to it. In other words, for any proposition p, p is true if and only if p corresponds to a fact." But is it not cleaner to just understand p as a fact, iff it is true ?
This is a thorny issue, and I hope I've set it up just enough to get a conversation going. Personally I'd especially like to learn more about deflationary approaches, which some posters here seem to know about, and which I haven't studied closely yet.
https://iep.utm.edu/truth/#H7
Of all the theories featured in the linked source, I find the simplest one most plausible. P is true is just fancy talk for P. This is the 'redundancy' theory.
[quote = link]
It is worthy of notice that the sentence I smell the scent of violets has the same content as the sentence It is true that I smell the scent of violets. So it seems, then, that nothing is added to the thought by my ascribing to it the property of truth. (Frege, 1918)
[/quote]
Why else is this approach attractive ? If true claims can be unwarranted and unwarranted claims can be true, then defining truth in terms of warrant seems unwarranted.
Correspondence, a popular and maybe even default choice, also seems problematic. "The theory says that a proposition is true provided there exists a fact corresponding to it. In other words, for any proposition p, p is true if and only if p corresponds to a fact." But is it not cleaner to just understand p as a fact, iff it is true ?
This is a thorny issue, and I hope I've set it up just enough to get a conversation going. Personally I'd especially like to learn more about deflationary approaches, which some posters here seem to know about, and which I haven't studied closely yet.
Comments (2779)
Or is it a property of a state of affairs, whether conceived as a concrete event (region of space-time) or something more abstract? Which latter might be what many people mean by proposition. What a quagmire!
1 truth-bearing sentence/proposition/fact
2 truth-making event/state of affairs/proposition/fact
Not that we have to acknowledge truth-makers corresponding to truth-bearers. Just flagging up the likely misunderstandings coming down the line.
Could we all just drop "state of affairs" and "proposition" and "fact"? Serious suggestion. Because even the first ends up standing for "sentence". At least with those perhaps disavowing correspondence but prone to having it both ways.
I think a distinction needs to be made between these two claims:
1. "p" is true iff p
2. "'p' is true" means "p"
The issue with the first is that it entails that all propositions exist:
q ? the proposition that p
T(q) ? q is true
1. T(q) ? p
2. T(q) ? ?x(x=q)
3. p ? ?x(x=q)
4. ¬T(q) ? ¬p
5. ¬T(q) ? ?x(x=q)
6. ¬p ? ?x(x=q)
7. ?x(x=q)
This is problematic because it suggests that propositions exist as abstract entities (à la Platonism) which may be unacceptable to some.
Alternatively propositions are expressions, in which case the T-schema only applies when something is expressed, and so it doesn't make sense to talk about "unspoken truths" (unless this is understood as being comparable to "unbuilt houses", i.e. a reference to potential/possibility).
:up:
It is a quagmire !
Could you say more ?
I'm not sure if this is compatible with correspondence or redundancy theory, but I don't think truth is as absolute as most people think, I guess.
You mention one of my concerns, truth-makers, which seem like unnecessary entities.
Quoting bongo fury
You probably know that I agree. I want things public. Enough with the hidden.
I'm not 100% comfortable with the move from English to symbolic logic, but your using 'means'
looks pretty good. "P is true" basically means "P" (the "is true" doesn't add anything.) (I guess that's how I understood your #1 in the first place.)
:up:
Controversial!
In my view, there's some truth in this. I'm reluctant to say that there is truth without assertions. Ignoring rational aliens, it seems that truth is not apart from us.
Quoting Jerry
One of the problems is this carving-up: the world-carved-up as opposed to the world-not-carved-up. It seems that the raw or uncarved world is just Being, which is basically Nothing (no distinctions make it a ineffable clump). To say anything about it is to carve carve carve.
p is a proposition. So what this says is that the proposition "the cat is on the mat" is true if it corresponds to some fact about the word, namely the cat being on the mat. I don't think it correct to say that the proposition is the fact. Me writing "the cat is on the mat" isn't the cat being on the mat. The writing isn't the thing being written about.
Quoting Pie
In this case, the cat being on the mat is the truth-maker and the proposition "the cat is on the mat" (which can be spoken or written or signed, etc.) is the truth-bearer.
I think I am using 'fact' in a biased way (accidentally taking for granted a point of view which is not yet established.) I would 'like' to understand facts as true claims.
I want something like facts to serve as the inputs of inferences.
Quoting Michael
:up:
I agree that a string of letters is not a cat on a mat.
I think it's just a matter of preference whether to call the true proposition "the cat is on the mat" the fact or the cat being on the mat the fact.
You could always re-read the correspondence theory as saying that a proposition is true iff it corresponds to some object/event that exists/happens in the world. It's just a little wordy that way which is why I suspect they opted to use the term "fact" as a shorthand.
I'd only say that truth seems grammatically absolute, in a way that I hope to articulate further.
It's like a knight on the chessboard.
My issue with this is ....to what does it correspond...if not the reiteration of that which it is supposed to make true ?
"The cat on the mat" is true if the cat is on the mat.
I guess I want to avoid some weird stuff that is and is not language at the same time, some kind of quasi-physical cat-on-the-mat-ness. It's as if we are tempted to say too much, to merely muddy the water....
I could just point to the cat on the mat and say that your statement is true because it corresponds to the thing I'm pointing at.
Obviously I have to use the phrase "the cat on the mat" when I'm writing here, but in real life I can perform the action without writing (or saying) "the cat is on the mat".
"What you say is true because it corresponds to that [the thing I point to]".
Yes please!
Quoting Michael
So, whenever there is a T-schema expression, at least?
Problem?
I agree that you pick a case where correspondence is more plausible, but this is like choosing the little pieces of language that conform to the otherwise broken nomenclature theory.
To what would "truth is correspondence" (if true) correspond ? The concept of truth ? Perhaps. But one could not point.
This also takes us into the ineffable, the gestural. I grant that it's probably the intuitive source of the CT.
It deserves credit for what it gets right.
But that is merely to assume the CT, and to therefore think there's only void and darkness without it.
Qui ?
I do not suggest that nothing is true...only that maybe being true is radically simple thing, like some kind of default intention in communication (but that's not quite it, just exploring.)
What that? :chin:
The grand old Correspondence Theory (of truth)...
I don't need to be able to point to it for it to be the case, just as I don't need to say "the cat is on the mat" for the cat to be on the mat. Whether or not we can demonstrate correspondence has no bearing on whether or not correspondence obtains.
OK, but what is it to be the case ?
To me, it all boils down to P.
P is the case. P is true. P.
Or is there a difference that makes a difference?
:snicker: Oops!
Yes, but it doesn't boil down to "P". That's the point.
But surely we don't intend P as 'P.' Else why invent the notation for mention rather than use ?
Nor is 2 + 2 = 4 intended as a fact about numerals rather than numbers.
One might be tempted to talk of the meaning of 'P,' which is fair enough. But we might also consider an equivalence class of intersubstitutable expressions.
Are we forced into talk about something 'behind' our expressions ? Perhaps 'mind' is right there in them and as them (not singly but their relationships.)
A realist would want to. There's the written sentence "the cat is on the mat" and then there is the cat on the mat, which is an animal sitting on some fabric.
"The cat's being on the mat" is the controversy. Any such entity?
Sounds a bit straw-manish, admittedly. Can we agree, then?
So. Sentences. Things/events.
Sentences true or false. Things/events corresponding to names or other sentence-parts.
No entities corresponding to whole sentences. No truth-value attaching to things or events that aren't sentences.
I thank you.
Quoting Michael
Does this mean there exists [math ] f : \mathbb{E} \to \mathbb{N} [/math] such that f('the cat is on the mat') = the cat's being on the mat ? I take [math ] \mathbb{E} [/math] to be the set of English assertions and [math ] \mathbb{N} [/math] to be the set of non-linguistic reality bits. But what do we ever see of [math] \mathbb{N} [/math] but transformed English assertions ? It's like the thing-in-itself. Is this just an issue with use versus mention ?
It seems that we basically have f('P') = P, so that f removes quotes, transforms mention to use.
We see N. I'm in my room, I see lots of things about it but I don't describe them.
https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/popper/#BasiStatFalsConv
On an intuitive level, I see the temptation...but I'm also wary of this prelinguistic blob. I think awareness ought to be understood linguistically. The ineffable doesn't get us anywhere. If you, on the other hand, start talking about objects in your room and light hitting your retina...we can all work with that.
Like this:
Tentatively warranted and therefore jointly accepted premises.
from "Why Truth is not Important in Philosophy"
https://sites.pitt.edu/~rbrandom/Texts%20Mark%201%20p.html
There seems to be a logical link between "being true", "being a fact", "being asserted" and "being believed". If I assert p, then I'm forced to say that p is true, that p is a fact, and that I believe that p. All these statements are indissociable from the first person, and that's the whole thing the correspondence theory's formulation points to.
I can hardly understand the metaphysical thesis that there is in the world, beyond our practices, a brute fact that makes a statement true.
He goes on to endorse the prosentential account.
This is an appealing approach if it can be made to work.
:up:
I also think it'd be best to avoid this notion, precisely because it's so unclear. The world is (or perhaps ought to be described in terms of ) all that is the case, as a system of facts.
It's very tempting to try to talk about (invent! using talk ) something that can't be talked about.
We should perhaps allow that a community can jointly declare or endorse P. So the point may more about language than the first-person, though of course 'I claim P' or 'I think P' plays a central role epistemologically.
States, then? States of affairs?
Quoting Pie
"Just"???
I think [math] \mathbb{N} [/math] is the wrong way to go. I think we agree ?
You are cryptic. I like terse, but please give me a little more to decipher.
That sounds correct.
It's hard to disallow meanings of sentences in ordinary conversation, but this is perhaps more conflation of P with 'P'. The 'meaning' of 'P' just is P. Something like that maybe.
Quoting bongo fury
Ambiguously.
Not that you said "states". Events? Less ambiguous.
Quoting Goodman, Of Mind and Other Matters
Yes if N is a totality of corresponding facts. No if it's a totality of things that I ought to tidy. But they correspond merely to sentence-parts.
So maybe we agree (if we can find a congruent terminology) that there's just true claims ? We are both minimalist on this issue ? Prosentential perhaps ?
Yes. No corresponding relations or properties.
:up:
If you want to say meaning is found in truth conditions, yes.
Go on.
The essay explores that theme, tries to give it its due. I'm still making up my mind.
I think maybe warranted beliefs are what's important. I'm not sure truth plays much of a role. But I'm willing to be corrected.
I will die if I am warranted in believing that I will be decapitated.
I will die if it is true that I will be decapitated.
I think there's a clear difference here. And I think it's truth, not warranted belief, that is important in this case.
Well now, that's not what I had in mind, but I guess ?
Note that the second statement is easily rewritten as 'I will die, if I am decapitated.'
I note also that all I meant was that the best we can do is make sure our beliefs are warranted. We seem forced to find out whether they turn out to be true the hard way.
I think the truth conditions idea is meant to be a work around for the failure of correspondence. You know the meaning of P if you know when it's true.
Quoting Pie
Important for what?
If you mean if you know what would make it true, then that seems (tentatively) right.
Quoting Tate
It seems philosophers can only manage to make sure their beliefs are warranted, justified.
--How can I have true beliefs ?
--Well, I guess (?) make sure your beliefs are warranted and justified.
--So a warranted belief is more likely to be true ?
--I guess so. Yeah.
Skeptics will often say things like they want to believe as many truth things and as few false things as possible. Easier said than done. Whatever its limitations, I am happy for most quotidian affairs to be settled by correspondence. As it happens, Pilate's question was needlessly abstract and seems to construct 'truth' as a mystical property. As Simon Blackburn reminds us, the question for Pilate was, is Jesus starting an insurrection? This can be investigated. No need to calibrate the notion of truth. The best we can do is test everyday claims. Truth is not a property that all true propositions have in common. In the end what we call true about many matters will come down to presuppositions and value systems and often be at odds with other's presuppositions and value systems.
Quoting Pie
Rorty says that we know nothing of truth 'out there' but we can only justify beliefs. I imagine there are better and worse methods to go about doing this, right? Do you have any simple thoughts for a non-philosopher?
Pretty much.
Quoting Pie
You may be warranted to believe P, but that doesn't say anything about the probability of P being true.
:up:
Quoting Tom Storm
Bacon writing it adds even more complexity, because it's plausible that Bacon identified with Pilate and understood Pilate to be mocking some grandiose reification. "Truths maybe, but Truth ? Nevermind."
Quoting Tom Storm
That seems right to me. Just as there is no it that rains when it's raining, ...
Quoting Tom Storm
I don't think I can tell you anything you don't know. If you happen to have not studied statistics, understanding controlled experiments, hypothesis testing, and fitting models to data seems as valuable to me as anything else.
Is this so clear ? Why then do we value warrant ?
Good question. Think about people with OCD who have to recheck the same fact over and over. Something has gone wrong with the process of obtaining knowledge. The confidence one is supposed to get from justification isn't sticking.
I actually have a touch of that, and it's a strength in some situations. I recheck things others wouldn't, and every now and then discover problems others miss. They're too confident.
Confidence does speed things up, though. If you're running through the jungle trying to escape a saber toothed tiger, you need to react quickly to the justifications you're receiving.
I don't know, you're probably right. If you're justified, you may be more likely to be right.
I would expect you to be a knowledge externalist, though.
For some reason this question contextualizes truth better for me. When we say things like "I want to know what's true", I feel like we mistakenly treat truth as if it's something out there that we can attain. When really, all that's out there is reality, what is, and when we seek truth, we're simply looking for patterns existing in reality. What we can say of truth though, is when it applies to our mind. For example, beliefs can be true or false, like the belief that "the sky is blue", and their truth value is dependent upon whether the content of the belief is an actual pattern in reality. If I believe the sky is blue, and the sky really is blue, then my belief is true, but under my understanding, that the sky is blue isn't really a truth in and of itself. It simply is.
I guess this is just a roundabout way of accepting the correspondence theory of truth, but I think the key idea is that truth isn't a fundamental "thing", like an abstract object that we discover. It simply describes whether our mental models correctly describe reality.
Isn't that just a Dillahunty saying? Although I suppose the sentiment is typical of skeptics.
I think so. I am a skeptic. I don't generally say this, however.
If you have an understanding of the state under which p is true, then what more could you want in order to have the meaning of p? (Davidson)
Quoting Michael
You are going to get into all sorts of trouble by treating truth as a first-order predicate.
:up:
Quoting Tate
I lean that way, though it might be hard to formalize. Stats might be an exception. P-values roughly measure the probability of chance being responsible for what looks like non-chance.
Quoting Tate
Still working it out, but I'm liking a normative approach to conceptuality. How are we responsible for our claims about objects in our world ? The object has a 'say' in this.
T(q) ? p is the same as p is true iff p which is the T-schema which you have previously said is the correct account of truth.
I'm not so sure. I suspect it's actually pretty simple, if folk don't confuse themselves. Treat T-sentences as a definition of "...is true" and you won't go far wrong.
Quoting Jerry
For me, it's hard not to simplify this into : "the sky is blue" is true if and only if the sky is blue. The temptation is to say more, to explain truth, but it tends to come out as the same tune in another key.
Quoting Jerry
I think the deflationary/redundancy view which I endorse is a leaner, cleaner version of correspondence.
Talk of mental models and representation in general seems to want to put two things together side by side, but it seems that only the thing on our side is intelligible. How does 'the sky is blue' match anything ? The language and the world are one, you might say. But it'd make sense to evolve a language like that. (I don't mean that letters or sounds are the same as the world but that meaning is something like the world-for-us, though it's probably safer to just endorse the redundancy theory of truth.)
:up:
I think we should make it simple in just way (or close enough.)
I'm not sure of that. Your version hides the disquotation in a seperate line. 'q' becomes explicitly the name of a sentence, raising the complex issue of individuating that sentence. Types, tokens, and so on. The quotes make it clear that what is true is an utterance, in a specific circumstance - a quote.
That's what this thread might do, for some.
I think the quotes make it clear that what is true is a proposition. Whether or not a proposition is an utterance is open to debate which the rest of my post explains.
:up:
I will go with Davidson and opt for utterance rather than proposition. I understand what an utterance is, not so much a disembodied proposition, floating between "it's raining", "il pluet" and "Sta piovendo"
My impression was that he used sentences, not utterances. An utterance is the actual sounds or marks used in communication. A sentence is a formal thing. Any number of utterances can convey the same sentence.
I don't think so. Sentences. Tarski used sentences.
Radical interpretation, per the SEP:
"So, for example, when the speaker with whom we are engaged uses a certain sequence of sounds repeatedly in the presence of what we believe to be a rabbit, we can, as a preliminary hypothesis, interpret those sounds as utterances about rabbits or about some particular rabbit. Once we have arrived at a preliminary assignment of meanings for a significant body of utterances, we can test our assignments against further linguistic behaviour on the part of the speaker,".
This is about utterances, yes, but we haven't yet arrived at issues of truth. For that we move on to sentences.
Quoting Michael
is a T-sentence, as Michale claims?
I think there are important differences. You?
For Tarski, both the quoted and disquoted portions are sentences. The issue of utterances and propositions doesn't come up.
The T-schema is used in other ways, though. In redundancy, we're imagining someone making an assertion, so uttering a sentence. Whether we want to also say they're expressing a proposition by uttering a sentence isn't relevant to the point.
The T-schema has also been used as a rendering of correspondence theory. It just depends on how we want to read it. I gather you're leaning toward correspondence theory.
where
Quoting Michael
is the same as
And if so, how, and if not, why?
Seems to me the problem stems from treating propositions as individuals.
Res, non verba!
Are we in sophist territory? It's baffling, all this.
Quoting Banno
If you're interpreting the t-sentence rule as a rendering of correspondence theory, then yes, the quoted part is a truth bearer, probably a proposition, and the disquoted part is a truth maker.
It just depends on how you want to read it.
Quoting Banno
Why is that problematic?
Agent Smith notes that down for future reference! Has a religious subtext to it which I find fascinating (re messengers of God).
The sentence "snow is white" is true if, and only if, snow is white.
If the sentence "snow is white" is true then the sentence "snow is white" exists. Therefore, given the biconditional, if snow is white then the sentence "snow is white" exists.
I suppose you could amend it to:
If the sentence "snow is white" exists then it is true iff snow is white.
?q: T(q) ? p
Then the conclusion to the argument I gave at the start of this discussion is the tautology:
?q: ?x(x=q)
Not so fast. The sentence in the second part is a truth maker? Or it picks out a truth maker?
Quoting Tate
How is it clear? Is such an individual: truth-bearing sentence, truth-making event or relation, or something in between, or (as so often carelessly implied) all at once.
Quoting Michael
Quite. "Sentence" is fine. Drop "proposition". (Everyone!) If not why not?
Yes. :razz: My point was that you need to look for how an author is using the t-sentence rule. Use varies.
Quoting bongo fury
Again, look to use. Propositions are usually the content of uttered sentences, but nothing stops people from using "proposition" to mean pizza.
Quoting bongo fury
Tarski doesn't deal in propositions. It's just sentences from two different languages, one that has a truth predicate and one that doesn't. It's not a definition of truth.
He does provide a definition of truth in The Semantic Conception of Truth:
I think he eventually admitted that it's not a definition. Since Frege, the standard view is that truth can't be defined. It's too primitive.
Both, because propositions are in fact a class of sentences.
Sure. But a sentence is already a class: of tokens, or copies. So you don't need another name for the more inclusive class.
Allowing translations into the class won't matter at all if they are parsed and interpreted the same. It's no different to letting symbols stand for the sentence-parts.
If you want a proposition to be a class of differently parsed paraphrases, then, why? And what? Non-linguistic? Abstract? Timeless?
Meh... Why would propositions be timeless? By definition, someone needs to actually propose a proposition and one can't do that outside of time.
And if a proposition is non-linguistic, what does it say?
You said
Quoting Olivier5
Then why say "both"?
I was asking how you were trying to use it. Whether
Quoting Tate
referred to the sentence constituting the second part of the biconditional or to some corresponding event or relation, or something else, or all 3.
I wasn't trying to use it. I took Banno to be asking if we should interpret the quotes as signaling a specific act of assertion. My answer was that you can do that, you just need to explain that to the reader.
Or perhaps neither ? We deny that truth is a property. "P is true" is a fancy/emphatic version of "P."
Deflationists don't deny that truth is a property, btw.
I meant that if propositions are sentences, then truth is a property of propositions, and hence a property of certain sentences.
:up:
We should perhaps acknowledge a Derridean 'iterabilty' at work, which is what suggests 'timeless' to earlier theorist (there's a certain time-independence, since old books remain legible, we can quote Tarski in a new context,...)
https://academic.oup.com/book/377/chapter-abstract/135193384?redirectedFrom=fulltext&login=false
We being?
You may be right, but I don't think I'm that wrong.
https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/truth-deflationary/
Like a piece of wood can have a certain permanence and durability, a sentence can remain known and meaningful over time. But neither the wood nor the sentence are "out of time". They are just durable, for a while.
:up:
The Rust language dereferences pointers automatically. I think we humans are pretty good at doing that too.
I definitely need that explained.
I just meant that we can still drop "proposition".
This is pretty good.
Quoting/mentioning is something like pointing at sentence-as-meant. Deferencing is like quote-stripping, 'activating' the code.
Quoting bongo fury
:up:
I probably just muddied the water by mentioning pointers.
:up:
I agree. They seem to have meaning only as long as there are normative creatures with a use for them...as code as opposed to burning books to stay warm.
Turing machines have a 'potentially infinite' tape. This just means that we don't build in any limits. I think there is a similar open-ended-ness in play.
I can't remember the context. Presumably it's 'we especially rational and charming people who agree with @Pie'...
Let's see...
Quoting Tate
Ok so you were talking mainly about the first half of the biconditional. Even so, did
Quoting Tate
refer to the sentence constituting the second part of the biconditional or to some corresponding event or relation, or something else, or all 3 (because it doesn't matter)?
Maybe not then.
You have to specify the context in which you're using the T-sentence rule. Is it Tarski? Redundancy? Are you try to make into correspondence theory?
The answer to your question will vary depending on how you answer that.
Er,
Quoting Tate
Now then, in that context, your context, did
Quoting Tate
refer to the sentence constituting the second part of the biconditional or to some corresponding event or relation, or something else, or all 3 (because it doesn't matter)?
So it was a regal we, fair enough.
I personally see truth as a property of certain sentences and other symbolic representations of reality, the property of having a good enough fit with said reality, as far as we can tell.
The same applies to many objects, including material ones.
That view is tempting, but I can't make sense of the comparison, of the fit. Only one side is intelligible.
We clearly aren't fitting strings of letter to reality but the 'meaning' of the utterance. Yet the 'meaning' is just the more or less tentatively embraced 'structure of reality.' It's as if world-as-speakable and language are one, but that's a tautology...(?)
How do you make sense of fit ? Do you see a problem ?
:up:
It would be some state of the world.
The meaning of a proposition remains a representation of reality, at least an attempt at it. It's not the reality it tries to depict. It is true to the extent that it represents perceivable reality in an accurate manner.
What would? What you're calling "the disquoted part"?
Some state of the world is a disquoted part? Part of what? Part of the world?
So "part" didn't mean "part of the T schema"?
My question is: how does (the meaning of ) a true statement depict reality ? What is this representational, optical metaphor doing or trying to do ?
This is Aristotle's formulation of the correspondence theory of truth:
"To say of what is that it is not, or of what is not that it is, is false, while to say of what is that it is, and of what is not that it is not, is true."
This is the t-sentence rule:
"P" is true IFF P.
If you wanted the t-sentence to express correspondence theory, how would you work it out? I'd say the quoted part is some specific act of assertion, and the disquoted part is a state of affairs that corresponds to the assertion.
I seem to recall, someone had a theory about that.
:up:
Which one, right ?
Rorty was maybe the first analytic philosopher I got into...bad influence, right ? Of course he challenged (as you prob. know) the 'mirror' or lens' or 'truth-o-scope' framework generally. Words are just paws for coping.
[quote=Hegel, from Intro to Phen]
It is natural to suppose that, before philosophy enters upon its subject proper namely, the actual knowledge of what truly is it is necessary to come first to an understanding concerning knowledge, which is looked upon as the instrument by which to take possession of the Absolute, or as the means through which to get a sight of it. The apprehension seems legitimate, on the one hand that there may be various kinds of knowledge, among which one might be better adapted than another for the attainment of our purpose and thus a wrong choice is possible: on the other hand again that, since knowing is a faculty of a definite kind and with a determinate range, without the more precise determination of its nature and limits we might take hold on clouds of error instead of the heaven of truth.
This apprehensiveness is sure to pass even into the conviction that the whole enterprise which sets out to secure for consciousness by means of knowledge what exists per se, is in its very nature absurd; and that between knowledge and the Absolute there lies a boundary which completely cuts off the one from the other. For if knowledge is the instrument by which to get possession of absolute Reality, the suggestion immediately occurs that the application of an instrument to anything does not leave it as it is for itself, but rather entails in the process, and has in view, a moulding and alteration of it. Or, again, if knowledge is not an instrument which we actively employ, but a kind of passive medium through which the light of the truth reaches us, then here, too, we do not receive it as it is in itself, but as it is through and in this medium. In either case we employ a means which immediately brings about the very opposite of its own end; or, rather, the absurdity lies in making use of any means at all. It seems indeed open to us to find in the knowledge of the way in which the instrument operates, a remedy for this parlous state; for thereby it becomes possible to remove from the result the part which, in our idea of the Absolute received through that instrument, belongs to the instrument, and thus to get the truth in its purity. But this improvement would, as a matter of fact, only bring us back to the point where we were before. If we take away again from a definitely formed thing that which the instrument has done in the shaping of it, then the thing (in this case the Absolute) stands before us once more just as it was previous to all this trouble, which, as we now see, was superfluous. ...
Meanwhile, if the fear of falling into error introduces an element of distrust into science, which without any scruples of that sort goes to work and actually does know, it is not easy to understand why, conversely, a distrust should not be placed in this very distrust, and why we should not take care lest the fear of error is not just the initial error. As a matter of fact, this fear presupposes something, indeed a great deal, as truth, and supports its scruples and consequences on what should itself be examined beforehand to see whether it is truth. It starts with ideas of knowledge as an instrument, and as a medium; and presupposes a distinction of ourselves from this knowledge. More especially it takes for granted that the Absolute stands on one side, and that knowledge on the other side, by itself and cut off from the Absolute, is still something real; in other words, that knowledge, which, by being outside the Absolute, is certainly also outside truth, is nevertheless true a position which, while calling itself fear of error, makes itself known rather as fear of the truth.
[/quote]
https://www.marxists.org/reference/archive/hegel/works/ph/phintro.htm
Still? You're still saying the disquoted part of a sentence is a disquoted part of the world, whatever that means?
Lol. I'm not sure why this seems mysterious to you. I don't think anyone is well advised to use the t-sentence rule as correspondence theory, but it happens. If that boggles you, just ignore them.
Might be the day before you came here that everyone was quoting
at each other.
Does he mean reading the furniture in a room ?
If you didn't know how it's done, you couldn't write a meaningful sentence on TPF, and since you clearly can write a meaningful sentence, I will assume you know how it is done. If you want a detailed analysis, you might wish to read about basic linguistics, eg Saussure, or I suppose Chomsky. I read that the recent progresses in automatic translation were based on modern linguistics à la Chomsky, with its concept of a universal grammar.
I know how to write. I'm not just making weird stuff up, friend. I'm far the first to gripe about the mysteries of the correspondence theory of truth. I'm just asking how you navigate or tolerate them (the traditional criticisms, and the one in particular that I tried to articulate.)
Is this what you meant?
Ah, solving that question
Brings the priest and the doctor
In their long coats
Running over the fields.
Love that poem.
What?
I think his joke is that the correspondence theory doesn't make sense, so it's like answering 'the' question to present it so that it does.
What are days for?
Days are where we live.
They come, they wake us
Time and time over.
They are to be happy in:
Where can we live but days?
Ah, solving that question
Brings the priest and the doctor
In their long coats
Running over the fields.
https://www.poetryfoundation.org/poems/48410/days-56d229a0c0c33
I've only been arguing for avoiding the perennial equivocation re
Quoting bongo fury
How's this ? The meaning of the assertion, the sentence in use, seems to simply be the world(-as-understood). If we jettison apparent nonsense like the world-in-itself...the world is just that which is the case. To me this is not correspondence. There's just use/mention. 'P' is a string of letters. P is piece of a world, a truth (or an attempted truthery.)
Yea, I was just trying to figure out what the hell you're asking.
As I've said, you can do whatever you want.
Isn't the point discussion ?
Sure. My point is: you can do whatever you want.
*flees over the field*
Saussure is one of my favorite thinkers. Good recommendation ! But bad social gesture.
Is this my fault? Have I lowered the tone?
It doesn't seem to make any sense. Are you joking?
https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/truth-correspondence/
Joking and not joking. If the world is all that is the case, a truth is a piece of the world.
I'm questioning the supposed gap between the meaning of a true assertion and the world it is true of.
Waxing phenomenological, I'd say that we, our world, and our language are fused.
We are being-in-the-world-with-others-in-language.
Ok. Will you be getting back to waxing analytical any time soon?
Sure. But I'm a golden dye-job with dirty continental roots.
I've tended to read the analytical blokes who've integrated the continentals. To me it's mostly different styles, different background lingo...but similar points.
https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/truth-correspondence/
The idea of unmediated reality..of some external 'nonlinguistic' world behind any claims we can make about the world we live in...is itself the problem.
[quote = Hegel]
More especially it takes for granted that the Absolute stands on one side, and that knowledge on the other side, by itself and cut off from the Absolute, is still something real; in other words, that knowledge, which, by being outside the Absolute, is certainly also outside truth, is nevertheless true a position which, while calling itself fear of error, makes itself known rather as fear of the truth.
This conclusion comes from the fact that the Absolute alone is true or that the True is alone absolute, It may be set aside by making the distinction that a know ledge which does not indeed know the Absolute as science wants to do, is none the less true too; and that knowledge in general, though it may possibly be incapable of grasping the Absolute, can still be capable of truth of another kind. But we shall see as we proceed that random talk like this leads in the long run to a confused distinction between the absolute truth and a truth of some other sort, and that absolute, knowledge, and so on, are words which presuppose a meaning that has first to be got at.
With suchlike useless ideas and expressions about knowledge, as an instrument to take hold of the Absolute, or as a medium through which we have a glimpse of truth, and so on (relations to which all these ideas of a knowledge which is divided from the Absolute and an Absolute divided from knowledge in the last resort lead), we need not concern ourselves. Nor need we trouble about the evasive pretexts which create the incapacity of science out of the presupposition of such relations, in order at once to be rid of the toil of science, and to assume the air of serious and zealous effort about it. Instead of being troubled with giving answers to all these, they may be straightway rejected as adventitious and arbitrary ideas; and the use which is here made of words like absolute,"knowledge, as also objective and subjective, and innumerable others, whose meaning is assumed to be familiar to everyone, might well be regarded as so much deception. For to give out that their significance is universally familiar and that everyone indeed possesses their notion, rather looks like an attempt to dispense with the only important matter, which is just to give this notion. With better right, on the contrary, we might spare ourselves the trouble of talking any notice at all of such ideas and ways of talking which would have the effect of warding off science altogether; for they make a mere empty show of knowledge which at once vanishes when science comes on the scene.
[/quote]
https://www.marxists.org/reference/archive/hegel/works/ph/phintro.htm
You imply there are plums in the icebox.
I report that there are not.
I conclude and claim that something is rotten in Denmark, that you probably lied.
I don't suggest we deny the realm of the ghost. There's just not much to do with it. It reminds me of Popper. Where scientific hypotheses come from doesn't matter, doesn't give them their status or lack thereof as scientific hypotheses.
If I may wax phenomenological again, here's a different approach to the same insight into the centrality of language for us as our rational selves, not only sentient but sapient. I take the following to gesture toward the 'field of meaning' which we share as our essentially familiar and intelligible world, that thing that we can be right or wrong about, because it transcends each of us individually, encompassing us, our source and our future grave. (Ha ha !)
[quote= Heidegger]
Language is not merely a tool which man possesses alongside many others; language first grants the possibility of standing in the midst of the openness of beings. Only where there is language, is there world, that is, the constantly changing cycle of decision and work, of action and responsibility, but also of arbitrariness and turmoil, decay and confusion.
...
The one as that which forms everyday being-with-one-another...constitutes what we call the public in the strict sense of the word. It implies that the world is always already primarily given as the common world. It is not the case on the one hand there are first individual subjects which at any given time have their own world; and that the task would then arise of putting together, by virtue of some sort of arrangement, the various particular worlds of individuals and of agreeing how one would have a common world. This is how philosophers imagine these things when they ask about the constitution of the inter-subjective world. We say instead that the first thing that is given is the common world -- the one.
...
Being-there as being-in-the-world is primarily governed by logos Coming into the world, one grows into a determinate tradition of speaking, seeing, interpreting. Being-in-the-world is an already-having-the-world-thus-and-so. This peculiar fact, that the world into which I enter, in which I awaken, is there for me in a determinate interpretedness, I designate terminologically as fore-having.
Dasein is history.
...
Dasein, whiling away its own time in each case, is at the same time always a generation. So a specific interpretedness precedes every Dasein in the shape of the generation itself. What is preserved in the generation is itself the outcome of earlier views and disputes, earlier interpretations and past concerns.
...
The wellspring of such persistent elements lies in the past, but they continue to have such an impact in the present that their dominance is taken for granted and their development forgotten. Such a forgotten past is inherent in the prevailing interpretedness of being-together-with-one-another. To the extent that Dasein lives from (cares about) this past, it is this past itself.
...
The world with which we are concerned and being-in itself are both interpreted within the parameters of a particular framework of intelligibility.
...
One has a timeworn conceptuality at one's disposal. It provides the fore-concept for the interpretation. The interpretedness of a 'time' is strictly determined by these structural factors and the variable forms of their realization. And it is precisely the unobtrusiveness of these factors --the fact that one is not aware of them -- which gives public interpretedness its taken-for-granted character. However, the 'fore'-character in the structure of interpretedness shows us that it is none other than what has already been that jumps ahead, as it were, of a present time pervaded by interpretedness. Guided by its interpretedness, expectant concern lives its own past.
[/quote]
I don't see a viable alternative to the correspondance theory of truth, and never managed to understand any of its critiques.
:up:
https://philosophynow.org/issues/108/Herder_Humboldt_Heidegger_Language_As_World-Disclosure
Well said. I'm not surprised that it's @bongo fury who has you pointing this out. I've tried to make the same point to Bongo a few times.
Quoting Banno
to which he replied with a quote from Sam:
Quoting Sam26
So it seems that somehow for Bongo, that the cat is on the mat is not a fact, but a sentence.
Now that might be what Wittgenstein (at least in the Tractatus) is claiming, but Davidson seems to suggest otherwise:
That the cat is on the mat is a fact, not a sentence.
It's good to hear I'm not crazy. I thought that was how others were taking Wittgenstein in that context (who seems to echo Hegel.)
Excellent quote ! I think our views are pretty damned close on this issue. A rare pleasure.
I think the point is that reality, the one we (can) talk about, is 'already' linguistic...and not something 'subintelligble' that words can somehow picture, as if holding up concepts to judge against something real-but-non-conceptual. The 'picture,' if true, is the world.
This sounds like Hegel, big time.
Quoting Pie
Yes; it's in a sense the elimination of the picture giving the meaning in favour of the use replacing the meaning in an expression. That the cat is on the mat is not a picture of the world, it is the world.
The exegetic question might be how the picture theory changed between the Tactatus and the Investigations, and so whether it is compatible with the demise of conceptual schema.
Quoting Pie
But without the idealism. That is, maintaining a bivalent logic in the face of unknown (empirical?) truths.
I continue to think that we agree.
Do we agree that there is no point in making promises or bananas less real than protons ?
Care to say more ? I don't know if I ever paid much attention to that theme in Hegel.
If that's what Davidson is saying, then I disagree. Reality isn't, in my view "already linguistic." We use language (propositions) to describe reality, propositions are separate from the facts of reality.
I suspected you disagreed, actually, from what you said before.
Not about Hegel. Not an area I'll claim to understand.
But idealism is tied to antirealism, and hence assumes a grammar in which some statements have no truth value. I suppose that if Hegel is an idealist, as is commonly supposed, then he drops bivalent logic somewhere...?
My concern with this approach is that it's not clear what the pictures are picturing. How does language function as an image for what you insist is not already linguistic ? We don't hold up propositions to promises or electrons.
I can look into that. I have Braver's book, A Thing of This World, which approaches the great antirealists in analytic terms (including explicitly bivalence.)
I think Hegel is an idealist in the way that Davidson is, which might be to say misunderstood as one. (Do folks accuse Davidson of that? I only know him via Rorty, really.)
He didn't eliminate the idea that propositions can picture. He just expanded the idea. Some propositions are a kind of picture. Propositions can be a model of reality, and that model either agrees with reality or it doesn't. Even Einstein's theories were models that were confirmed, i.e., it agreed or it didn't. When the experiments confirmed the model, then the model was accepted as a fact of reality.
So, if I describe a picture to you, you wouldn't be clear what the picture is picturing. Now I'm not saying that all propositions fit this approach, but I am saying that some propositional uses do fit this approach.
:grin: You are brave, saying that out loud...
But it should get your thread a dozen more pages.
The part about Hegel ? Or about Davidson ? (I'm guessing Hegel.)
So here's the issue, since Davidson shows the notion of differing conceptual schemes to lack coherence. If we are to say that these pictures or models are conceptual schemes, then Davidson's criticism of conceptual schemes becomes a critique of the picture theory.
If propositions are a model of reality, which is the model of reality - that the cat is on the mat, or "the cat is on the mat"? The use or the mention?
If the picture is that the cat is on the mat, then Davidson's criticism applies. If the picture is "the cat is on the mat", then it doesn't.
I'll here make an invocation prayer to @Tobias, who knows such things. Tobi, is Hegel really an idealist? What is idealism, for Hegel?
I think in the Tractacus he's presenting that as the way we normally imagine things: propositions corresponding to the world the same way a photograph corresponds to a scene.
But the picture can never be in the picture. When we present a theory of propositions, we've strayed beyond what language good for, into nonsense. We're just so enthralled by the theory that we don't realize this. We've forgotten that some things can't be explained. We should pass over them in silence.
The model is my or someone else's contention that there is a cat on the mat in my living room (that there's a fact of the matter). A proposition by itself, without the belief, is just a potential picture of a fact that hasn't been presented as a particular belief about the world. It's neither true nor false.
Hegel's idealism is not the metaphysical, Berkeleyan claim that only minds and ideas exist, but rather the negative anti-realist claim that we have no way of talking about input ab extra.
Although experience comes in from the outside in some sense, when we try to pin down what this means, it ends up becoming 'an otherness which is superseded in the act of grasping it.'
[/quote]
[quote=Hegel]
We can no longer talk of things at all,i.e.,of something that would be for consciousness merely the negative of itself.
...
Thought is always in its own sphere; its relations are with itself, and it is its own object.
[/quote]
Added Braver's take (small part of it). Verdict: more of an anti-realist. Hegel rejects bivalence only in a dialectical sense. Philosophers offer partial truths, not wholly true or false, which are synthesized into less partial, more complete truths.
Exactly.
Quoting Tate
Parts of this I agree with, other parts would have to be explained further. I'm not a fan of passing over anything, or much of anything, in silence. This has become a kind of cliché for many philosophers.
But this means that his theory doesn't even include its condition of possiblity. A theory of language and meaning that must exclude that theory itself ...fails?
We've built a ladder to nowhere.
That's the intellect's motto. It thinks it can understand everything.
Peirce had a similar view.
But it seems to me that at least some sentences are true or false, and that we sometimes even know which ones.
This by way of returning to your OP.
The first issue might be to identify where the picture resides. Davidson's critique begins with conceptual relativism, so one might ask if the picture that Jim sees is the same as the picture that John sees. If the answer is to be "no", then the picture theory does seem to be an example of conceptual relativism, and liable to Davidson's criticism. If not, then where is the picture?
I agree. Maybe Hegel would too. I've read a fair amount of his work, and I don't recall him disputing relatively simple claims being true or false.
Then Hegel seems to be working with more than one sort of truth, with all the problems of consistency that would entail.
So I'll stay with Frege and the analytic approach.
Quoting Banno
The difference might be the fading of the solipsism of the Tractatus in favour of the public language of the Investigations. The picture ceases to be the construction of one mind and becomes the combined work of a community.
Well I wouldn't try to sell anyone on Hegel in 2022, not the whole clump of him anyway.
If I could go back in time, I'd have studied Sellars and Brandom sooner.
:up:
Age'll do that to you, make you realize the world is bigger than you.
I'm not sure that Davidson and Wittgenstein are at odds. Consider:
Now if the world is all that is the case, then aren't the scheme and the content as one? "What is the case" being the scheme, and the world being the content?
If talking about the potential for something to happen based on conditions.. everyone is on board, yay! If it is talking about a possible person, that would be imposed upon had it been born, boo! And the proverbial crowds throw their rotten tomatoes...
But the former half is the very problem I think Peirce is addressing (my knowledge of Peirce coming via a very roundabout route - Ramsey-> Cheryl Misak's work on his Pragmatism -> Peirce so forgive my ignorance of the primary source).
It seems to you that at least some sentences are true. It seems that way to me too, but I'd bet my hat we don't have the same list of sentences. So what do we say about this 'seeing to us'? What is it that 'seems' and what do we say about the differences?
Ramsey puts it down to our experience and our rules (or habits) of thought. But this is pragmatism (which I take it is not up your street). So what do you make of the differences in our list? What, for you, is the 'seeming to you' about the truth of sentences - what's happening when a sentence 'seems to you' to be true?
Of course you are right. But I will also go along with Davidson in pointing out that overwhelmingly, we agree about far more than we disagree. So you and I will agree that this is a sentence of English, in a thread on-line, discussing epistemology; that cats usually have four legs and that four is twice two. The thing about our agreements is that they don't cause us much consternation, and so in order to avoid tedium, occupy little of our conversation. But our disagreements are perturbing, and do occupy our minds and discussions. So we give much more time to our disagreements than to our agreement.
So if we attempted complete lists of our beliefs, our lists would be tediously similar, but include a small number of much more interesting exceptions.
Quoting Isaac
In a word, belief. And belief is not truth. T-sentences show pretty much all there is to say about truth. Belief is a different animal. Belief is much more complex. HAppy to go on at length about beleif, but this is a thread about truth,.
Quoting Isaac
No, not if it is taken as a theory of truth. As a way of deciding what we might do well to believe, it's fine. As a theory of truth, it sucks.
How this fits with your thinking might be interesting. It would seem that neural nets are the experts on expediency. Truth doesn't matter to them, I guess. But that's fine, since for the most part truth is greatly overrated - as is demonstrated by the triviality of T-sentences.
So, no?
My personal opinion of "truth" is that it should unambiguously tell us whether we are animals or creation of god.
In respect to Jesus' saying of truth, I think good start is Lewis Trilemma:
https://rationalwiki.org/wiki/Lewis_Trilemma
knowing the "truth" is very powerful because either entire world becomes atheists or entire world converts, and truth if known should not cause any suspicions further.
Truth I think may not be personal thing.
But then, what is "truth"?
Without question, yes. Not an insignificant point either, but I'm not sure that the volume of agreements caries any semantic weight...?
Quoting Banno
Do they though?
I think we use 'true' and 'truth' to carry an awful lot more meaning that T-sentences encompass.
If I say "you must believe me...It's true, I tell you!" I'm not using 'true' just to mean that the state of affairs is as I describe them. I added 'true' to implore, to add weight. It's indicating the strength of my belief, or the urgency with which I need you to agree. It has nothing to do with (on this occasion) the correspondence of the phrase to the state of affairs.
"Everything John says is true" is about my faith in John.
"True love" is just really, really intense love.
And so on...
Quoting Banno
I can see what you mean. There's something amiss in seeing truth as success in that we understand the concept of a coincidence. I don't think it 'sucks', but I can see the flaws. I'm more of an 'iron them out' person.
Quoting Banno
Well, I've often been found to say so, yes. But when doing so, I'm talking about a correspondence theory of truth. It matters not one jot to our inference system if it's model of hidden states is how the hodden states are, only that it allows an accurate prediction of the force needed to be applied to them to resist entropic decay.
Where I struggle with that notion is that it imports an idea of 'the way things 'really' are, and as you'll know, I'm allergic to the notion of there being a way things 'really' are.
If we say that the brain's inferences need not be 'true' (ie there's some actual state that the external world is in, which my brain does not care about) then I may come out in hives.
I prefer to see the external world as constraints. Something about it constrains our models of how it is such that they won't work if they're not within those constraints. This is where I have problems with the asymptomatic notion of truth (and also where I think Ramsey diverges from Peirce - but not sure). I don't think of hidden states as have a single 'way they are' at all, only several ways they aren't.
As for 'truth' though, I wouldn't say it referred to any of that. I think it's far more likely to be a socially functional word. It's used to persuade, not identify.
Quoting Isaac
This begins to add what seems to me to be lacking in the discussion, which is the moral dimension, which I suggest is inescapably there from the beginning. The monkey tribe has 2 warning calls, one for threats from above - eagles, and one for threats from below - snakes. Meaning is use so the use is to get down from the treetops or get up from the ground according to the danger, and there is already the possibility and the potential use of falsehood; a monkey spots a tasty morsel on the ground and gives a false ground warning cry, the tribe scuttles up the trees, leaving the liar in sole possession of the tasty morsel.
But the lie is dependent on the truth-telling of the community. If falsehood was normalised, the cry would cease to have the meaning of warning of danger, and come to be an alert of something interesting on the ground. Only truth telling can support language, and habitual liars are not worth listening to as their speech has no meaning. Thus to the extent that we live in a world of language, we live in a moral social world in which the truth has value and falsehood is destructive of meaning of society and of our world.
Truth, one might say is redundant just as long as it is adhered to, but what is needed is an account of falsehood, which is parasitic on a community of truth tellers.
But where I live, it's common to see birds feigning injury. If you walk near their nests, they'll try to lead you away by flapping on the ground. They're just protecting their offspring. So maybe it's not always evil.
Don't theist believe that a god created all of the animals and not just us ?
I acknowledge that the God issue is decisive. If there is God (as typically conceived), then are slaves who should maybe not bother with philosophy. I take it for granted that there is not such a God, and that there's only us down here, trying to be less stupid than we were yesterminute.
:up:
This may be the redundancy theory with a new attention paid to pragmatics. 'The ice cream is very very cold.' 'It is indeed true that it is indeed true that it is indeed true.'
:up:
Does the concept of a belief depend on the concept of a truth in the same way ? Is "seems" a parasite on "is"?
:up:
World-sharing seems primary. An assertion updates the world in the tribe mind ?
Antinatalism is OK with me, but, having read Darwin and the boys, I don't think much will come of it, unless you all get your wish from a nuclear winter, as Chads slug it out for nubiles, wallowing in the happiness of being envied...and a bit in the pleasures of flesh. Are we self-replicating, self-torturing slime ? Sure we are, in a certain slant of light, winter afternoons. Let us write novels about a terrorist group that actually gets it. You do see that we have to destroy all life in the universe, don't you? This slime, if given time, will up and walk and talk and spread its sinister wings. We must stamp it out entirely. But what of abiogenesis ? If life can erupt once from nonlife, it can erupt again. It seems we must destroy the universe itself...or accelerate its heat death making sentient organization impossible. The non-selfish thing to do is breed breed breed and advance our technical power for the eventual cosmic suicide. We suffer Christ-like now so that they will neither suffer nor joy in a future that will arrive unwitnessed. Thigh will be dim inert as it is uneven. (Thesis chew sorry.)
Your gloomy prose is poetry to my ears :lol:.
But really, why I brought this up was that this thread started to discuss potentiality and actuality. And it seems that in many discussions about AN, people think because a parent is effecting/affecting a gamete (that then turns into a person) rather than directly a person, that no "force" of a person's birth is happening. And I find this statement wildly incorrect and sophistic. The parent starts a chain of events that results in a person. THAT person born is the person that has NOW (at it's time of birth) been imposed/forced, even if "they" were not around earlier. The very fact of the state of affairs of their presence becomes what is defined as the "imposition" put upon a person by the parents' move to procreate.
:up:
Very important point. Any definition of truth must account or make room for its opposite -- falsehood.
But I didn't say 'evil'. Imagine a world where everything looks like something else. Sight loses its utility, and even looking like something else loses it's utility. What I am saying is that language has social utility, but only to the extent that meaning is retained, and meaning is only retained as long as most people tell the truth most of the time. Nevertheless, there is utility for the individual in a lie, that exploits the established meaning.
Quoting Pie
I'm not sure what you mean. If I tell lies, I am exploiting your propensity to believe what is said. The propensity to believe is the exact same thing as understanding the language. For example, politicians have been banging on in the UK about "levelling up" for a number of years in the UK. And we understand that as a raft of policies intended to raise the economic prosperity of the regions to the level of the Southeast. But they have actually implemented policies that do the opposite, rendering the phrase literally meaningless and causing people to lose interest in politics because it is all, and they are all, becoming meaningless; their language is meaningless. The culture is literally being destroyed as we speak because meaning is use, and language is useless unless it tells the truth. Cue Orwell, cue Kant.
Personally I think it is an imposition to throw yet another babe into the vat of acid. Is it wrong ? No easy answer. The safe thing is nothing at all. But is this safety better than variety? Than the possibility of falling in (requited) love for the first time ? Then glorying in a conquest on a day of victory ? Life is [s]exploitation[/s] Chad. I am the Chad of Chads, rabid protean capitalism incarnate, amoral lifeslime. I joke about and confess that in us which is other than those more welcome better angels.
Nicely put ! There is something primary in taking to be true. For the believer, the world 'is' P.
Quoting unenlightened
I'm on a nearby wavelength. Rationality is normative. Truthtelling is fundamental. Irrationality is antisocial.
If rationality is normative, then mustnt irrationality also be normative? Put differently, isnt one persons irrationality simply anothers rationality? If falsehood is the opposite of truth telling, isnt a lie motivated by a prior breakdown in communication that it is an attempt to rationally cope with?
It has been said that postmodernism plays into the human predilection to give into irrationalism. Supposedly, even those on the right who claim to despise everything postmodernism stands for can be contaminated by its pernicious irrationalist impetus. As the argument goes , if the other side can invent any rules they want , so can we.
While conservatives and modernists debate which side is rational or irrational, and what foreign(French) influence to blame for it, postmodernists assert that it is not irrationality that leads to fascisms and totalitarianisms but rigid or one-dimensional notions of the rational and the true.
I think we can try to take a god's perspective on the great stage of fools and say so.
But does this not cut back against itself ? Aren't I just as rational as you then ? From what lofty perch can you criticize or instruct me ? If not from one implicitly higher and better and more rational?
Hence normative. Ought is primary.
There's an industry of criminals who trick the elderly out their money posing as IT. Is it not safe to assume that they are motivated by greed? Perhaps also by envy ?
I like some of the thinkers with bad reputations. Just because the 'wrong' (irrational) people use 'irrational' irrationally does not ruin the concept. Indeed, we are going to have some word, I venture, for 'not inferring correctly.'
Or, as I might put, irrational notions of the rational and true...
Are you sure this isn't just a trigger word for you ? Do you object to 'right' or 'correct' or 'proper' in the same way ? Of course we will always, as humans, debate their appropriate or right or correct application.
I believe all worldviews are equally valid , moral and rational. I also believe that worldviews evolve along with, and in response to, the progressing feedback from the materially and linguistically constructed niche that we inhabit. i dont think this development should be understood via binaries like truth-nontruth and rational-irrational but along an axis of anticipatory sense-making. I cannot impose my worldview on you but offer it to you and see if you find it intelligible and pragmatically useful relative to your perspective.
I can maybe guess at what you mean, but surely you know what Chad will ask you here. What about Hitler and the boys ? Can we really not find them wrong, mistaken, crooked ?
I do not dispute that a 'monster' can feel pretty good about himself. From his perspective, all is well. It's 'rational' to collect baby's bones. (I'm thinking of the end of the first season of True Detective.)
I agree pretty much with Rorty about a necessary or unchosen or ineluctable ethnocentrism. We are thrown into patterns of feeling and response. We can't really be so neutral but merely slip into a relatively detached and god-liked mode.
Why would basic judgments like right/wrong and good/bad not be crucial to such sense-making ? Are we not beings who desire and fear?
The believer should probably recognize that P could be false, else she'll have no chance of avoiding being a victim of a big fat lie.
True.
Philosophers fear being deceived more than others ? While strong poets fear being forgotten more than others ?
The only people who don't worry about being taken for a fool, are fools.
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Agreed. But we're philosophers ! Someone out there my lecture us on the tax we don't know we're paying. I've been reading The Confidence Man lately by Melville, and there are lots of speeches about the virtue of faith in our fellow man...speeches made by the devil in the midst of conning others admittedly...
right/wrong and good/bad are not separate categories from sense-making. They express nothing other than the organizational dynamics of sense-making. We are wholly oriented toward anticipating events , and negative emotions , especially of the sort that motivate our moral sentiments, reflect a partially chaotic scene from our vantage of construing. We cant fathom why the other chose to act in the way they acted , because we dont know how to step out of our world into theirs. So we assume the problem lies not with a difference in sense-making but with a difference in motivation, which we treat as separate from cognition.
nMost philosophies and psychologies make blame irreducible. That is, they blame wayward behavior on intransigent, irrational, arbitrary, pathological motives. Blame and anger are thus closely allied. Look at the synonyms for angry blame:
These include: irritation, annoyance, disapproval, condemnation, feeling insulted, taking umbrage, resentment, exasperation, impatience, hatred, ire, outrage, contempt, righteous indignation, adaptive' anger, perceiving the other as deliberately thoughtless, lazy, culpable, perverse, inconsiderate, disrespectful, disgraceful, greedy, evil, sinful, criminal.
They also include supposedly non-emotional assessments of culpability.
These assessments of blame do not point to facts of theatre concerning true object of their blame , but their own failure to effectively comprehend the rationality behind the others behavior. This is because we mistake content for process. The content of thought doesnt really have very much to do with either ethics or rational cognition, except as a place mark for the anticipatory organizational processes of sense-making.
Greed is a convenient label we slap on others ( and sometimes ourselves) as a way of blaming them for our own failure to understand their behavior more insightfully.
I don't think there's (always) such a gulf. I may be a old soul who has made the very mistake myself. I take us to be basically or mostly in the same world, at least among those with whom we share an everyday culture.
Quoting Joshs
Do we treat it so ? The notion of rationalization links motivation and cognition directly. Folk psychoanalysis is part of our shared background.
Quoting Joshs
I hesitate to agree. I suggest we look at relative intensities of essentially neutral drives. Sexual desire is a good thing until it's not (as when I flirt inappropriately or am unfaithful). Seeking material comfort and security is a good thing until it's not (as when I don't pay taxes and vote against the greater good or simply steal from others in a crude way). It's not so much what we want but whether we know how to share and respect boundaries. I will grant a few motives which themselves are vilified, such as sexual desires without any legal expression and a desire to wound or kill others...though the last could be useful in a soldier. I guess suicidal motivation is mostly forbidden too.
Quoting Joshs
Not sure what you mean here.
Well I give you points for radicality here.
FWIW, there's a passage in Aurelius about barking dogs,a metaphor for 'irrational' or blameworthy humans. The godlike man does not judge, does not get caught in up in merely human notions of good and evil.
Such notions are toys for mere monkeys ?
Sorry, I'm not good at social gestures. That's a real handicap, by the way.
No worries. I'll try to be mindful of that. Sorry if I came/come off rude. Text is a tricky medium.
It's been argued -- by a certain Comte-Sponville, specialist of Spinoza -- that one's moral sense is like one's sense of equilibrium: you can apply it to yourself, but not to others. And thus, we can judge ourselves based on our moral sense, but judging others must be based on law, not morality.
That sounds good. Personally I'm sympathetic to the idea that it's usually pointless to hate or resent. The grand soul understands. Shakespeare is one of my symbols/heroes. Nothing human is alien to me.
The story in John is told as a matter of truth, but in truth it is historically dubious. In addition, not putting the blame on Pilate, a Roman official was a defensive move. The question of the truth plays out in different ways.
Pilates question was in response to Jesus saying:
Jesus refused to answer Pilate's question regarding the truth of the matter, that is, whether Jesus is the King of the Jews. Pilate now asks: "what is truth?". He did not walk away but went out to the Jews and said he found no fault in Jesus (18:38). He was not going to pick sides in what he regarded as a dispute between the Jews. Let them decide, but he found no fault, which is not the same as either confirming or denying the claim that Jesus was the King of the Jews. He was not of the people and so not on one side or the other of what he regarded as dispute among this people.
One other point: Simon Peter, who in Matthew is called the rock on which the church is built, in John's gospel lies about his relation to Jesus. The truth and its authoritative representative, is a matter of dispute even within the gospels.
Quoting Pie
It is not that reality is linguistic, but that we are; and so it follows that the reality we talk about is linguistic. But our way of being in the world is not the way other animals are in the world or the way that rocks and galaxies are in the world. Further, our way of being in the world is not limited to the linguistic, to what we say or think or talk about or conceptualize. The dogma of the linguistic keeps some in their slumber.
Quoting Banno
From the preface to the Phenomenology, taken from an earlier discussion. The numbers refer to quotes from the text.
Substance is the whole, knower and known. Substance is not in or a name for the universal. The universal is within substance. It should be noted that Hegel is not rejecting immediacy. We know the immediacy of being in that we are. The immediacy for knowing is 'der Sache selbst', the thing itself that is to be known. I intentionally translated it in this way to draw the connection with Kant.
If substance is the whole, and as such there can only be one substance, then God is in truth subject. It is not just that God was taken or regarded to be subject. It is something now understood if not yet known. And because it is not fully realized, self-consciousness perishes, but this is only half of it. It is also preserved, taken up anew.
The movement of self-positing is the movement described in paragraph 12, the movement in which the subject returns to itself from out of itself. It is a mediated process, but not, as for example with Kant, the mediation of the object given in experience by the subject's understanding, but rather the mediation of the subject with itself. This is not to exclude the object. The object is taken up in the understanding, the I thinks it. In taking up the understanding itself, the understanding is mediated, that is, becomes an object for knowledge for the subject.
[/quote]
* I take Hegel to be following Spinoza:
Concision is a fascinating issue. Terseness is typically good (so say the style books), but it can also suggests that the listener is not worth more than a quick remark. Do we find it easier to trust the verbose ? Because their primary motive, being understood, is so clear ? They value us, as ears at least, while the aphorist may take us for a mere target, performing for others at our expense perhaps and not for our illuminate.
To what degree is philosophy caught up in the desire to humiliate ? As Nietzsche might put, the dialogue can be a knife fight.
OK, I want to agree, but you talking about reality here, so that this reality you talk about is indeed linguistic, because we are.
We can abbreviate 'reality is not itself linguistic' as Kant's view, with alternative as Hegel's. Common sense is with Kant, surely, because I can see the plums in the icebox, having told someone they were in there. Uptight philosophers like me should maybe pick Hegel's, because we can't integrate this magical pure seeing into an argument, not until it's been 'processed' into a claim about objects. 'Thought is its own object, and thought is thought's only object.' Sounds crazy, ends up being clever. I think it will sell.
Why yes. Who could possibly have reported this conversation if indeed the scene happened as told, with Jesus all alone facing Pilate, without any disciple next to him?
I think thats a huge mistake. By different worlds I dont mean hopelessly my worldview and yours are incommensurable. I mean that every time you blame someone , including yourself , you are failing to see the contextual validity in the course of action that you condemn or judge.
Quoting Pie
Psycho analysis links motivation and cognition by treating the former as a mechanism imposing itself on cognition from without. In most other approaches to motivation within psychology , affect shapes , conditions , reinforces intentionality as a partially external influence.
Quoting Pie
Youre treating drives as such external shapers of thought. But thought is intrinsically self-motivating. It doesnt need arbitrary mechanisms slapped onto it from outside it , to tell what what to like and what it to like. Pleasure and pain are just other ways of talking about the relative success or failure of our attempts to anticipate events via our constructions of them. Affectively negative
experience ( anxiety, fear, hostility, joy, guilt) IS the relative incoherence of a situation for us.
What I say about reality is tautologically linguistic, but what I talk about and what is are not the same. But if asked what this reality is, in distinction from what we talk about, we are still within the realm of what we talk about. And, of course, our talking about reality is part of reality.
Tell me more.
Quoting Fooloso4
Are we to constantly celebrate the Priority Of Feeling And Sensation or the Ineffable Priority of Real Life within otherwise dry conversations about epistemological and semantic concepts ? Can one not read Blake because one also reads Brandom?
https://en.wikisource.org/wiki/Life_of_William_Blake_(1880),_Volume_2/Prose_writings/A_Vision_of_the_Last_Judgment
Like I said, good common sense, which leads nevertheless to endless confusion. We can assign an X marks the ineffable spot if you like, but that's why I call this view Kantian.
Oh. Well I think we agree then. But only gods can live there and not just visit.
I was going to mention that my take on ethics is pretty out there , but it does have many links to postmodern approaches like Ken Gergens social constructionism.
He attributes most ethical arguments to rely on what he calls the assumption of the bounded self, which holds individuals morally responsible for their actions.
the concepts of subjectivity and agency form close companions to the presumption of moral responsibility. While the individual is fundamentally free to chose, such choice is accompanied by a responsibility for action that will not injure or unjustifiably constrain others. Each individual may thus be held responsible for his/her actions, and may be penalized or rewarded by dint of his/her conduct toward others. The ethical or humane society thus rests on the moral responsibility of the individuals composing that society. Yet, as we have explored the problematics of consciousness, individual agency, and liberty, we also find the justification for moral responsibility rapidly dissolving. How indeed is one to be responsible to oneself, when there is no private, unaculturated self to offer guidance? How could the morally advanced individual generate a set of personal moral principles, except from the repository of cultural intelligibilities at his/her disposal? And, in matters of moral deliberation, if one does hearken to the cultural installation within, then which of the voices should be favored?
For are we not all, in a Bakhtinian sense, akin to polyphonic novels, speaking in multiple voices, reflecting multiple traditions? If we inherit a pluralism of moral intelligibilities, on what grounds could we select among them - save from the standpoint of yet another inherited intelligibility? And, finally, if moral deliberation is inherently cultural, then in what sense are we justified in holding individuals responsible for the humane society? Isn't individual blame thus a mystification of our condition of interdependence?
As we find, tendencies toward division and conflict are normal outgrowths of relational life. Prejudice is not, then, a mark of a flawed characterinner rigidity, decomposed cognition, emotional bias, and the like. Rather, so long as we continue the normal process of creating consensus around what is real and good, classes of the undesirable are under construction. Wherever there are tendencies toward unity, cohesion, brotherhood, commitment, solidarity, or community, so alienation is in the making.(Relational Being Beyond Self and Community)
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That squares with my reading of Freud.
Quoting Joshs
That seems partially true. There is a brute animality in us that responds to our hand in the fire in one way and the right dose of pain pills in quite another.
Incoherence hurts. I agree. But doesn't that chime with my normative rationality ?
Nice quote. There's a passage in Nietzsche that's similar. So-called 'free will' is perhaps best understood in terms of norms of responsibility. We aren't 'truly' or 'perfectly' free. The strong poet is only ever relatively self-created or novel, relatively path-breaking. Does this not remind you of Heidegger?
Quoting Joshs
We are thrown onto the stage with a set of stock characters to choose from. Oh adolescence !
For have I not long ago made my choice ? Am I not my own ghost in this decision ?
I agree with you that a concise one liner runs a risk of appearing as a put-down. Story of my life. But then, I personally appreciate conciseness in others, while I tend to intensely dislike verbosity, perhaps unjustly so. A good aphorism is food for much rumination and interrogation -- far more in my mind than a wall of text.
Nietzsche wasn't the last one to draw his blade, and there was something healthy, combative, almost vital in his lack of patience, I think. Life is short.
Is that the only two options?
So Ive been in the awkward position these many years of, on the one hand , applauding the social constructionists, post-structuralists and post-analytic types for exploding the myth of the autonomous subject in favor of the socially embedded and linguistically-saturated actor. On the other hand Ive been trying to show how we can go further in the direction that these postmodern ideas have pointed us ( Gendlins did the same with his Beyond Postmodernism arguments). Gendlin and Heidegger, I claim, make temporality more fundamental than the social understood as languages interaction. I am beyond myself, exposes to an outside , before and beyond extant cultural
formations. This isnt a retreat back to a form of subject-centered solipsism , but a more radical notion of the social than between person dynamics.
Heidegger, for instance, makes the
average everyday ness of idle talk derivative of a more primary self-understanding of Dasein. He doesnt say that we interject meanings from a community, but that we convince ourselves that is what we do. In contrast with social constructionism , he doesnt consider socially imposed conventions a robust form of meaning, but a failure of understanding
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We should be tough. An important distinction, in my view, is that between reading the dead and chatting with the living.
Once trust is established, brevity is simply good ?
One can always ask for elaboration after all.
Yes.
Quoting Pie
Thanks for the aphorism! Although I should ask for elaboration here because I'm not sure I get it. Do you mean that while chatting with the living, we ought to care for their feelings, understanding and impressions a great deal more than when chatting with the dead? That would make a lot of sense.
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To me this makes sense. Dissolving the subject is dissolving all of the subjects. The boundaries and concepts themselves are constantly being negotiated.
Quoting Joshs
You know I like the actor metaphor. Is it not strange that we explode that in myth only by wearing it ? 'Normative' rationality is autonomous. Struggling against our having been thrown is fundamental. 'History is [itself] the nightmare from which it is trying to awake.' I am the system trying to slide out itself, as if my unborn future has my unforgiven past as both grave and womb.
Basically. We know that Nietzsche, to name an aggressive aphorist, is not trying to insult or trick us. There is no trust or failure of trust involved. The living however are perhaps compulsively interpreted by us as friend, foe, or indeterminate. While a certain combativeness or competitiveness may serve the pursuit of better beliefs, I speculate that too much just locks everyone up in their safe space, only able to repeat what they find obvious or not. And it's just not fun if fucking everyone is a enemy. We like teamwork ! Primordially social and collaborative...
No. Just an icebreaker. I actually don't think truth is a property. I like the redundancy / prosentential approach.
:smile:
:smile:
So, I take it that you agree that "is true" adds nothing meaningful to a sincere belief statement? That truth is presupposed within belief statements?
Could you elaborate ? I tend to model the situation in terms of the social as the bottom most layer. I am fundamentally one of or a piece of us. The tribal language and form of life is my operating system, deeper than the performance of individuality that it makes possible. (Descartes was a shallow thinker from this perspective, taking the top layer for granted, ignoring that it's language that cannot be doubted intelligibly, not some mere ideological product thereof like the self.
That's it, yes. "P is true" is "P", tho @Isaac makes the fair point that "true" is meaningful in terms of emphasis and I guess therefore pragmatics.
Yep. So long as we do not mistakenly take that farther and claim that all belief are equivalent to "P". They are not.
This should be quite obvious to anyone not seduced by philosophy.
Quoting Pie
I said nothing about the priority of feeling and sensation. But I will say that they are temporally prior.
Nor did I say anything about ineffability.
Quoting Pie
Again with the ineffable? My view is not Kantian. Let me try again:
Quoting Fooloso4
What if someone 50, 100, 150 years ago said this? How much of our present reality would have been left out what was talked about? And now?
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Good point, but I want to respond to something else.
You joked about being an alien or a cat in another thread. I relate to this. There's a mode of being that looks amoral to a 'committed' outsider. One 'ought not' understand the criminal. One 'ought not' be too transcendent or detached. This is the 'good' part in Stirner who is wretched when digested politically.
Harold Bloom claims that Hamlet really loved no one.
But P talks about truth, as well. Or denotation. It says, e.g., "white" denotes snow, i.e. "white" is true of snow, or snow satisfies "white".
Plausibly.
And, "true" denotes "snow is white" iff "white" denotes snow.
Thus defining true as a predicate, in terms of is-true-of or denotes.
As you might know already, to be locked in one's metaphysics forever is a very human thing to do, all the more so when such metaphysics and its motivators remain unconscious to us, outside any possible examination, while framing all our thoughts. So while I agree with you that deftness and diplomacy are good things in day to day business, eg to secure collaboration around shared goals, I am not totally convinced that the approach would work any better than 'combativeness' in a philosophic debate.
Quoting Pie
I actually think some authors are trying to trick their readers, even beyond death!
Dude. Seriously ? Windmills.
Quoting Fooloso4
Quoting Fooloso4
Tell me what is then.
Quoting Fooloso4
I was just guessing on that one.
Earlier I contemplated <
is true > is true>. I believe idempotent is the technical term. It seems to work in this simple case at least.
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That reminds me of what I'd call a 'deep metaphor' theory, and which I'd associate with Wittgenstein and Heidegger. The stuff that binds all of us is just clear water (for us.) But the stuff that binds most of us is, I claim, what the greats, among other things, make explicit and therefore optional. (That which is closest is hardest to see, like forgetting your glasses are on your nose.)
Quoting Olivier5
I think we pretty much agree. The desire to humiliate I mentioned may actually be good for us. We punish one another for dishonesty or irrelevance or incoherence. We simultaneously enforce tribal norms and attempt installing new ones.
I'll grant you that. But I don't think it hurts our feelings the same way.
Nabokov wrote that the real conflict was always between the author and the reader. In our late age of Netflix and having seen it all, this seems especially true. 'Surprise me or fuck off.'
Is this a Fregean idea ?
It jars my intuition, but I'm willing to hear the case.
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So what's your preferred understanding of truth ?
Im going to be lazy and quite the last 4 pages of my paper:
If Dasein's being-in-the -world is always structured as an intimate, pragmatic self-belongingness, how does Heidegger explain the basis of apparently normatively driven intersubjective we' contexts? Heidegger's most systematic treatment of Dasein's role in a linguistic community appears in his discussion of average everydayness and das man in Being and Time.
Zahavi is among those thinkers who interpret Heidegger's we-self' of every day das man as taking precedence over his authentic self of ownmost' possibilities. As das man , Zahavi claims
group belongingness, rather than being founded upon an other-experience, preceded any such experience.
...an everyday being-with-one-another characterized by anonymity and substitutability, where others are those from whom one mostly does not distinguish oneself (Heidegger 1996: 11)
He surmises that Heidegger would approve of Schmid's(2005) assertion that ...the we, the sense of us or plural self-awareness, precedes the distinction between yours and mine, is prior to any form of intersubjectivity or mutual recognition, and is itself the irreducible basis for joint action and communication.
Zahavi is far from alone in interpreting Heidegger's discussions of the discursive practices of Das man as assuming an introjection of norms by a socially created self or a socially conditioned self-affecting subjectivity. Heidegger's critique of Husserl's model of empathy was taken by many interpreters as evidence that the primacy of being-with for Dasein functions as the conditioning of a self by an outside.
For instance, Rousse(2014) says
...the particular way I carry out' my being and relate to myself is unavoidably susceptible to the pressures of the others' normative expectations.... inauthenticity is a matter of a person having his practical orientation dominated by outside forces',...the tacitly operative normative expectations about how one ought properly and normally to behave. Dasein, as essentially being-with', initially gets' its existential answerability by being socialized into the shared behavioral norms of the One. In turn, this enables, even encourages, Dasein to act in accordance with them and to avoid taking its own (existentiell') answerability for how it comports and understands itself. To be responsible, then, is to be the kind of agent who has the possibility to take responsibility for the socially normative determinants of identity.
By taking for granted the notion of normativity as a shared understanding, Rousse exemplifies the kind of thinking that Heidegger says disguises, covers over, conceals and obscures a genuine understanding. Das man isn't a matter of simply acting in accordance with norms that are communally understood but a way of thinking that pre-supposes and takes for granted that the self can internalize and introject meanings from others. Public interpretedness is not about behaving in accordance with culturally assimilated norms but believing that norms exist as the sharing of unambiguously intelligible meanings in the first place.
Rousse misreads authenticity as a self-reflexive self's becoming aware of what it has introjected, taken in' from culture and its attempt to take responsibility for, or embrace its own alternative to, those norms. But for Heidegger what the self discloses to itself in average everydayness is not introjected meanings from a community. The self never simply introjects from an outside to an inside. The radically temporal structuration of Dasein makes such introjection impossible.
Heidegger's(2010) task is to explain how a Dasein which always understands others in relation to its very own pragmatic totality of relevance ends up believing in a cultural world of linguistic practices that appear to be the same for all. ...what purports to be an opening up of the world is in fact its concealment: by appealing to public opinion and tradition, idle talk creates in Dasein the belief that it possesses universally acknowledged and thus genuine truths.
Heidegger chooses words like average, vague, flattened , confused, uprooted state of suspension, and ambiguous to describe Dasein's being as Das Man, to indicate that the heedfulness of Care is still primordially and implicitly operative even when it is explicitly concealed and suppressed . Average everyday discourse has to be vague, approximate, superficial and ambiguous enough to conceal, disguise, cover over, miss, obscure, suppress the fact that the meaning of what is shared is never interpreted identically for each dasein.
What is talked about is understood only approximately and superficially. One means the same thing because it is in the same averageness that we have a common understanding of what is said. Publicness does not get to "the heart of the matter," because it is insensitive to every difference of level and genuineness.
Idle talk is the possibility of understanding everything without any previous appropriation of the matter. Idle talk, which everyone can snatch up, not only divests us of the task of genuine understanding, but develops an indifferent intelligibility for which nothing is closed off any longer. Discourse, which belongs to the essential constitution of being of Dasein, and also constitutes its disclosedness, has the possibility of becoming idle talk, and as such of not really keeping being-in-the-world open in an articulated understanding, but of closing it off and covering over inner worldly beings. Ontologically, this means that when Da-sein maintains itself in idle talk, it is-as being-in-the-world-cut off from the primary and primordially genuine relations of being toward the world, toward Mitda-sein, toward being-in itself.
Idle talk conceals simply because of its characteristic failure to address things in an originary way [urspriinglichen Ansprechens]. It obscures the true appearance of the world and the events in it by instituting a dominant view [herrschende Ansicht].Usually and for the most part the ontic mode of being-in (discoverture) is concealment [Verdeckung]. Interpretedness, which is speech encrusted by idle talk, draws any given Dasein into 'one's' way of being. But existence in the 'one' now entails the concealment and marginalization of the genuine self [eigentlichen Selbst]. Not only has each particular given itself over to 'one', 'one' blocks Dasein's access to the state it finds itself in [Befindlichkeit].(Heidegger 2011)
What is this genuine self, this genuine understanding, this originary and primordial way of appropriating the matter, this getting to the heart of the matter, these primordially genuine relations of being toward the world, toward Mitda-sein, toward being-in itself, that idle talk conceals?
To say that in the mode of average everydayness Dasein disguises, covers over, conceals, obscures its genuine self, a genuine understanding, an originary and primordial way of appropriating the matter, getting to the heart of the matter, primordially genuine relations of being toward the world, toward Mit-dasein, toward being-in itself, is to say that Dasein explicitly experiences itself as a constituted self, introjecting norms from other selves , but this awareness pre-supposes and is grounded in an implicit mineness.
Average everydayness of Das man and idle talk shares with what Heidegger calls the present to hand the features of being derivative modes of the as' structure of heedful circumspective significance, functioning as a contextually rich totality of relevance. They also share the feature of being a dwindling down' of that wider experience.
Even as Zahavi mistakenly critiques Heidegger for giving precedence to plural self-awareness, over the distinction between yours and mine, Zahavi's I-Thou model of sociality falls under the scope of Heidegger's formulation of Das Man.
Zahavi(2012) says The I and the you are prior to the we. The I-you relation is a reciprocal exchange of address and response that affects and transforms the self experience of the participating individuals... we take over from others (and make our own) a language, roles, attitudes and norms.
This makes individual behavior in social situations the product of narrative norms, reciprocities, shared practices and social constraints. The presupposition here is that my own subjectivity always functions as a harbor in the reception of social signs . Intersubjectivity is characterized by a reciprocal cobbling and co-ordination between personal history and cultural signs in which the joints' of such interactive bodily-mental and social practices are simultaneously within my own subjectivity and common to other participants in my community. Zahavi assumes these culturally normed practices that we internalize represent forms of meaning no less robust in significance and relevance to our lives than those which we generate.
In contrast, for Heidegger the social norms and practices that Dasein takes in are specific modifications of meaning on the order of a diminution of significance. The publicness of Das Man and the present to handness of things are modes of Dasein representing a deprivation and trivialization of intelligibility, significance and relevance, and thus a reduction of meaningfulness. Dasein becomes alienated from itself not by being taken over by, introjecting and internalizing an outside but by encountering itself (its ownmost world of possibilities) as almost devoid of sense. This is self-alienation as senselessness rather than internalization of an other.
However, alienation cannot mean that Da-sein is factically torn away from itself....this alienation, which closes off to Da-sein its authenticity and possibility, even if only that of genuinely getting stranded, still does not surrender it to beings which it itself is not, but forces it into its inauthenticity, into a possible kind of being of itself.(Heidegger 2010)
Zahavi's belief that socialization is a direct introjection and internalization from an outside marks it from Heidegger's vantage as an inauthentic and confused self-understanding, even if we assume with Zahavi that the subject is an active participant in what it takes in from others( I-Thou).
World-understanding as Dasein-understanding is self-understanding. Self and world belong together in the single entity, the Dasein. Self and world are not two beings, like subject and object, or like I and thou, but self and world are the basic determination of the Dasein itself in the unity of the structure of being-in-the-world. (Heidegger 1982)
We saw earlier how for Husserl the alterity and foreignness of other egos is constituted as a variation of my own thematics, via aperceptive transfer. Heidegger understands thematic mineness through the Care structure. Heidegger says average everydayness alienates Dasein from itself, but without Dasein's therefore being merely conditioned by others.
My being-with-others originates primordially as my ownmost' being-with , relative to my significant aims and goals, to what matters to me. As the inauthentic mode of average everydayness communication become flattened, leveled down into the vagueness of a we' understanding, but this average everydayness does not eliminate but only covers over the originary mineness' of the Care structure of primordial temporality.
The solitude' of the mineness of the self of Dasein is disclosed most fundamentally for Heidegger in the authentic mood of angst. Angst individualizes and thus discloses Da-sein as "solus ipse." This existential "solipsism," however, is so far from transposing an isolated subject-thing into the harmless vacuum of a worldless occurrence that it brings Da-sein in an extreme sense precisely before its world as world, and thus itself before itself as being-in-the-world. "Together with the sober Angst that brings us before our individualized potentiality-of-being, goes the unshakable joy in this possibility.
As much as it is the case that Heidegger's being-with-others is not the precedence of anonymous plural self-awareness over Dasein's ownness, it is equally true that Dasein's self-belonging is not a retreat from the immediate contingency of world-exposure, not the choosing of an idealist self-actualization at the expense of robust being with others. Gallagher and Gadamer's readings of Heidegger appear to fall prey to such a solipsist interpretation.
Gallagher(2010) says: In Heidegger, and in thinkers who follow his line of thought, we find the idea that a relatively complete account of our embodied, expert, enactive, pragmatic engagements with the world can be given prior to or without reference to intersubjectivity.
Gadamer(2006) writes:
Mit-sein, for Heidegger, was a concession that he had to make, but one that he never really got behind. Indeed, even as he was developing the idea, he wasn't really talking about the other at all. Mit-sein is, as it were, an assertion about Dasein, which must naturally take Mit-sein for granted..."Care" [die Sorge] is always a concernfulness [ein Besorgtsein] about one's own being, and Mit-sein is, in truth, a very weak idea of the other, more a "letting the other be" than an authentic "being-interested-in-him."
Zahavi, Gallagher and Gadamer are right and wrong in their readings of Heidegger. Gallagher and Gadamer are right that Heidegger makes their notion of primary intersubjectivity a derivative modification of the primary self-understanding of Dasein. But they are wrong to interpret Dasein's self-understanding as prior to sociality. Being-with is instead the very site of sociality as a referential differential inside-outside. Zahavi is right that Heidegger places being-with as prior to Zahavi's model of pre-reflective self-awareness, but Zahavi is wrong in treating Das Man as an anonymous plural self. As a referential differential it is a more intimate notion of self- relation than Zahavi's present-to-hand oppositional subject-object structure.
Heidegger's ownmost' shows that a profound irreducible intimacy of relation between self and world reveals itself once idealized binaries like inside-outside, internal-external, the meeting of an in-itself and a for-itself have been deconstructed. A central implication of this thinking for the understanding of intersubjectivity is that while our experience as individuals is characterized by stable relations of relative belonging or alienation with respect to other individuals and groups, the site of this interactivity, whether we find ourselves in greater or lesser agreement with a world within which we are enmeshed, has a character of peculiar self-belonging and ownership. It also has a character of relentless creative activity that undermines and overflows attempts to understand human action based on between-person reciprocities. We may identify to a greater or lesser extent with various larger paradigmatic communities, delicately united by intertwining values. But the contribution of each member of a community to the whole would not originate at the level of spoken or bodily language interchange among voices; such constructs repress as much as they reveal. Even in a community of five individuals in a room, I, as participant, can perceive a locus of integrity undergirding the participation of each of the others to the responsive conversation. In my dealings with other persons, I would be able to discern a thread of continuity organizing their participation in dialogue with me, dictating the manner and extent to which I can be said to influence their thinking and they mine. My thinking can not properly be seen as `determined' by his response, and his ideas are not simply `shaped' by my contribution to our correspondence.
I can only shape my actions to fit socially legitimate goals or permitted institutionalized grammatical forms to the extent that those goals or forms can be understood by me as relevant to my ongoing experience. Even then, what is understood by me is not `the' social forms, but aspects hidden within these so-called forms which are unique to the totality of relevance of my perspective; what I perceive as socially `permitted' rhetorical argumentation is already tylistically distinctive in relation to what other participants perceive as permitted. Each individual who feels belonging to an extent in a larger ethico-political collectivity perceives that collectivity's functions in a unique, but peculiarly coherent way relative to their own history, even when they believe that in moving forward in life their strategic language moves are guided by the constraints imposed by essentially the `same' discursive conventions as the others in their speech community.
Not that I recall.
I'm not sure it's unobjectionable.
I remember thinking something like it when trying to grasp Tarski's expositions. So if it's not badly wrong it'll be from there.
If it seems alien, I can get supporting sentiments from Goodman and Quine, I think.
Ah and this is what reminded me:
Quoting SEP
:up:
:up: Quoting Joshs
:up:
I liked this closing especially. Relevant to us here, yes? We don't see the norms the same way, correct ? We can even pretend they are clearer than they are while trying to establish them. I'd say that we update our sense of the norms in play constantly. Each move in the game and its result is a fresh clue about what is acceptable and charming and what is the opposite. Complete conformity is bland mediocrity. In our individualistic culture, the right kind of sin is virtue itself, or the glamorous kind at least. In a less narcissistic key, the deepest and most joyful sociality lives in dancing on the edges, in a play that is not quote innocent and anything but rote. It is two children running off into the woods on the edge of the village. Or more than two perhaps. Groups of musicians (an experimental rock band maybe) who are also close friends...also go there. The edge is made possible by that which is taken for granted. In the same way, poetry builds a metrical expectation in order to violate it skillfully.
Maybe we agree: the self is not 'injected' with norms. (This metaphor might work for the body. ) The performance of the responsible self is 'itself' normal. What 'I' am or include is not given beforehand but itself at stake. Small wonder that Nietzsche contemplated will to power and expansion and a 'false' making-equal as its tool.
I never studied Frege closely, but I thought he cast the meaning or reference (or something) of propositions as True or False. Maybe someone can chime in.
Quoting bongo fury
My intuition would be that 'true' would merely describe and not denote in that case. Could be a terminological difference/preference.
Me neither, but I gather he invented sense vs reference, with the latter pointing to true or false as you describe. So?
I guess I wouldn't say that white denotes snow.
I'd just say that "snow is white" is true if snow is white.
Same difference. In Quine (see above), Goodman, Elgin.
Denotes, describes, applies to, refers to, points to, ...
OK, so it was just terminological habit/expectation.
Yes, which is deflationary, and what could possibly be wrong with that! Well, it's a bit smug, if there's stuff to say about how a sentence refers to other stuff. And mystical, if we end up equivocating between truth-bearing sentence and truth-making state. Which I'm quite sure none of us ever would...
Yeah it could be smug or mystical. But it's basically Hegel, so...no surprise ? Is it a bug or a feature ?
Bug.
To me the alternative is an indeterminate X for everything that exists non-linguistically.
So it's 'Hegel' or 'Kant,' which may be like choosing a red tie or a blue tie. (I never wear ties, so wtf?)
A bit like the 'ghost' at the heard of the hard problem. It's there, I guess, maybe, but there's nothing to be said about it. It's the hole in a doughnut, getting its sense in the first place from that which is public and articulated surrounding it.
The 'Kant' approach is truer to our total cognition and common sense. Granted. But the 'Hegel' approach is purer, focused on what we can and actually do work with. Claims.
I'm offering denotation (of sentence-parts) as a better way (to examine how language relates or corresponds with bits of reality) than truth of whole sentences.
That helps. Brandom claims that the original pre-Kantian approach was in terms of parts rather than whole sentences, and that Kant's achievement was recognizing that we can only take responsibility for assertions, complete sentences, and not their parts (individual concepts). To be sure, responsibility and the normative are not the only way in. But I do confess my infatuation with inferentialism at the moment.
On the other hand, my training is in math, so I can relate to caring about the meaning of parts and building from there.
Let's see. So you want to link nouns to objects maybe ? Independently of the claims they appear in?
Quoting Pie
Quoting bongo fury
Looks to be an extensional interpretation...
Quoting Wiki:Extension (predicate logic)
Such interpretations are easy to work with, but lack nuance. Intensional logics allow terms to designate different things under different conditions, and different terms to designate the same thing - "the morning star" and "the evening star", as in possible world semantics.
Or something like that. the salient point here is that a purely extensional interpretation has its limits.
Of course. And variables to their values (which are things out there, not more language).
And so on.
Quoting Banno
Yes, or even nominalist ("hyper-extensionalist" in Goodman's rhetoric).
I feel a diagram coming on, tomorrow.
Quoting Isaac
Oh, sure. I left the pragmatics as obvious, since we are focusing here on truth vales.
Quoting Isaac
Of course it is, as the pomos will and ought tell us. But equally, it only has this power of persuasion because of it's logical implications. So getting those right is where one might best start.
Jeff Malpas's Stanford article is a good place to start. See the section on Meaning and Truth.
It's my understanding that Carnap was wild about this stuff and that he worked out complex systems.
It definitely has its place.
I think maybe the same criticism applies to it though. The noun 'is' the object as intelligible. Folks like to say that the map is not the territory. I understand what they mean well enough. But from my 'Hegelian' position we just have in that aphorism a reminder than or beliefs might not be true.
In other words, maps are beliefs and the territory is all that is the case or just the facts. (From this POV, the maps 'are' sometimes the territory, but we can't be sure...there is no non-mappy territory.) (I think you already understand this position.)
I like this notion.
But is it not also possible to wesponise the value of truth to no less a degree?
Your talk of eagles and snakes is spot on. If I say "we've run out of cake" just to keep more for myself I'm being 'parasitic' on the generally truth-telling community.
But most claims we could attach to this social necessity to are not of that nature.
We're rarely talking to each other about hidden cakes. Mostly we're exchanging beliefs about way more complex propositions. Russia, Covid, Trump, Brexit, Global Warming...
Here we're clearly not using 'true' the same way. We're using it closer to the lying monkey. We really, really want others to adhere to our solutions.
The simple (eagles and snakes) version of 'truth' is secondary because we don't believe what we believe about those matters because we've done the equivalent of looking in the fridge, we do so because of who we trust, our faith in statistics, beliefs about the intentions of institutions...
So whilst I agree with you, I'm not sure how far it applies socially. Lying is parasitic on truth, that's for sure, but for me to get to the idea that lying is...
Quoting unenlightened
...I'd have to see a stronger argument that matters of eagles and snakes, of cake in the fridge, actually impact all that much on meaning on society, because it seems to me at first glance, that the vast majority of societal functions and meanings depend overwhelmingly on concepts and belief so complex that 'truth' and 'lie' just don't really apply.
Does it though? I can still see the pragmatist winning here too. I believe the story I'm told "It's true, it's true!" because of the social implications of someone using such an expression. It's often better for me that way, things are more likely to work out how I expect them under that policy.
If we trust the speaker, and we trust their judgment then isn't what we're really doing simply 'contracting out' our own expediency-obsessed inference processes to someone else's. I'm not seeing an escape from mere expediency there.
In other words, I don't take notice of "it's true" because of its logical implications. I take notice of it because of yet more expediency. It simply works out better for me under such a policy.
Whatever you posit as a theory of truth already relies on a foundation of truth...
The conceptual knot is apparent when one finally separates truth form belief.
Quoting Pie
I used to think of it more or less along those lines until recently. Now my take follows Collingwood, whom I discovered thanks to @tim wood. It's not very different but more precise and informed by history, hence more dynamic and even political. Collingwood was a historian. He formalized this problem in a very clear and convincing manner in his Essay on Metaphysics, showing how our world view and 'absolute presuppositions' have been constantly changing over the course of history (down to very mundane things like the colors we see) under the influence of philosophy or religion, and how conflict-ridden and brutal this evolution was, sometimes.
He concludes that metaphysics are "ticklish". By that he means that a person whose metaphysics are challenged would typically become rather aggressive towards the challenger.
I found his analysis convincing, and believe it does explain why there tends to be some aggressiveness in philosophy, contrary to a naïve cliché of the serene philosopher. Philosophy cuts deep, and it hurts. A philosopher is only serene to the extent that his or her metaphysics remains unchallenged.
:up:
I don't see how. If I say "Rory Gallagher is the best guitarist ever, it's true" do you really think the meaning of 'it's true' there relies on any kind of logic? I'm just emphasising my belief.
So why need "Truth can't escape from mere expediency, it's true" be any different?
You're assuming we're all playing a certain type of game, but I don't see any reason why we must be, and most times seems to me we aren't.
Quoting Joshs
But is that true? Are you telling the truth about postmodernists, and are they telling the truth about totalitarianisms? I say if it is not true, then it is not meaningful and we are not even debating together.
Quoting Isaac
Consider, then, the case of the scientist who fabricates the results of his experiment. Imagine that this becomes endemic to the extent of near 50 % of published papers. Science, surely then, is dead, it has become completely unreliable and thus meaningless.
I've already started reading about Davidson in the SEP, so yes, that's where I've started. I'd rather start with primary sources, but that's a lot to wade through, so this will have to do. Generally speaking I'm not a fan of Davidson, so I'm already starting with a certain bias, but that's because I think Wittgenstein, even with his faults, is a far better philosopher in my opinion. I don't think that the early or later Wittgenstein would agree with Davidson's semantic theory. However, Wittgenstein's early philosophy is much more in line with the kind of analytic philosophy that Davidson is doing, but in saying that, I'm not saying that there is much overlap, although some.
If you want to understand Wittgenstein, don't look at him through the eyes of others, which is difficult, because we usually start by reading what others have written as a guide to get a general feel for a philosophers thinking. Moreover, this is all I'm bringing to the table in terms of Davidson, a general feel for his philosophy, because I haven't read much Davidson.
My impression so far, is that Davidson went his own way in developing a theory of semantics. And, I don't believe that your going to be able to reconcile Wittgenstein with Davidson unless you do some fancy interpretative moves (aka spin). These kinds of interpretative moves will probably lead you away from Wittgenstein's thinking, not closer to it. This isn't to say that there isn't some overlap, because there is, but Wittgenstein is one thing, and Davidson is quite another.
My suggestion, for those of you who have a background in philosophy, and of course are interested, is that you concentrate on Wittgenstein (except for background information, for e.g., vis a vis Frege and Russell), if you want to understand Wittgenstein.
I was thinking about starting a thread on Davidson, but I don't know if I'm mentally up for it. :yikes:
Yeah, totally. The results one gets are like the cake in the fridge. If you know they're one thing when you say they're another, you're lying.
Do you seriously think even remotely close to 50% of scientists could get away with lying about their results? The conspiracy would have to be enormous.
But even so, my point still stands. Most of the propositions 'truth' is considered a property of to are not spoken by the scientist who obtained the results. They're spoken by others. So 'truth' means "I trust/believe this scientist, not that one"
No, but what I am saying is that we are seeing science being hijacked by commercial interests to some extent, and by career considerations, and so on, and that fuels conspiracy theories and radical scepticism. There cannot be a complete collapse of faith and a complete collapse of meaning, because the lie loses meaning at the same rate as the truth. But people stop listening - they stop listening to the media, to the government, even to each other. not completely, but more and more - society is collapsing because society runs on trust and trust depends on honesty.
I think it is rather important that philosophers begin to understand this and take account of it in their theories of language, truth, knowledge, and so on. A sort of naive physicalism has taken root that has led to such nonsenses as 'there is no such thing as society' - and a pervasive moral nihilism that the human race may well not survive.
Quoting bongo fury
Went with describes, but denotes may less jarring for the naming by quotation.
I may be asking for trouble with the dotted arrows anyway.
Trouble welcome.
Do you not have a body?
In response to the claim that there is more to reality than what we talk about, you ask for more talk, for me to tell you what is. Have you seen the images of the Webb telescope? Seeing into the past is something we can talk about, but what is seen are not things that have ever been talked about. Things that existed billions of years before there was anyone to talk.
Absolutely, and we should all be deeply concerned about that, but is truth relevant here? Do the hijacked scientists actually lie, or do they pick their results carefully, craft their statistics, twist their wording...to support the narrative the commercial interests prefer?
I think talk of truth here is the problem, not the solution. Talk of scientific theories being 'true' and all the dogmatism around that approach is part of what's caused the failure of trust. The making of promises one cannot keep. 'Truth' doesn't much belong in scientific discussion at all (only perhaps to keep out actual fraudsters). Quality matters. Things like experimental power (in the statistical sense) are important.
We have to trust our institutions where we defer to experts whose actual opinion we're not capable of judging. I agree with you about the threat this represents to society. I think the solution, though, is more acknowledgement of uncertainty, more openness about modeling assumptions, more discussion of theory choice (where the evidence underdetermines)...
In other words, less talk of truth and lies. More talk of pragmatism and expediency.
They do all that, it is dishonest, and in effect it is lying.
We had the bollocks about the distinction between lying and being 'economical with the truth', and it is bollocks. Honesty is required, and dishonesty undermines society. The truth, the whole truth and nothing but the truth. anything less is corrupting of society.
Quoting Isaac
Of course, our uncertainty is part of the truth of things. An expert who over sells their confidence is misrepresenting the situation. 'Trust me, I'm a doctor', only works if the doctor is honest about the limits of his expertise. The result of that professions' false projection of infallibility over decades is a distrust of medicine so widespread as to be a health hazard in its own right (eg anti-vaccers).
But no, expediency and pragmatism result in cover-ups and distortions and exaggerations 'for our own good' and they always get exposed eventually and are always corrosive of trust and meaning. We have to trust our institutions and experts, therefore it is essential that they are trustworthy, and that means not pragmatically or expediently truthful but brutally honest and truthful about their own limitations, and about what they do know, all the time, not when it suits.
One should not need to 'talk of truth' - it should be redundant. I am talking of truth here, but I am not advocating talking of truth, I am advocating telling the truth. The more we all tell the truth, the less we need to talk about it.
Whenever one hears, "To be perfectly honest..." or "Frankly speaking ..." or "Let me be absolutely clear...", or "The reality is..." or any such preface, one can be assured that a lie will immediately follow - "and I really mean that sincerely".
Earlier you said:
Quoting Banno
Hegel's idealism is not antirealism. Hegel's absolute idealism holds that the real is the ideal and the ideal is the real. All differences and distinctions are understood within the unity of the whole of Absolute Spirit, which plays out dialectically in time as history. This includes the inorganic as well as the organic, thinking and being, realism and idealism.
This seems problematic. If sentences in use are the world, then they cannot also be about, or descriptive of, the world. If there is no distinction between language and the world - if sentences in use are that which they are usually thought to be about - then how are they used? Can the word axe be used to chop down a tree? Or are trees nothing more than unchoppable words? If sentences in use are the world, then there is no use-mention distinction. We can no longer use language to talk about the world if it is the world. Mention and use collapse into one (another), together with language and the world. All language can only talk about itself as language, or else it cannot be used as language (qua language) because it is the world.
I think we're saying the same thing using different words. It seems you're talking about be 'truthful' about methods and limitations, I'm talking about being pragmatic about theories and plans.
The problem as I see it, is underdetermination. Even with 100% honest scientists, there'd still be a range of theories, all of which are well supported by the evidence. We need to choose between them, we can't do so in the basis of the evidence, so pragmatically, we need some method.
What seems to me to be the current method is yelling at one's detractors that one's pet theory is 'true' whilst theirs is 'lies'. That's the usage I'm criticising.
Quoting Fooloso4
I was half-joking, trying to get you to see that your theory includes the 'ineffable' implicitly. The 'windmills' comment was intended to remind you that of course we all know that non-talk exists. The issue is whether a theory including truthmakers, built on the ocular metaphor of representation, is ultimately more trouble than it's worth.
Note that inferences do not have non-talk for premises or conclusions (inputs or outputs.) We reason with/in sentences. Of course I acknowledge the non-talk reality in the boring, usual way, but I think it's better to handle it in terms of language entrances. 'The witness saw a blue car parked out front at 10:00 PM.'
[quote=link]
What then is required for knowledge of our own inner, private episodes, say knowledge that Im having a sensation of a red triangle, if it isnt just that I am sensing a red triangle? What else is required besides the actual sensation? In short, knowledge requires concepts, and since concepts are linguistic entities, we can say that knowledge requires a language. To know something as simple as that the patch is red requires an ability to classify that patch, and Sellars thinks the only resource for such rich categorization as adult humans are capable of comes from a public language.
[/quote]
https://iep.utm.edu/sellars/#H3
[quote=Hegel]
We can no longer talk of things at all,i.e.,of something that would be for consciousness merely the negative of itself.
...
Thought is always in its own sphere; its relations are with itself, and it is its own object.
...
...it takes for granted that the Absolute stands on one side, and that knowledge on the other side, by itself and cut off from the Absolute, is still something real; in other words, that knowledge, which, by being outside the Absolute, is certainly also outside truth, is nevertheless true a position which, while calling itself fear of error, makes itself known rather as fear of the truth.
[/quote]
https://www.marxists.org/reference/archive/hegel/works/ph/phintro.htm
In my view, this is tricky to talk about because we are not all using 'sentence' and related words in the same way, sort of like dereferencing our pointers a different number of times. Use and mention are crucial here, and a little ambiguous, I admit.
To say it's true there are plums in the icebox is (basically) to say there are plums in the ice box.
The meaning of our true assertions just 'is' the world. ('The world is all that is the case.')
Consider though :
'John said that Sally said that the rent was already paid.'
'Braver emphasizes the similarity of Davidson's critique of conceptual schemes to Hegel's critique of knowledge conceived as an instrument that mediates an otherwise unmediated reality.'
That's me talking about Braver talking about Davidson and Hegel each talking about traditional ways of talking about how talk connects or not to the postulated untalky rest of the world.
Cool drawing. I understood much your intention, I hope.
For 'Hegel,' there's nothing for 'snow is white' or its equivalent 'it's true snow is white' to ride an arrow to. There's nothing behind the (meaning of) the statement. The temptation might be to run it to the whiteness of snow, but that redundance is precisely the motivation to stay put, for we're just repeating ourselves. As I see it, we also aren't served by an ineffable truthmaker any more than by a thump on the table. It's as if the revelation or disclosure of reality is the essence of language.
Your drawing gives me some insight, but it'd help to hear more about how you conceive or deal with truthmakers.
:up: :up: :up:
:up: Quoting Isaac
As complexity increases, it may be better to start discussing self-deception or, more neutrally, better or worse frameworks for editing beliefs.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trofim_Lysenko
:up:
Nice!
:up:
Im trying to get clear on your use/mention analogy. Is this correct:
Mention = Its true that P
Use = P
Is that it?
But I dont imagine that the use of P determines Ps truth. So something else does?
This is for anyone interested but seems especially relevant to my last responses to you two.
One idea is that language is 'primordially' 'disclosive' or 'revelatory.' Our world is significant. To utter P earnestly is to draw attention to the inexplicit or update the tribal knowledge base via one of its 'tentacles' (the guy who found honey in the woods.) We evolved presumably to share such information, so that assertion has a primacy that's hard to gainsay. Along these lines, 'seems' is merely a reduction of assertive force, a wobbly not-so-sure disclaimed that's parasitic on a more primary and confident assertion.
The other idea is that human awareness is fundamentally linguistic. 'Intuitions without concepts are blind.' All reasoning deals with the cooked, so that the cooked/raw distinction ends up looking useless.
https://www.rep.routledge.com/articles/biographical/sellars-wilfrid-stalker-1912-89/v-1/sections/epistemological-perspectives
I don't think we are on the same page yet. For the moment, I'd say...don't try to analysis "P is true." Take it as a whole.
I'm basically identifying use and meaning.
I suggest that it's true that snow is white and snow is white do the same thing when used, have the same meaning. To make that suggestion, I had to mention both assertions.
To say that P is true, is, in my view, only to repeat or emphasize P.
My point was they do the same thing only if its true; if its truth is first acknowledged. Is that an issue for the deflationary theory? I dont know.
Also, snow is white could have other uses, but that may be off topic.
Yes, exactly where I'm coming from. We have to choose between both competing modeling approaches (Lysenko) and competing theories (Russia, Covid, Climate Change..to name a few controversial ones). More often than not, this cannot be done with empirical evidence. The evidence simply supports both models/theories perfectly unproblematically.
So we need ways, habits, which help us choose fruitfully.
Cool example, which touches on the coherence norms of the 'I think' or 'I believe' that attaches implicitly to individuals' claims. We can see in this example why that norm is so important. We'd think the speaker did not know English or was radically illogical.
Granting that are differences between 'P' and 'P is true,' I still think that, in this context, making them equal is a better path than the alternatives...though I don't pretend to know all the trails in these woods.
That I believe that p is true doesn't entail that p is true, and so "I believe that p is true and p is not true" is, in a sense, consistent and possibly true, but in another sense an absurd thing to say.
This is where I think the meaning-as-use approach isn't the full story. Although in the everyday sense we might agree that the assertions "p" and "I believe p" are doing the same thing, in a more strict sense they can have different truth-values, and if two propositions can have different truth-values then they mean different things.
So I don't think it right (or rather insufficient) to just look to our ordinary, everyday speech to understand the difference between "snow is white" is true and snow is white.
There is nothing ineffable about a world that is not limited by what we say, or, for that matter, by what we see.
Quoting Pie
I am not talking about a theory. Of course a theory is linguistic!
Quoting Pie
This is in many cases true, but reasoning about spatial relations, for example, need not be linguistic. I can figure out how to pack the car with too much stuff or arrange the furniture without language.
You have shifted from being in the world to knowledge. While knowledge is, for human beings, a part of being in the world, that is not the whole of it.
This is backwards. I must be able to see that the patch is red in order to classify it as red. Other animals can see and respond to colors without naming or classifying them. Do they "know" it is red or green? Their survival may depend on seeing something as this rather than that color.
Quoting Pie
You may buy into Hegel's metaphysics, with everything wrapped in a nice teleological bundle with not only [added; European] man but Hegel himself playing a key role in the unfolding of reality, but I don't. For all its cosmopolitanism it is more than a bit provincial.
That seems correct. Theories are underdetermined.
I didnt mean to imply truth was a property. If the deflationary theory takes truth for granted, then it leaves unexplained what makes a sentence true. Is it correspondence, coherence, something else or nothing at all?
Nothing at all. The postulated truthmaker is either redundant or uselessly ineffable. What makes it correct to say that snow is white ? The 'actual' whiteness of snow ? But what does 'actual' do there?
'Snow is white' is true because (?) snow is white. I claim that that 'because' is misleading or errant. It adds nothing, does not explain.
Must there be ?
I currently take it as the honest theory...one that would rather not spout nonsense, bewitched by old metaphors...
But maybe your intuition is a sure guide ? And philosophy ought to know better than to challenge your hunches?
Clearly this hinges on how we understand what it is to know. I'll do you one better. Does a thermostat know when it's hotter than 68 degrees ? Does an electron know that it's being pushed by a neighbor in a copper wire ? I didn't peg you for a panpsychist, but ?
Thank you, Polonius ! Do toilets flush ? Do cows go moo ?
https://core100.columbia.edu/article/excerpt-don-quixote
No one does these days, I daresay.
Quoting Fooloso4
Oh dear.
That is, its false that any statement is false. :cool:
Quoting Pie
Fine, but its not much of a theory of truth if it doesnt offer an account of what makes a statement true.
An important question for AI, but I would say that the ability of an animal to distinguish between two colors is a form of knowledge, even though it may be excluded by a favored theory of knowledge.
Quoting Pie
but no.
Why the insult?
I assume you miss the irony. You appeal to linguistic practices and call it reality.
That begs the question. You're assuming anything does.
The correspondence and coherence theories of truth both theorise about what does.
It seems to me that the deflationary theory is not inconsistent with either of these and that either could be tacked on to the deflationary theory for an account of what makes statements true.
I do believe there is a reason why we say that some statements are true and some are false, though. Dont you?
Possibly, but it doesn't mean there is a necessity for them to.
Quoting Luke
Yes, I've written about it on this thread. I think there are numerous reasons to do with wanting to get others to believe us, wanting to show faith in others, wanting to give an indication of confidence...
These are not the main reasons I would think of for our saying e.g. that snow is white is true, or that there are plums in the icebox is false.
OK. What reasons might you be thinking of?
Picture 1 is meant to explain ordinary usage of "truth-maker/truth-bearer".
Quoting bongo fury
Hence picture 2. Nonetheless, picture 1 is (or so I thought) the usual shared assumption when people use those terms (competently), or when they invoke the use-mention distinction for whole sentences. And in cases like this:
Quoting Pie
I'm hoping the picture will help us agree whether your P is truth bearer or truth maker or both or neither? What are the odds, I wonder... :grin:
So your go to expression to communicate the lack of plums in the fridge is "There are plums in the icebox is false"? Not "there aren't any plums in the fridge"?
No, you seem to have lost track of the discussion. We were talking about the reasons why we would say that a statement is true or false, not how to best express that a statement is true or false. Your reasons were to do with wanting to get others to believe us, wanting to show faith in others, wanting to give an indication of confidence... I suggested a better reason for why we would say that a statement is true or false would be e.g. the (lack of) correspondence between the statement there are plums in the icebox and what we find in the icebox.
My understanding of truth, how it emerges, and how it works within all thought, belief, and statements thereof is not exactly conventional. Correspondence Theory is closest but has vestiges of historical mistaken accounting practices persisting. Tarski's 'explanation' is best, but I've been told that I misunderstand it, because to me it is a near perfect account of how a true statement is so by virtue of correspondence to the way things are, the case at hand, what's happened, is happening, and/or has yet to have happened(wrt predictions/expectations). My outright rejection of "propositions" as they've been historically conceived doesn't help either, given their continued prevalence. As we've touched upon elsewhere, my objection is based upon the fact that convention has it that truth requires language in a way that it is somehow existentially dependent upon it, such that where there has never been language, there could have never been truth. I've very good reason to reject that claim and hold otherwise, but I'll leave it at that for now.
A story may prove helpful...
There was a recent power outage after a storm in one of my sons' homes. The lack of electricity had already lasted for most of the day, and the power company informed everyone in the affected areas that it may take quite a while longer to restore power to everyone's homes. All the adults in the house were cognizant of the dangers of food spoilage, particularly the stuff in the fridge. As a result, there was a concerted effort to minimize potential losses by keeping the fridge closed as much as possible.
My not-quite-two-year-old grandchild had just begun putting more than one word together in speech. She had no clue what the word "truth" meant. She could not use the terms "true", "false", "not true", or any of the other common terms and words used to talk about true and false statements. However, she definitely knew when she heard a false claim about the contents of the fridge, even though she was barely capable of stringing words together, and could neither name nor describe a single item therein.
That fact is interesting and relevant.
So, the power is out, the adults are deliberately attempting to open the fridge as little as possible as a means to save the food within, when she walked towards the fridge extending her arm, fingers outstretched, as if to open the fridge door to look inside. This was already a habit of hers, to stand there holding the door wide open while looking all around inside to decide if she wanted anything she saw. All the adults in the home knew that much and they had all been long since attempting to discourage her from do so, even before the power outage. So, when one of them took notice of her intention to open the fridge, they also believed that she would once again stand in front of it with the door wide open while deciding if she wanted anything she saw. In a proactive attempt to put a halt to that, they sternly called out her name as a means of immediately getting her attention so that the door remained closed. It worked, temporarily at least. She stopped right in front of the fridge, her hand already on the handle of the door, looking back. He then goes on to say, in a much friendlier tone, "There's nothing in there" in an attempt to stop her from opening and holding the fridge door open and letting all the cool air out of it while she 'window shopped'. What he meant was that there was nothing that she needed at the time, because they were conserving the cool air within, but he did not say that, and she did not understand what he meant. She heard exactly what he said, understood exactly what those words meant, and knew that what he said was not true. The interesting part is that she knew all this even though she was completely incapable of expressing her knowledge with the terms I'm using to describe the situation.
Ahhh...but what she did do was sooo much better!
Instead, she furled her brow, displayed all the confidence that a toddler of that age can possibly muster, and retorted "Uh huh" while opening the door wide enough for him to be able see inside. After ensuring that he could see inside for himself, she began directly contradicting his claim that there was nothing inside the fridge by virtue of pointing to all the different things that were inside the fridge saying "There's that... and that... and that... and that..."
So, what can this situation tell us about truth and/or our understanding thereof?
It tells us quite clearly that a mastery of language is not necessary in order to be able to tell when some statements are true or false, or to already intuitively know how to check and see for ourselves as well as showing another that what they've said is not true. It shows us that we can already understand all of this, on a very basic level, long before having acquired the mastery of language replete with metacognitive endeavors that are required in order for us to be able to talk about it. It shows us that she understood how true claims correspond and false ones do not long before ever being capable of using those terms. She showed him that what he said was not true, and that she knew that much, despite her not being able to tell him.
It also shows us quite clearly that coherence played no role in her understanding, in her knowing that what he said was not true. She was not taken aback regarding whether or not his words followed the so-called 'rules' of correct inference. She was not criticizing the consistency of his language use. She was not keeping a keen eye on the form of his language use. She was not attempting to judge whether he said what he meant.
She was comparing what he said about the contents of the fridge to her knowledge of those contents. She already knew that some stuff was in the fridge, so she knew that what he said was not true. That comparison happened autonomously without the mastery of language required to be able to say so. She communicated to him that what he said was not true. She did not have the mastery of language in order to be able to tell him. So, she did so by virtue of the only means available to her at the time. She showed him that what he said about the contents of the fridge did not correspond to the contents of the fridge. In her doing so, she shows us that we need not be able to use the terms so often used in philosophical and normal everyday discourse in order to intuitively know that 1.)some meaningful statements are false, 2.)what makes them so, 3.)how to check and see for ourselves, or 4.)how to show someone else.
It's no stretch at all to extend that to knowing some meaningful statements are true, what makes them so, how to check for ourselves, and how to show others.
All long before having a linguistic framework replete with the terms "truth", "true", "false", etc...
Why's that a better reason?
:smile:
The broader idea is that we can say much more about warrant and belief than truth. We can talk endlessly about what causes beliefs and what beliefs cause. But truth? We know that warranted statements can be false and that unwarranted statements can be true. The utility of 'true' may depend on the 'absoluteness' of its grammar. If 'is true' adds nothing (essential) as a suffix to 'P', then what you really need an account of is earnest assertions.
Reasons we'd use to decide?
Look in the fridge?
Ask someone we trust?
Which of those had anything to to with your reasons ...
Quoting Luke
I'm just getting rowdy, mirroring you. I'm happy to tone it down. We all know that there's stuff in the world that's not language. That's common sense, yes? So obviously the issue is not so simple. As I see it, the tricky part is making sense of truth-makers...or rooting them out as nonsense.
https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/truthmakers/
Is this in reference to Gettier examples? There is still some reason why we would ultimately say that the statements are true or false, and it still looks correspondence-y to me.
Yes, look in the fridge and see if the statement about the plums corresponds with what we find in there.
Quoting Isaac
I dont recall that being a reason you gave
I currently don't find the idea of a truth-maker very useful or intelligible. Obviously we can talk about reasons people believe P. That's different, in my view.
Truth-bearer seems closer, but there's already talk of an entity that can be true or false and nothing else. A bit rigid !
Claims can be true, false, ambiguous, or incoherent...Am I leaving something out?
Given that we're all pretty clever, I think it's largely a matter of clarifying what we even mean. Correspondence theory seems close to the redundancy theory. Is the world fundamentally significant or meaningful ?
Some are tempted to think of a layer of meaning that humans lay down and then postulate some X beneath this layer without being able to say anything about it. The view I'm naming is 'Hegel' is anti-idealist in its rejection of this dualism. It's like 'no-longer-naive realism.' 'The cat is on the mat' is 'made true' by the cat being on the mat, which is redundant. It might help to put it this way:
' 'P' is true ' means roughly the same as ' P '. (I added quotes that were implicit before.)
Do the thermostat or the electron have knowledge ? Is a differential response sufficient ?
Isn't proposing and criticizing and defending theories of knowledge part of the game ?
To be sure, (non-human) animal cognition is worth looking into, but I hardly think it's strange for a philosopher to focus on human (linguistic) claims.
Your responses seem to indicate otherwise, but I am not going to rehash this. Time for me to move on.
That's because I was giving reasons why we might say "there are plums in the icebox is false".
You then asked for reasons we'd use to decide whether there's plums in the icebox. I took that to mean strategies we'd use (since we can't 'use' reasons, we 'give' reasons).
Two different questions.
As to the first. For what reason might we say "there are plums in the icebox is false"... I can't see how a lack of plums in the icebox even reaches the top ten. It would be a rubbish reason.
If I said "there are plums in the icebox is false" and you said "why did you say that?" I guarantee in most cases "because there's no plums in the icebox" will not be considered sufficient reason...
The follow-up question will be "that's as may be, but why did you say it in that weird way?"
:up: :up: :up:
Phlogiston.
This is certainly a intuitive approach, but it's caught up in the first-person ghost story. One can't make inferences using spectral entities like 'private experience.' We can use "@Luke said the ice box was empty" in an inference, along perhaps with "@Luke is a reliable detector of plums" and so on. No one needs to deny some weird entity like what-it's-like-to-see-no-plums, but this is just some beetle in a box, not clearly any more useful than phlogiston or the waving ether.
No.
Quoting Luke
I agree that we that have reasons for making claims. Perhaps our sense organs are battered by the environment and we've been trained to make reliable non-inferential reports. Perhaps we apply inferential norms to beliefs we hold and derive a new belief.
Sure. 'Twenty different people agreed that the icebox was empty' might figure in an inference.
The issue is (trying to say) what you saw in that icebox. Was it not that there were no plums in it ? Which is to say already conceptual ?
It is not a matter of it being strange but of looking at questions of knowledge, language, and thinking by defining them in terms of what humans do. It is as if we were to claim that only humans can walk because what we do is what walking is and this is not what other animals do.
I would argue that a self-driving car knows how to drive. It is evident from the fact that it can drive. In some ways it already drives better than a human. Further, to drive requires an awareness of the surroundings, and so, it has awareness. I think it is a mistake to think that we have fixed concepts of such things as knowledge and awareness and if what a self-driving car does does not not match these concepts then it cannot have knowledge or awareness.
I agree that correspondence is common sense and that to bother with the redundancy theory that I'm defending is fussy. Indeed, the redundancy theory might only have a bite in the first place in the context of other 'sophisticated' theories. A 'veil-of-ideas' philosopher is a natural target here, for whom the sight of the plums would themselves be 'phenomenon' or 'appearance.' I take Hegel (who I include in my camp) to have been frustrated by all the Kantian machinery that was supposed to be between us and reality.
Fair enough. But what's a truthmaker for 'there are plums in the icebox'? Are you tempted to say something like...there being plums in the icebox?
That's nonstandard usage of 'know' and seems to imply that thermostats also have knowledge. You are of course free to develop a theory in that direction, but it doesn't seem relevant to the thread. If you start your own on that issue, I'd be glad to participate.
Of course. But no one says we do. Indeed, we are precisely trying to clarify and elaborate and even modify concepts here and in general. On the other hand, some relatively stable concepts are always in play, else we'd be (completely) unintelligible to each other.
So long, and thanks for all the fish.
You asked:
Quoting Pie
And prior to that you quoted Sellars claim that knowledge requires concepts.
What if someone were to ask if it is true that a self-driving car knows how to drive? Does your interest in truth makers and truth bearers help in answering this question?
I agree that:
Is it sufficient to say that it is true that a car knows how to drive itself iff a car can drive itself? Or can we dispense with this and simply say that there are cars that drive themselves? Of course for those who want to preserve a particular concept of knowledge, this leaves open the question of the truth of whether or not they know how to do what they do
Quoting Fooloso4
That tells me nothing about Hegel's attitude towards the truth value of "there is a teapot in orbit around Jupiter".
"Give a man a fish ..."
I think a large part of the problem is that we have different ideas of what philosophy is about. I hold to the ancient idea of philosophy as a way of life. This does not mean making, defending, and attacking arguments, although that is a part of it.
...and your belief is that you hold "Rory Gallagher is the best guitarist ever, it's true" to be true...
Quoting Isaac
Indeed, you are making an assertion, and making an assertion is attaching a truth value to a statement. You can't make an assertion without asserting that some statement is true. That's what the game of making an assertion involves. Hence the T-sentence.
I'm sure we agree that meaning is contextual. We want to think with the learned and have no choice but to speak with the vulgar, for we ourselves are vulgar most of the time. I mean 'vulgar' non-pejoratively.
I'm a big fan of Wittgenstein, but I like 'positive' theorists who build on the rubble that destructive theorists leave behind. Wittgenstein obliterated various 'Cartesian' confusions, for those who can bear or manage to understand him. As I see, I'm taking the same kind of anti-Cartesian position here. Intuitively (vulgarly) it's the sight of the plums in the icebox that's a truthmaker for 'there are plums in the ice box.' For ordinary purposes this is fine. For 'me' personally it's fine. But reasoning and meaning are essentially public. It's cleaner to talk in terms of claims, since the point is allowing or disallowing inferences. 'Tim said there were no plums in the icebox.' And we trust Tim's comforming to our tribal conceptual norms.
Hegel's concept of truth is not to be found in truth values:
From the preface to the Phenomenology:
Davidson is a son of Quine, hence his ideas flow parallel with Wittgenstein's, not against them.
And like Wittgenstein, Davidson's view changed over the course of his life, from a need to understand language in quite formal terms (Truth and Meaning) to a recognition of the indefinite flexibility of our utterances (A nice derangement of epitaphs)
The book The Essential Davidson collects the pivotal essays in one small volume, and while it won't be an easy read, it is a good starting point.
A thread on Davidson would be as absurd as a single thread on Wittgenstein. But it might be interesting to start a thread on one of his essays - say Truth and Meaning, since it sets out his early views.
What about the fish?
So now you seem to be saying he is an antirealist...
Well, if antirealism means not attributing a truth value to unknowns, then he is an antirealist. But he does not attribute truth value to knows either. It is the system as a whole not particulars that is true.
I am reminded of Arthur Koestler's definition of philosophy:
But truth, like most things, is not binary. Sentences have degrees of truth. Absolute truth is an edge case.
Therefore, P cannot be the same thing as P is true. P in itself cannot express the range of degrees the truth property of P can take.
Truth is just one property of P. It's semantic contents, its aesthetic appeal, the number of words, the language and dialect, are other properties of P.
P is the proposition, 'P is true' is a comment on P's property of truth.
I want to live a wise life like just about anyone who survives their youth perhaps. All of us, philosophers or not, are under pressure to figure out which claims to trust. I also count rationality as a social virtue. I connect this to the desire to achieve consensus fairly. I see us as self-transcending beings, discarding narrow, one-sided views for something larger, something we can share. Wittgenstein demonstrates one aspect (the semantic) in what might be called the primacy of the social.
[quote = Kant]
It is requisite to reasons lawgiving that it should need to presuppose only itself, because a rule is objectively and universally valid only when it holds without the contingent, subjective conditions that distinguish one rational being from another.
[/quote]
That applies to people in general, who don't seem to need us fussy philosophers. In strictly practical terms, mastering basic statistics, including the necessary math, is probably more valuable than reading Wittgenstein.
As opposed to a few things that are ?
Quoting hypericin
I think that they sometimes to, due to ambiguity primarily. But let us differentiate carefully here between imperfectly true statements (fuzzy logic, etc.) and the confidence we have in our beliefs.
The issue though is whether truth is a property in the first place.
I use P as a symbol for the semantic payload of 'P'.
What's special about our confident beliefs?
Language is nothing if not ambiguous. Statements may be true, within a temporal window. They may be true, only within certain spatial coordninates. They may be true from some physical or mental perspectives, but not others. They may be true within the framework of some cultures and ideologies, but not others. They may be true in some perfectly legitimate interpretations, and false in other perfectly legitimate interpretations.
Even trivial toy examples, "The sky is blue", admit to this ambiguity. In one sense it is true. Yet is the sky itself a blue object in the way other blue objects are? No, the blue is a result of light scattering in the atmosphere, in a manner totally unlike blue objects in our everyday experience.
If truth can admit to degrees, which it does, then it must be a property.
Quoting Pie
There is not one definite semantic payload corresponding to a given sentence.
Of course. It could be false.
So... that's partially true?
Quoting hypericin
Are you certain of this? To what degree?
Your argument, of course, applies to your own remarks, and so if it undermines everything, it undermines itself.
That language can be ambiguous is obvious. At issue is, what should we do about it?
Deep question ! I think we articulate values, make them explicit, as beliefs. 'No kid should go hungry in this country.' To me there's nothing wrong with this 'should.' It's just a value manifested as a belief about norms. I personally don't think rainbow or promises or marriages or square roots are less real than electrons or tables. They all figure in the same causal/explanatory nexus, which is (roughly) the structure of the world [s]as we know it.[/s]
Because warranted beliefs can be false and unwarranted beliefs can be true, I think the best thing we can do is take care of warrant, presumably because we expect to end up with more true or at least less false beliefs this way. To me irrationality is a primary form of anti-sociality, but I don't deny that people like Ayn Rand can make cults around the word in violation of the referent. I'm still haunted by Orwell's 1984. 'Ministry of Truth.'
Or the world itself is vague in places.
:up:
Quoting Banno
:up:
Well, I wasn't suggesting that the thread would cover all of Davidson's ideas.
We will disagree as to whether Davidson's ideas flow parallel with Wittgenstein, if you mean by parallel, there is agreement. Just from the little I read in the SEP, I don't get that idea. There are other philosophers who do a much better job of extending Wittgenstein's ideas.
And, of course, there is more to philosophy than Wittgenstein, who would think otherwise, certainly not me.
Sure, in some contexts, propositional logic for instance, truth is binary.
Quoting Banno
So it cannot be the state of affairs that truth has degrees, because if it did, it would be impossible to state that truth had degrees? Sophomoric argument.
In the real world we get by just fine without running around proclaiming absolute truths and falsities. My post is no different. To attempt to pigeonhole all propositions into T and F is to miss almost all the nuance of actual communication.
This is where the CorrTheory and the redundancy theory are very close. If plums being in the ice box are the 'truthmaker' for 'there are plums in the ice box,' then 'truthmaker' seems like too much of complement here.
For isn't this just a complicated way of saying that P is the truthmaker of 'P' ? But nothing is actually being added. No truth is being made. P is just (taken as) true.
I think the issue is truthmakers.
https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/truthmakers/
I think that @Banno and I both don't trust the notion much. It seems superfluous if not just confused.
https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/truthmakers/#Def
What in god's name is supposed to happen when we imagine that a proposition is false ? That just is imagining some difference in the world.
Is that T or F ? Or (T + F)/2 ?
Tautologies look to be an obvious counterexample. What is the something in the world whose existence entails that truth (p v ~p)?
Truthbearers look like an attempt to resuscitate substantive theories of truth by reintroducing some sort of ontological implication for true statements. It looks wrong.
I could have answered this better. FWIW, I think it's hard to divorce rationality from anti-racism, anti-sexism, and anti-classism. It goes with free speech, democracy, and science. I'd argue that it also goes with a minimum standard of living to prevent the collapse of that which makes a rational society possible in the first place, such as education, safety, and leisure.
That would explain why CT feels so close and so far away to the redundancy theory.
I'm afraid that folks might want to interpret 'P' as a string of letters. I tend to interpret it that way, reserving P for the meaning of 'P.' (This may be nonstandard of me.)
I get the sense that CT wants to interpret the P as the truthbearer, letting 'atoms and the void' or something be the truthmaker.
Of course. A sophomoric reply for a sophomoric issue. Truth only ever admits of degrees... of truth. If what is suggested is an attempt to escape truth, then it fails.
Yeah. Still seems like unnecessary machinery to me.
It's as if assertion is brutally irreducible, which I'd connect to the primacy of the social and the publicity of meaning.
CC?
Oh Sorry ! I meant CT for correspondence theory. (Fixed).
Hence the utility of reducing correspondence to truth-functional equivalence.
Is truth something like North on a compass ?
The grammatical role it play is so simple that it confuses.
'Assume P.'
Now P plays the role of the given, that which we stand on fearlessly.
That sounds right, depending on how CT is understood.
I think folks are falling prey to their visual imagination somehow. If the contingently true proposition is the color of Sally's dog, they visually imagine the color being changed, digging beneath propositions to 'sense-data.' This is the ice box temptation too. They 'see' the plums. They are trying to methodically ignore the conceptual aspect of experience, as if pre-conceptual visual memory were the truly real...and articulation was a secondary layer.
Cartesian baggage. As if epistemology makes sense as a merely private matter.
Or that's my hypothesis.
Not sure what this formulation is supposed to mean.
Quoting Banno
Whew, glad I never once hinted at suggesting that.
Parallel lines don't touch...
Here's Truth and Meaning.Let me know what you think. Davidson takes on questions unaddressed by Wittgenstein.
It sounds uncomfortable.
This Is Just To Say
By William Carlos Williams
I have eaten
the plums
that were in
the icebox
and which
you were probably
saving
for breakfast
Forgive me
they were delicious
so sweet
and so cold
The issue is...what's the truthmaker of 'there are plums in the icebox' ?
Quoting hypericin
Well, then, what are you claiming? Back to this:
Quoting hypericin
The main function in a T-sentence is the truth functional operator "?", not "=". So indeed, p is not the same thing as "p is true".
'there are plums in the icebox' is true if and only if there are plums in the icebox.
Presumably - and here I am just trying out the apparent idea of a truthmaker - 'there are plums in the icebox' is made true by there being plums in the icebox... and so the notion of being is introduced, and we fall down a well of ontology.
That's progress?
I'm still not seeing it.
I don't think we need a truthmaker, just to be clear.
I've been speculating about what others, who disagree, might have in mind.
Id just like to maintain some separation between the way things are in the world and our statements about the way things are in the world, because we might consider some of those statements to be false. It may be redundant whether we say either P or P is true (iff P is true), but it is not redundant to distinguish between P and P.
Thanks for your answers to my earlier question. This one strikes me as somewhat tendentious. To me this position - which I generally share - seems to originate from a value system which already holds that reason and progressive politics are synonymous, or flip sides of the same coin. How does one make this case in philosophic terms? Rationality can also be mustered successfully to support conservative and libertarian positions, right? What process do we use to determine if a rational framework is being put to work appropriately, other than following the arguments back down to foundational value systems and agreeing or disagreeing with those?
Nor I - hence my disclaimer: Quoting Banno
Im not sure whether Im using the term in accordance with truthmaker theory; I used it only as an expedient for that which determines whether a statement is true or false. A quick search seems to indicate this use is pretty much the same as the truthmaker theory.
Heres' my problem: what sort of thing is "that which determines whether a statement is true or false"?
Because I think it clear that if anything determine that "The plums were in the icebox" is true, it's that plums are in the icebox.
One feels like saying that "what makes the statement true is..." And here one wants to finish with "the statement itself", but that is wrong; or perhaps one might finish with "what the statement says", or "the fact it presents", or some such; and none of these tell us anything.
So it looks to me more like there is a problem with supposing a something which determines that the statement is true or false; an unneeded reification.
The urge to posit a "that which determines whether a statement is true or false" is the urge towards substantive, ie, non-deflationary, accounts of truth.
I see your point. It becomes further mystification.
But is there a need to maintain a separation between the way things are in the world and our true statements about the way things are in the world?
Seems to me that there is not.
And it seems to me that this is what Davidson is saying in suggesting we give up our dependence on the concept of an uninterpreted reality: that there is no such separation between our true statements and the way things are. We "reestablish unmediated touch with the familiar objects whose antics make our sentences and opinions true or false".
(@Sam26)
Seems to me that this is an attempt to explain truth in terms of "describe" or "denote".
That's problematic, since firstly "is true" looks clearer than either "denotes" or "describes", and secondly we can ask if it is true that this "describes" or "denotes" that, and hence already need the notion of truth in order to understand denotation and description....
Here's the thing, and the same point as I was trying to make for @Isaac; that in order to have this discussion we make assertions, and in order to make assertions, we make use of truth; hence truth is fundamental to our discussions in. a way that renders it not a suitable subject for our discussions.
Put another way: there can be no substantive definition of truth.
Quoting Tom Storm
Quoting Tom Storm
Maybe 'progressive' is a little too loaded here in our polarized times, though it's typically been on the side of enfranchisement. I'd stress freedom/autonomy. Freedom/automony means being bound by norms that one understands and embraces, establishing one's own laws. If we think in terms of justification...of the right to and the habit of asking why we should obey or believe, plausibly implicit in freedom/autonomy, then we see that reason is 'given' or basic.
'Why should I be reasonable ?' asks for a reason. Brandom might stress that we just are inferential animals. That's what 'rational' means.
[quote=Kant]
It is requisite to reasons lawgiving that it should need to presuppose only itself, because a rule is objectively and universally valid only when it holds without the contingent, subjective conditions that distinguish one rational being from another.
...
...
Reason must subject itself to critique in all its undertakings, and cannot restrict the freedom of critique through any prohibition without damaging itself and drawing upon itself a disadvantageous suspicion. For there is nothing so important because of its utility, nothing so holy, that it may be exempted from this searching review and inspection, which knows no respect for persons [i.e. does not recognize any person as bearing more authority than any otherGW]. On this freedom rests the very existence of reason, which has no dictatorial authority, but whose claim is never anything more than the agreement of free citizens, each of whom must be able to express his reservations, indeed even his veto, without holding back. (A738f/B766f, translation slightly modified)
[/quote]
The second part is trickier, because dominant humans (with worldly power anyway) have withheld adult status (freedom and autonomy) from other human beings for various reasons. I take Hegel's work to be largely about the expansion of this rational tribe toward the realization that all humans are free. Is this expansion implicit in reason ? I think it basically is, though not obviously so. The big thing I learned from philosophy was the primacy of the social. I am a 'we' before I am an 'I.' To speak a language is to run an inherited operating system, to share an always already significant lifeworld. This 'softwhere' doesn't need or care about this or that skin color or sex organ (which doesn't mean it can't be initially confused about this independence.) The developing individual primarily assimilates ideas and skills that he himself did not create. Robust and glorious individuality abases itself to be exalted, empowers itself by surrendering itself to others, listening to and learning from everyone else, submitting to the better reason, thereby transforming humiliation and error into strength. I think it was Bacon who insisted that we are the ancients, because we inherit more than all who came before us. It's as if human knowledge, call it Shakespeare, is a baby god getting fat on centuries of experience, surviving the death of his cells, we the thinkers and tinkers and stinkers who come and go, picking up tricks upon entrance and sometimes leaving behind a few before exiting. The gut level version of this is described by Ma Joad. There's just one momma's love that all us mammals share in...and maybe there's just one 'intellectual love of God' which I can celebrate as a Spinoza-adjacent atheist with you and everyone else. Is it our nature to expand and transcend ourselves ? Unless something jams us up?
Rorty didn't trust theories of human nature, but I'm not afraid to keep trying to make explicit what we are, wary of course of abuses of the phrases 'human nature' and 'rationality.' Yet I'm not optimistic. We might indeed destroy ourselves, descend into another holocaust or worse. I can even feel my way into the antinatalist who is terrified of life's shameful vulnerability and would like us all safely extinct. I was moved by David Pearce's ideas. How glorious for a product of the nightmare of Darwinian evolution to correct that nightmare, if such a project is not insane. I'll settle for Denmark at the moment. In fact, I'm seem to be fairly happy with my own life in the insane US.
:up:
I agree with that of course.
'P' is letters or sounds. P, as I intend it, is the meaning of 'P.' We mean the world.
:up:
It can come to look obvious even. Of course!
We use the word.
On the left of the T-sentence is a string of letters, the same ones used on the right; and in between we have "...is true only if..."
So we use the word to mean the world ?
Quoting Pie
'P' is letters or sounds. P is a use of 'P'.
This talk of norms, is it an advance on Plato, or is it sophistry in modern, perhaps even scientific garb?
Indeed. :up: Pinker defines reason as the use of logic to attain a goal. Which, if you accept this, supports Nazism as nicely as it does Liberalism. My concern is not the privileging reason per say but the fact that reason can underpin mutually exclusive belief systems. You still tend to begin with suppositions which are values based and not rationally derived.
Quoting Pie
Would it be fair to say you are a romantic of a kind? I probably side with Rorty here but largely because I eschew system building and he (though dead) remains smarter than I am, so there's that...
I enjoy your use of the English language.
One ought not discuss norms ? Or one ought not bother with glib incoherence, from an officer of the local thought police ?
We might say that Hitler applied something like instrumental reason. Sure.
Quoting Tom Storm
If understood in a 'thin' way, then I agree that the same reason/logic applied to different premises should lead to different conclusions.
Quoting Tom Storm
Rorty is deep. Some of his comments on the depths of the soul are probably often overlooked. I'm excited about the work of one of his academic sons. He advised Robert Brandom, who does take the risk of a [s]theory[/s] making explicit of human nature, updating Hegel.
Quoting Tom Storm
Tricky question ! Hegel is called a Romantic Rationalist, and the gist and feel of his project appeals to me, though I feel no attachment to or mastery of many of the details, having come at it initially through the mad atheistic Kojève. The story of a process becoming aware of itself, making its own nature progressively explicit as a telling of stories, is just beautiful. It's echoed by an amoeba transforming itself into a Darwin who only then grasps what has happened.
Maybe I'm just an ironist, thought, who also loves Sartre's Nausea. I take Shakespeare as a hero, following Harold Bloom, thinking that maybe he's the hero of an expansion that never recaptures itself, doesn't know its own depths. Public decency and private irony, something like that. As Elvis or Rorty said, don't be cruel. But in the same book (CIS), Rorty was frank about the desire to humiliate. He understood the 'festival of cruelty,' just as the program Smith seemed to.
My philosophical position was initially 'pomo' and relativistic, probably because I was an alienated, artistic young adult who wanted to start rather than follow trends. But, as my biased current self might put it, I grew up, saw the logical incoherence in the presentation, developed what I now see as a better spiel (product, costume), without however (I hope) losing some perversely mystical gallows humor that takes it all as a game or a joke.
I think that's fair. I was criticized for waxing Heidegger earlier (gently), but one might mention the 'significance' of a familiar and articulated world. Language and world and we ourselves are equiprimordial, even if we can talk about the time of the dinosaurs or the big bang.
Just so you can see what Rorty's systematic 'son' is up to,...
[quote=Brandom]
One might ask whether the inferentialist approach does not require overestimating the extent to which we are rational. Are we really very good at telling what is a reason for what? How often do we act for reasonsand in particular, for good reasons? The question betrays a misunderstanding. We are rational creatures in the sense that our claims and aims are always liable to assessment as to our reasons for them. How good we are at satisfying those demands doesnt change our status as rational. And it must be kept in mind that on this way of thinking about the nature of semantic content, it makes no sense to think of us first having a bunch of sentences expressing definite propositions, which accordingly stand in inferential relations to one another, and only then having there be a question about how many of those inferences we get right. For it is our practices of treating what is expressed by some noises as reasons for what is expressed by other noises that makes those noises express conceptual contents in the first place. Once the enterprise is up and running, we can certainly make mistakes about what follows from the commitments we have undertaken, and what would justify them. But there is no possibility of us massively or globally getting the inferences wrong (for very much the same Quinean reasons that Davidson has emphasized).
I have been arguing that it is better to think in terms of understanding than knowledge, and better to think of meaning-and-understanding (which on this approach are two sides of one coin) in terms of inference than in terms of truth. So far, I have approached this issue largely from the point of view of semantics and the philosophy of language. But there is more at stake here. For this way of thinking about semantic content goes to the heart of the question of what it is to be sapientto be the kind of creature we most fundamentally are. It says that we are beings that live, and move, and have our being in the space of reasons. We are, at base, creatures who give and ask for reasonswho are sensitive to that force of the better reason, persuasive rather than coercive, which so mystified and fascinated the ancient Greek philosophers. Crossing that all-important line from mere sentience to sapience is participating in practices of giving and asking for reasons: practices in which some performances have the pragmatic significance of claims or assertions, which accordingly, as both standing in need of reasons and capable of serving as reasons (that is, of playing the role both of conclusion and as premise in inference) count as expressing propositional semantic content.
This semantic rationalismwhich goes with thinking of content in the first instance in terms of inference rather than reference, reason rather than truthflies in the face of many famous movements in 20th century philosophical thought. The American pragmatists, above all, John Dewey, used the possibility of explaining knowing that in terms of knowing how not only to assimilate our sapient intellectual activity to the skillful doings of merely sapient animals, but at the same time to blur the sharp, bright line I am trying to draw between sapience and sentience. Wittgenstein famously said that language does not have a downtown: a core set of practices on which the rest depend, and around which they are arrayed, like suburbs. But inferentialism says that practices of giving and asking for reasons are the downtown of language. For it is only by incorporating such practices that practices put in play propositional and other conceptual contents at alland hence count as discursive practices, practices in which it is possible to say anything. The first Sprachspiel, language game, Wittgenstein introduces in the Philosophical Investigations has a builder issuing sorderss to an assistant. When he says Slab! the assistant has been trained to respond by bringing a slab. When he says Block! the assistant has been trained to respond by bringing a block. From the inferentialist point of view, this does not qualify as a Sprachspiel at all; it is a vocal, but not a verbal game. For the assistant is just a practical version of the parrot I considered earlier: he has been trained reliably to respond differentially to stimuli. But he grasps no concepts, and if this is the whole game, the builder expresses none. An order or command is not just any signal that is appropriately responded to in one way rather than another. It is something that determines what is an appropriate response by saying what one is to do, by describing it, specifying what concepts are to apply to a doing in order for it to count as obeying the order. Derridas crusade against what he calls the logocentrism of the Western philosophical tradition has brilliantly and inventively emphasized all the other things one can do with language, besides arguing, inferring, explaining, theorizing, and asserting. Thus we get the playful essays in which the key to his reading of Hegel is that his name in French rhymes with eagle, his reading of Nietzsche that turns on what Derrida claims is the most important of his philosophical writings (a slip of paper that turned up in his belongings after his death, reading only I have forgotten my umbrella,), and the unforgettable meditation on the significance of the width of the margins of the page for the meaning of the text printed there. But if inferentialism is the right way to think about contentfulness, then the game of giving and asking for reasons is privileged among the games we play with words. For it is the one in virtue of which they mean anything at allthe one presupposed and built upon by all the other uses we can then put those meanings to, once they are available. Again, the master-idea of Foucaults critique of modernity is that reason is just one more historically conditioned form of power, in principle no better (and in its pervasive institutionalization, in many ways worse) than any other form of oppression. But if giving and asking for reasons is the practice that institutes meanings in the first place, then it is does not belong in a box with violence and intimidation, which show up rather in the contrast class precisely insofar as they constrain what we do by something other than reasons.
[/quote]
@Tom Storm got me thinking about Rorty and irony and Romanticism, inspiring me to dust off a few quotes.
Can we imagine an ironist or jester, who plays at being earnestly systematic ? The passage below has always moved me. In it, Hegel credits the gang of literary Romantics with a high but not the highest level of spirituality or consciousness or transcendence. He swallows them.
[quote=Hegel]
Now if we stop at these absolutely empty forms which originate from the absoluteness of the abstract ego, nothing is treated in and for itself and as valuable in itself, but only as produced by the subjectivity of the ego. But in that case the ego can remain lord and master of everything, and in no sphere of morals, law, things human and divine, profane and sacred, is there anything that would not first have to be laid down by the ego, and that therefore could not equally well be destroyed by it. Consequently everything genuinely and independently real becomes only a show, not true and genuine on its own account or through itself, but a mere appearance due to the ego in whose power and caprice and at whose free disposal it remains. To admit or cancel it depends wholly on the pleasure of the ego, already absolute in itself simply as ego. Now thirdly, the ego is a living, active individual, and its life consists in making its individuality real in its own eyes and in those of others, in expressing itself, and bringing itself into appearance. For every man, by living, tries to realize himself and does realize himself.
Now in relation to beauty and art, this acquires the meaning of living as an artist and forming ones life artistically. But on this principle, I live as an artist when all my action and my expression in general, in connection with any content whatever, remains for me a mere show and assumes a shape which is wholly in my power. In that case I am not really in earnest either with this content or, generally, with its expression and actualization. For genuine earnestness enters only by means of a substantial interest, something of intrinsic worth like truth, ethical life, etc., by means of a content which counts as such for me as essential, so that I only become essential myself in my own eyes in so far as I have immersed myself in such a content and have brought myself into conformity with it in all my knowing and acting. When the ego that sets up and dissolves everything out of its own caprice is the artist, to whom no content of consciousness appears as absolute and independently real but only as a self-made and destructible show, such earnestness can find no place, since validity is ascribed only to the formalism of the ego.
True, in the eyes of others the appearance which I present to them may be regarded seriously, in that they take me to be really concerned with the matter in hand, but in that case they are simply deceived, poor limited creatures, without the faculty and ability to apprehend and reach the loftiness of my standpoint. Therefore this shows me that not everyone is so free (i.e. formally free)[52] as to see in everything which otherwise has value, dignity, and sanctity for mankind just a product of his own power of caprice, whereby he is at liberty either to grant validity to such things, to determine himself and fill his life by means of them, or the reverse. Moreover this virtuosity of an ironical artistic life apprehends itself as a divine creative genius for which anything and everything is only an unsubstantial creature, to which the creator, knowing himself to be disengaged and free from everything, is not bound, because he is just as able to destroy it as to create it. In that case, he who has reached this standpoint of divine genius looks down from his high rank on all other men, for they are pronounced dull and limited, inasmuch as law, morals, etc., still count for them as fixed, essential, and obligatory. So then the individual, who lives in this way as an artist, does give himself relations to others: he lives with friends, mistresses, etc; but, by his being a genius, this relation to his own specific reality, his particular actions, as well as to what is absolute and universal, is at the same time null; his attitude to it all is ironical.
[/quote]
https://www.marxists.org/reference/archive/hegel/works/ae/introduction.htm#s7-3
He claims to include and digest The Irony, making this plausible by stressing what's shallow in it (ignoring its mystical depths.) But is this possible ? The 'Irony' is like Chaos or the womb of the gods itself. Hegel solidifies on its surface. Hegel, who knocked up his landlord's wife.
It's fun to imagine Hegel as an Ironist who merely pretended be the greatest of earnest systematizers. Or maybe he did swallow Irony, along with its mystical depths.
Why do you say thats wrong? This is what I have been guarding against from the beginning. If it were the statement itself that makes a statement true, then there could be no false statements; every statement would be true by virtue of being a statement. If - as you say - this is wrong, then it cannot be that nothing makes a statement true. So if its not the way the world is (correspondence/realism) that makes a statement true, then what (antirealist thing) makes a statement true?
Gore Vidal, although not a philosopher, springs to mind. :wink:
Nice.
I think this is well put and interesting point. I wonder what a Foucauldian riposte to this would be. Often felt that the postmodern challenge to rationalism and science and progress and its constant urge for reinvention is like a form of Romanticism, but with cynicism and disenchantment where hope and love used to sit.
If the statement itself is what makes the statement true or false, then truth and falsity have nothing to do with anything outside of statements...
In your previous post the phrase was that which determines whether a statement is true or false.
What I'm positing is that the way of phrasing the issue in terms of making or determining is what is flawed.
And I'm not sure that is a point of disagreement between us.
Nice.
Quoting Banno
This just seems like begging the question.
To make the assertion "Rory Gallagher is the best guitarist in the world", I think of Rory's guitar playing, perhaps imagine it, or recall an opinion I had of it, do the same for other guitar players, see how each makes me feel, render that comparison into the words I've learnt will do the job of getting someone else to respond accordingly.
If my interlocutor seems unconvinced (furrowed brow, shaking head...) I might add "...it's true!", having learnt that those words will often yield a reconsideration, at least.
I'm not seeing, in any of that game any warrant for introducing the concept of 'truth'. The game seems to play out perfectly well without it. It seems at risk of become it's very own beetle. None of us here are adding ..."is true" to the end of our assertions, we seem to be mentally capable of making those assertions without running them through and additional concept filter in our minds that we call 'truth'.
We just infer that the policy seems likely to succeed (believing, claiming, asserting, using "...is true"...), then we enact it.
Where do we need a concept of truth in there? The entire concept seems, dare I say, redundant.
So you do not take your own assertions to be true?
Ok, then.
I had thought you at least sincere...
Again, this is question-begging. You're taking the meaning of 'true' that you hold to construct the faux surprise that I would not hold my assertions to meet that criteria.
But it is your meaning of 'true' we're disputing here.
Yes, if I agree with you about what 'true' means, then it would be surprising if I didn't hold my assertions to be thus defined. But I don't agree with you about what 'true' means, so it is not surprising.
For clarity...
If someone asks (of an assertion of mine) "is that true" I usually take it to mean something like "if I used that policy would I likely find the same success you did?". In other words, "do you think we can share this modelling assumption"
[hide="Reveal"]Of course it might mean "I don't believe you", or "how sure are you", or "have a bit more of a think about that before you commit"...or any number of other uses.[/hide]
I don't take it to mean "does your assertion have some ineffable property we all somehow share despite it not seeming to serve any purpose nor have any warrant to think it's even there."
Nor do I. It's not ineffable; the T-sentence sets it out exactly....
Quoting Isaac
Is that true?
And so on.
I suspect you have an interesting point to make, but exactly what it is eludes me.
Again, when one says that such-and-such is true, I don't thinks, bar the pragmatics, that they re saying anything more than that such-and-such.
They are not saying anything like "if I used that policy would I likely find the same success you did?"
I assume there is some criteria by which we judge a statement to be either true or false. You agree that this criteria is not the statement itself. Are you saying that there are no criteria; that this is a flawed assumption? Then do we judge truth/falsity at random, or not at all?
A statement's being judged true or false is very different to it's being true or false.
But this is not what the T-sentence says. The T-sentence says that "p" is true iff p.
What you've given above is an account of my actions regarding p - asserting "p is true" is the same as asserting p - Which is Ramsey's position.
In other words, asserting "p is true" does the same thing as asserting p (in the cases we're concerned with here).
The T-sentence goes beyond this redundancy to claim there is a property 'truth' which attaches to propositions and is met is the proposition is...[and then restates the proposition but pretending not to be stating it by omitting the quotation marks]
Typo... not sure what this is.
Nice rendering of Ramsey, though.
Sorry, should be "and is met when the proposition is..."
Registering by bafflement at the criteria....
Quoting Banno
Thanks. His work on truth pretty much guides my thinking on the matter.
Are you talking about the world in itself? I could be wrong, but I think thats different to @Pies post-Kantian views on the topic.
Also, what you quoted from Davidson earlier also refers to the world making our sentences true or false:
Quoting Banno
The assumption that because there is a predicate - "...is true" - there must be a property of which that predicate is the name , is fraught with reification. Same issue as with Luke on the previous page. But this is going to get difficult, since we are now differentiating performative deflation from disquotational deflation.
Cheers. Not a bad puzzle.
No; more about the distinction between belief and truth.
Also, I don't think Davidson holds that there is some causal link between the antics of familiar objects and our opinions; he would not, I think, interchange "make" with "determine".
Likewise. An endless pursuit, I think, but no bad thing that.
Roughly, and here mimicking Strawson, if you know what an assertion is, you already know what truth is. Hence there remains something insincere, or at least disconcerting, in your proposing that one can make an assertion that is free of entanglement with truth.
For Ramsey, "p is true" means the same thing as "p". So he must agree, I think, that to assert that p and to assert that it is true that p mean the same.
Apologies for being late to this party but I was stuck by this. Surely there are no falsehoods without a conscious entity to make them. I.e. truth is the default state of the universe, those truths might be unrevealed without a conscious entity to discern them but they are still there, simply as properties of the universe. However falsehoods can only be brought into being in the imagination because by definition something that is not true does not exist as a fact outside of a consciousness
Which is clearer: "word and object" or "sentence and situation"?
You might say the second is more suggestive of 'fit'. Fair enough. That hardly makes it clearer though.
Quoting Banno
Sure, and hence the relevance of
Quoting Goodman, Of Mind and Other Matters
Whether a word fits an object is a matter of whether an individual use - say, Humpty's - fits or coheres with the general.
I think Ramsey's redundancy is better thought of as (sure I'm quoting here but can't for the life of me find it, so call it a paraphrase) 'there's noting more to asserting "p is true" than there is to asserting "p".
The significance of 'nothing more...' is that it allows for "p is true" in some cases to mean nothing at all (rather than mean the same as "p") Saying 'it doesn't add anything' isn't quite the same as saying 'it means the same'.
Ramsey's position is clever here, I think, because he avoids what he saw as the excess of full redundancy in that 'true' still had a purpose. Using "everything John says is 'true'" as an example. That can't possibly mean the same as {insert everything John says}. It's just that adding "... is true" to each and every thing John actually says, adds nothing. [hide="Reveal"]I actually think, as I said before, that it can add something, but not anything to do with correspondence.[/hide]
I think I'm right in saying that Ramsey still would agree with your broad point, but for him, the question of 'what is truth' cannot be answered without a discussion of belief (which I understand you see as almost unrelated?). Ramsey saw the meat of the matter to be in what saying "p" actually means in the first place.
:up:
Quoting Tom Storm
I can't ignore the anxiety of influence here. If the trend is anti-systematic, then one might try to be more and/or differently anti-systematic. Yet I can't see any escape from a game that is essentially normative. A philosopher projects/offers/markets a [better] way, even if only implicitly through criticism the [opposite of that better] way. If it's not 'just my opinion,' then it binds 'in the name of' some X. From a structuralist perspective, the names don't matter but only the roles. (In short, 'pomo' types are still in the same game, while pretending, sometimes incoherently, to have escaped it by merely renaming things.)
Inspired by some of your other posts, I say it can play a useful expressive role. It's the North on our map. Assume P. Now we can conveniently ignore warrant and take P as a premise recklessly yet safely.
Redundancy suggests this: If an entire community passionate believes P, then P functions as a truth for them, as an automatically allowed premise, so long as that shared, strong belief persists.
What might tempt us toward the ineffable is some darker issue. What is it to assert ? What does it mean for something to be ? This feels Heideggarian, and perhaps there's no light at the end of this tunnel.
Assume 'statements have truthmakers.' What would a truthmaker for that statement look like ?
An illocutionary act with the following conditions:
-Searle, Speech Acts
Quoting Pie
No need for Heidi.
Have you had a look at A nice derangement of epitaphs?
Conventions are post hoc, and there to be broken. Just as there is a way of understanding a rule that is not found in stating it but in implementing it, there is a way of understanding a rule that is seen in breaking it.
All of which points to the primacy of use. It's what we do.
From the contents list for the SEP article:
Which one of these are you proposing? Which is true?
The point, of course, is that since it is far from clear what a truthmaker might be, it is far from clear how they help set out the nature of truth.
So no, I do not acknowledge that statements have truthmakers.
I think it rather the reverse, that questions of belief cannot be answered without a discussion of truth.
If one specifies the conditions under which a sentence is true, one specifies the meaning of that sentence. What more could one want? If one specifies what one believes, one specifies what one takes to be true.
There's good reason to take truth as fundamental here. A Tarski-style rendering will be able to take advantage of first-order predicate logic, setting out the truth of any sentence in terms of the extensional, technical notion of satisfaction.
Truth is as foundational a notion as one might come across, immune to analysis, not capable of being explained in other terms, irreducible.
Weren't you at pains recently to explain that neural nets do not have beliefs? I had taken it that we had reached a general agreement that the intentional language of truth, belief and desire was parallel yet independent of the neurological language of empirical priors and suppressing free-energy...?
I think there's a small but major difference between our claims.
It's correct to say that there are no falsehoods without conscious entities, but that also holds for truths. "Truth", as I argue, is completely observer-dependent. It's incorrect to say "truth is the default state of the universe" because without observers, there is no truth. Rather, existence is the default state of the universe, and whether or not the models we construct correspond to that reality determines truth value.
However, there's an elephant in the room with this argument that brought up, which is what exactly does it mean for the model to "correspond" with reality? As Pie says:
Quoting Pie
My solution to this, and also to answer Pie's general concern of how truth claims seem redundant, is to say that truth doesn't describe reality per se, but instead are constructible within reality. Consider the proposition "the sky is blue". I think Pie would say that our idea that the sky is blue would be true if, in reality, the sky is blue. This is a correspondence of some sort between our mental model and reality, but it isn't clear why the model must be treated separately from the reality; it seems to be redundant.
However, I propose a radical shift in perspective. That is to say, in reality, there is no sky, and there is no blue. The objects we commonly consider like the sky and the color blue are examples of ways we, as observers, carve reality. But these slices we carve aren't necessary, and may not be true in every sense. For example, consider a table viewed from the perspective of an alien species. An alien species isn't necessarily humanoid, nor has the etiquette to dine on such a surface. To most species, a table would prove rather useless. So I ask, would an alien species even consider the concept of a table? Couldn't they go about their lives, their existence even, across generations, and never want or need to build a table? I think so. So, although we may live in the same reality, one where we build and see tables, an alien, even if they saw a person using a table, I argue, wouldn't carve a table into their reality.
I'd argue we can expand this principle to include almost all human conceptions, and we could also apply it to ourselves to say that there could be ways of viewing reality that we would never even think of. And in this world of arbitrary world-slicing, it seems clear that the objects we hold to be "real" aren't necessarily real to all observers. If something isn't real to all observers, how could it be part of reality?
So now we have a conundrum, which is to say we want a statement like "the sky is blue" to be true, because it seems evidently so, but there is no real sky or real blue. If our mental model doesn't correspond to reality, how can such a statement be true? It's because while I do claim our slices of reality aren't reality proper, they are still constructible from the reality that is there. In fact, I'll cut this short and just get to the thesis: Truth isn't what is real, but rather, what observers can construct from what is real. "The sky is blue" isn't true because the sky is blue in reality, because there is no real sky to be blue, but because we can construct something called the sky from observation and determine its blueness again through observation and other reasoning faculties.
Now, there are further ideas to be discussed, such as what reality really is, if our world-slicing mechanism can't determine real things, or how a world without observers is different from just an "ineffable clump", but that's enough words for one post I'd say.
(In hindsight, I may have been repetitive on a couple points and not explained thoroughly why certain things are true, but I'll let others point out what they are.)
You raise some classic points. I take you to be discussing what Davidson calls conceptual schemes. I also connect this to the position I'm abbreviating as 'Kant.'
I think the rhetorical effect, which is substantial, depends on us pretending to be able to jump in and out of our actual 'carving' (as you would call it.) We write a check that we don't know how to cash. The idea of an alien conceptual scheme is baked it seems from only negation. 'Like ours, but not like ours.' Any actual exploration or description of this scheme would only manifest its inclusion in our scheme.
The other idea (the 'Kantian' idea) is that there is some stuff 'behind' all possible conceptual schemes, which functions as there input. Let's say human cognition is [math] f [/math] and alien cognition is [math] g [/math], then humans have the world as [math] f(X) [/math] and aliens as [math] g(X) [/math]. So [math] X [/math] is the hidden input or deep Reality. Personally I think the idea of a conceptual scheme is powerful and justly central. We model other human beings this way, I think, taking many of our beliefs as ground truths and imagining these as the inputs of their models. Note though that we are using already-been-chewed input here. Is this not true on a tribal level too ? So that the [math] X [/math] is questionable ?
Those are reasonable answers, but they don't scratch the itch. I'm sure you've seen this, but ...
Seems like Witt and Heidi both stumbled upon something irreducible.
:up:
Quoting Jerry
This makes truth (the real) a nonlinguistic and ineffable clump, which I think is subject the Hegelian critique above.
Quoting Jerry
:up:
[quote=Sartre]
All at once the veil is torn away, I have understood, I have seen.... The roots of the chestnut tree sank into the ground just beneath my bench. I couldn't remember it was a root anymore. Words had vanished and with them the meaning of things, the ways things are to be used, the feeble points of reference which men have traced on their surface...
It took my breath away. Never, up until these last few days, had I suspected the meaning of "existence." I was like the others, like the ones walking along the seashore, wearing their spring clothes. I said, like them, "The sea is green; that white speck up there is a seagull," but I didn't feel that it existed or that the seagull was an "existing seagull"; usually existence conceals itself. It is there, around us, in us, it is us, you can't say two words without mentioning it, but you can never touch it. When I believed I was thinking about it, I was thinking nothing, my head was empty, or there was just one word in my head, the word "being." Or else I was thinking how can I put it? I was thinking of properties. I was telling myself that the sea belonged to the class of green objects, or that green was one of the qualities of the sea. Even when I looked at things, I was miles from dreaming that they existed: they looked like scenery to me. I picked them up in my hands, they served me as tools, I foresaw their resistance. But that all happened on the surface. If anyone had asked me what existence was, I would have answered in good faith, that it was nothing, simply an empty form added to things from the outside, without changing any thing in their nature. And then all at once, there it was, clear as day: existence had suddenly unveiled itself. It had lost harmless look of an abstract category: it was the dough out of which things were made, this root was kneaded into existence. Or rather the root, the park gates, the bench, the patches of grass, all that had vanished: the diversity of things, their individuality, were only an appearance, a veneer. This veneer had melted, leaving soft, monstrous lumps, in disorder naked, with a frightful and obscene nakedness.
...
Absurdity: another word. I struggle against words; beneath me there I touched the thing. But I wanted to fix the absolute character of this absurdity. A movement, an event in the tiny colored world of men is only relatively absurd in relation to the accompanying circumstances. A madman's ravings, for example, are absurd in relation to the situation in which he is, but not in relation to his own delirium. But a little while ago I made an experiment with the absolute or the absurd. This root there was nothing in relation to which it was absurd. How can I pin it down with words? Absurd: in relation to the stones, the tufts of yellow grass, the dry mud, the tree, the sky, the green benches. Absurd, irreducible; nothing not even a profound, secret delirium of nature could explain it. Obviously I did not know everything, I had not seen the seeds sprout, or the tree grow. But faced with this great wrinkled paw, neither ignorance nor knowledge was important: the world of explanations and reasons is not the world of existence. A circle is not absurd, it is clearly explained by the rotation of the segment of a straight line around one of its extremities. But neither does a circle exist. This root, in contrast, existed in such a way that I could not explain it. Knotty, inert, nameless, it fascinated me, filled my eyes, brought me back unceasingly to its own existence. In vain I repeated, "This is a root" it didn't take hold any more. I saw clearly that you could not pass from its function as a root, as a suction pump, to that, to that hard and thick skin of a sea lion, to this oily, callous; stubborn look. The function explained nothing: it allowed you to understand in general what a root was, but not at all that one there. That root with its color, shape, its congealed movement, was beneath all explanation.
...
But at the heart of this ecstasy, something new had just appeared; I understood the nausea, I possessed it. To tell the truth, I did not formulate my discoveries to myself. But I think it would be easy for me to put them in words now. The essential point is contingency. I mean that by definition existence is not necessity. To exist is simply ... to be there; existences appear, let themselves be encountered, but you can never deduce them. Some people, I think, have understood this. Only they tried to overcome this contingency by inventing a being that was necessary and self-caused. But no necessary being can explain existence: contingency is not a delusion, an appearance which can be dissipated; it is the absolute, and, therefore, perfectly gratuitous. Everything is gratuitous, this park, this city, and myself. When you realize this, your heart turns over and everything begins to float...
[/quote]
https://twren.sites.luc.edu/phil120/ch10/nausea.htm
I gave you reasonable answers, but what you want is unreasonable ones.
I read Nausea cover to cover a few months back. It wasn't a pleasant task. Roquentin wallows in existential angst. But as he concludes, that's his choice...
The trouble, of course, is that I feel the itch too, at least on Tuesdays and Thursdays.
g(X) is true IFF f(X)...
The alien conceptual scheme can only be recognised as a conceptual scheme if there is an interpretation for in in our conceptual scheme. (Davidson...)
No. I don't think they are really questions. I think these pseudo-questions are fascinating and perhaps where philosophy bumps into its repressed past.
Quoting Banno
This is where we diverge, I suppose. The 'dark side' of the analytic leaning is a streak of Officer Barbrady. "Nothing to see here." It's not a rule that we have to avoid anything muddy or awkward. As I keep being told, 'reasonable' makes a normative claim here, implicitly excluding whatever its user would like excluded. I think you realize this, so I'm just pushing back. Philosophy that is only fussy language policing is seriously diminished and is even a parasite on that which it rejects (creative risk). I came to this analytic side late because of a mistaken perception that it purchased respectability at the cost of relevance. The cartoon version is a person afraid to talk about anything that matters, but not afraid to try and shame anyone brave or foolish enough to do so. I do not deny that plenty of earnest nonsense gets spewed on the other side. Complementary.
I think it's wrong to take Nausea (title suggested by the crafty publisher, by the way) as a 'wallowing' book, as if Sartre wasn't having fun with us. It'd be like thinking Bleach or In Utero weren't expressions of ecstasy, just because they played with the ugly.
https://vimeo.com/384672843
:up:
That seems right. If I am extremely vague about the alien conceptual scheme, it's only a negation of my own and basically ineffable. The more I sketch it out, the more I see that it's part of my own already.
But today it is sunny.
Hear, hear to this.
Then you don't get to be deflationary about truth. Which is it?
Indeed, but I must a) still do the translations, and b) more importantly, still believe that what we discover about the brain constrains our metaphysical notions. If we have a metaphysical idea about belief, it must be of use to us (the real us in the real world of brains and neural nets).
So I see two possibilities for defining truth (which it seems - in my ignorance perhaps - that your position falls between the cracks of)
1. What does it mean for us to take something to be true? This is a question of psychology. It's about the psychological notion of belief and that some beliefs seem to have this property of almost full certainty. We act as if they're the case without a plan-B. We are inclined to alter some other belief rather than them if our policy under them is unsuccessful...
Here 'true' is about certainty (not 'true' means 'certain').
2. What the word 'true' means. Here we can talk of propositions and logic, but we must also talk of...
Quoting Pie
... and all the other uses I've raised before.
I don't see a good reason for dropping an analysis of 'truth' founded on a study of the ways it is used.
The third way - defining what 'truth' ought to mean because it would be useful if it did - seems less fruitful than either of the others. I can see some value to it in certain branches of philosophy, perhaps, but also more than a little risk of bewitchment therein.
I don't follow that. But:
Quoting Isaac
"Take something as" as in decide if it is true or not? That''d be a theory of belief, not truth.
Our deciding if something is true, or not, is irrelevant to it's being true. Hence, our beliefs can be wrong.
and
Quoting Pie
Didn't notice that, but clearly it is wrong. If an entire island decides that the way to survive a famine is to erect giant statues...
...truth doesn't care what they believe.
Quoting Isaac
Sure, analyse the pragmatics, how the word is used. I encourage an analysis of belief. Just don't mistake it for an analysis of truth.
It seems you're answering the question "What is truth?" from a position of already holding that truth is not analysable. That's the third position I laid out above, to answer the question, not with any level of analysis at all, but to say what 'truth' ought to be. "It is useful for us to consider 'true' to be unanalysable."
You say "Our deciding if something is true, or not, is irrelevant to it's being true", but the question is not "what things are true?", the question is "what is truth?" I think our deciding if something is true, or not, is very relevant to the question of "what is truth?" because it gives us some understanding of the conditions under which we'd be prepared to use the word.
Quoting Banno
But again, the question is not "what things are true?". @Pie's comment was about the conditions under which a community of language users might use the word 'true'. This gives us insight into what we mean by it. It doesn't tell us which things are true. Exactly the same as an analysis of the meaning of the word 'green' doesn't tell me whether your teacup is green or not.
Quoting Banno
But an analysis of belief wouldn't tell us much about the way the word 'true' is used. An analysis of truth would.
T-sentences do not set out how "truth" ought be used. They set out the way it does functions in logic. SO no, your third position does not apply to T-sentences.
I was puzzled as to why you included it.
We all know full well when it's not true, because we also know full well what it means. Because we know what it means, we know what to look for and where to look in order to check and see.
When it comes to whether or not that particular statement is true...
It does not matter whether or not anyone believes that the cat is on the mat. It does not matter whether or not anyone would assent to the statement. It does not matter whether or not anyone has some disposition and/or attitude such that they take it to be the case.
That particular statement is true only if, only when, and only because the cat is on the mat.
Tarski's T sentence illustrates that beautifully.
That may be the case (I'm not in a position to argue logic with Tarski - though I will say that unless he has universal agreement, then it sets out how Tarski thinks it functions in logic), but saying that how the term functions in logic is how it ought to be used/understood in ordinary use is a normative claim.
If I say to you "It's true that my teacup is on my desk", what am I additionally communicating to you that's not covered by "I really strongly believe my tea cup is on my desk", or "I'm behaving as if my teacup is on my desk and it's working", or "anyone looking at the scene would also believe my teacup is on my desk"?
If it communicates no more information, or serves no distinguishable purpose, then it is interchangeable. If it is interchangeable, then it can be said to mean those things.
Nonsense. This would imply that there's never disagreement. It's abundantly clear that in most cases where the word 'true' is used, we do not "all know full well" at all.
Quoting creativesoul
Beautiful it may well be, but it's simply not how the word is used.
On what authority do you define words for a language community which clearly uses them in defiance of your edict?
Love this.
Nothing.
Of course - that's what the T-sentence says.
"It's true that my teacup is on my desk" IFF my teacup is on my desk.
So not a lot of "normative" value in that, then.
Quoting Isaac
Why?
I think the cat is on the ottoman. It moved there after the sun went off the mat.
Understanding begins to dawn, I think...
Work beckons, but this is good. Thanks.
Well, he gets his whole own section in the SEP article on truth; more than classical correspondence, coherence and pragmatic theories put together....
If one would make sense of philosophical discussions of truth over the last hundred years, it would be best to start with Tarski.
It's another example of how the development of logic after Frege's work gave us a set of tools that enable us to make clear many issues that come from lack of clear expression - the analytic approach to philosophy.
T-sentences are sublimely trivial. That's why they are so powerful.
Take a T-sentence and hold meaning constant by putting the very same expression on both sides...
"p" is true IFF p
...and you have an account of truth.
Take a true T-sentence, where "p" is some proposition and q gives its truth conditions,
"p" is true IFF q
and you have in q exactly what is needed to set out the meaning of p.
Between the two you have an account of the relation between meaning and truth.
It is sublimely trivial.
That claim is not at odds with disagreeing about the claim. The point is that we all know full well what it takes in order for the statement to be true.
To your point, we do not always know when it is. We do quite often though. So, not nonsense at all, just not as clear as it could've been and not properly qualified.
We disagree when one of us believes the cat is on the mat and another does not. We both know full well that if the cat is there then the statement is true. We also both know full well that if the cat is not there, then the statement is false. We must know that much in order to even disagree upon whether or not the statement is true.
Whether or not the statement is true and what it takes in order for it to be so is perfectly well understood by many children under the age of four. My twenty-seven-month-old granddaughter knew full well when she heard someone say there was nothing in the fridge that that was false. She opened the door and showed the speaker their mistake. We all know full well when it's true because we all know full well what it takes in order to be so.
We all know full well that it's true when the cat is on the mat. That's all I was saying.
Mirror mirror...
Pots and kettles...
I'm not defining terms for them. I have no issue at all with acknowledging different accepted uses. You seem a little chippy...
Not all senses of "truth" are on equal footing. Many nowadays use it when they're talking about what they and/or others believe. That's what's going on when someone utters "my truth", "your truth", "his truth", "her truth", "our truth", and/or "their truth". They are referring to belief. That kind of speech is often used to openly attribute respect and value to another's person by virtue of attributing respect and value to another's opinion and/or worldview. People take lots of stuff personally. The same thing is often happening when people say things like "everyone has a valid opinion". It's about showing consideration to others. So, that particular use isn't all bad(like morally unacceptable or anything), but there are much better ways of being considerate to others without sewing and perpetuating such confusion into the public domain.
Not all opinions are valid. Not all belief is true. It is best to keep that in mind.
...and ummmm.... I'm not alone in that, not in the least.
None of these. As I mentioned earlier, my use of the term "truthmaker" did not have the truthmaker theory in view. As far as I can tell, the problem with the truthmaker theory (given in the SEP article) is that it's all about existence; the existence of things, which makes a sentence true. I don't want to restrict whatever makes a sentence true, or whatever leads us to judge a sentence as true (or false), only to existents. If I'm wrong, and truthmakers are not restricted to existents, then I'm unsure how they differ from truth conditions.
Quoting Banno
Since you mentioned it, I can see now that this concept is closer to what I was going for. However, as I mentioned earlier wrt deflationism, I find truth conditions are not inconsistent with the correspondence theory in terms of how they make a sentence true. Is there any theory or explanation as to how truth conditions make a sentence true, or as to how truth conditions are met?
What is "make" doing here? You said it's not causal. We have the logical relation of the IFF in the T-sentence- what more do you want?
If "p" is true IFF p, and "p" is true IFF q, then p and q are the very same thing. I agree that this is very trivial, but it says absolutely nothing useful about the relation between meaning and truth. That is because you've exclude meaning from truth, by reducing truth to a statement of identity, saying that "q" and "p" must signify the very same thing.
Possibly the same thing it's doing in your quote from Davidson, where he refers to "the familiar objects whose antics make our sentences and opinions true or false". I don't think he's using it to mean anything causal. Or is he?
Quoting Banno
I'm asking how we know when truth conditions are met. I'm also asking how this differs from the correspondence theory.
Quoting creativesoul
As written we can't 'all know' full well when it's not true otherwise there'd be no disagreements about that. There are. There are relativists, there are idealists, there are solipsists. They all disagree about what it takes for a proposition to be untrue. So unless some of us are lying... some know, others clearly don't.
I think this goes back to what I said about interchangeability. I gave my list, but others would give a slightly different list. I think I get what you're saying about T-sentences capturing all that, but many would still frame their disagreements as being about the circumstances in which a proposition is true.
Someone might, for example, take the position that "the cat on the mat" is true if and only if a reasonable number of their community agreed. I think they'd be wrong. Or that it can be "true for them". Again, wrong. But what are we to make of the fact that there are people who make such arguments. It seems rather indecorous of us to assume they're lying, or being stubborn. So it seems we've no choice but to concede that some people do not know when "the cat is on the mat" is true.
One of the main differences between Davidson and Wittgenstein is over the idea of social convention, Davidson doesnt believe social conventionalism is a necessary ingredient to successful communication. (And, to be fair this is the way he interprets Wittgenstein, so he believes he is expanding the notion of what it means to communicate. I happen to think this is incorrect, but of course we can go around and around on how Wittgenstein should be interpreted.) Davidson uses intention, and again, this is where he thinks Wittgenstein leads, its a wider form of social agreement for Davidson, which includes what the speaker intends by their utterances. This is Davidsons interpretation of a form of life. However, what do we mean by conventions, if not the very activity derived from social activity, including the idea of rule-following, and the social practices that follow. This, in my opinion, guts Wittgensteins ideas of forms of life.
No, they are referring to truth. If they are understood, then that's what the word means. There's no god-given dictionary, and if there were it's certainly not the one you happen to have in your head. They may not be referring to truth in the sense you mean it, but you are not the authority on what the word 'truth' ought to mean.
We might, when practising some very strict system of thinking (like one of the many branches of logic) have rules in place about what words mean. But these rules are like those of chess. They don't apply to anyone not playing chess. It's a category error to say that people in their ordinary conversations are speaking wrongly because they don't use a word in accordance with the rules set down for it's use in some given mental practice.
The irony. Pots and kettles once again.
I've had many discussions over the years with different people who talk like that. I knew some of them quite personally. I understood them just fine. "Your truth" refers to what that the listener believed to be true. The same holds good with "true for you".
Who has done that?
Suppose p?q. One might phrase this as "p makes q true". No causality is implied.
That's how I read the bit from Davidson you cite.
I don't see any way to proceed. You say "Quoting Luke So you are not talking of any of the accepted truthmaker theories.
Quoting Luke
And again, as in the discussion on this thread with @Isaac, how we know it's true is a very different question to what it means for it to be true. It's the difference between the cat being on the mat and our knowing that the cat is on the mat. Thy are not the same question.
The sticking point seems to be accepting this distinction between belief and truth.
Quoting Luke
Davidson makes use of correspondence in various places, but in relation to belief rather than truth. T-sentences do not set out a correspondence theory of truth.
You sayQuoting Luke
See Truthmakers in the Sep article on truth. I(t makes it clear that the theory of truthmakers is what you are rejecting, that "there must be a thing that makes each truth true". As that short section makes clear, the rejection of truthmakers amounts to the rejection of correspondence. Riffing on that, the attempt to introduce truthmakers into the discussion was a fraught attempt to reinvigorate correspondence theories of truth.
So as I said, I've no clear notion of how to proceed in this discussion.
OK, just to be clear, I am adopting a particular grammar here. It's I think a grammar that is common to all philosophical thinking. It is to be seen as a cleaning up of the ambiguities found in common conversations concerning belief and truth.
Truth is a unary. T(p) is a general representation of the statements, propositions, sentences, facts, or whatever you will, that we cast as true: "p is true"
Belief is binary. B(x,p) is a general representation of the statements, propositions, sentences, facts, or whatever you will, p, that we cast as being believed by x. "x holds that p is true"
I'm a bit surprised to find myself explaining this. I would not have thought is contentious.
Belief and truth are different.
Quoting Banno
I'm not entirely sure if it is the case that conceptual schemes must be interpretable between them, other than through their construction of reality.
How would one recognise that one was looking at an alien's conceptual scheme, unless one has at least partially interpreted it? To recognise it as a conceptual scheme is give it an interpretation.
I find it quite telling that a twenty-seven-month-old child knows when "there's nothing in the fridge" is false, and so many 'highly educated' adults seem to have somehow talked themselves right out of it.
:brow:
Insincerity pervades everyday discourse, I find it highly suspicious for anyone who knows what "the cat is on the mat" means to deny that it is true only if, only when, and only because the cat is on the mat. If they have never ever thought about what sorts of things can be true and what it takes in order for them to be so, then we have an interesting case.
Upon what grounds would anyone deny that the statement "the cat is on the mat" is true only if, only when, and only because the cat is on the mat?
A twenty-seven-month-old child put her knowledge of when a statement is false on display for all to see. She was told "there's nothing in the fridge". She knew better. She uttered a toddler sized version of "Yes there is!" when she said "uh, huh!" as she opened the door to show the speaker that they were wrong! She pointed to things inside and said, "Ders dat, nnn dat, nnn dat...
She knows when "there's nothing in the fridge" is false.
I see no possible way for anyone to even be able to arrive at any philosophical position without already knowing at least as much as a child who's barely stringing two or three words together.
No need to assume that they're lying... They could be very confused about what sorts of things can be true and what it takes in order for them to be so.
Perhaps Davidson thought translation from one linguistic community to another was unproblematic because he understood perception as a merely causal prompting of discursive judgment in thought and talk. Assuming perception to be non-conceptual, he may have assumed, as Kuhn remarked about Quine, that two men receiving the same stimulus must have the same sensation and therefore has little to say about the extent to which a translator must be able to describe the world to which the language being translated applies.
That one recognizes something doesnt necessarily mean that one already has a scheme ready-made for it, the same scheme that it was produced within. One can transform the nature of ones interpretive framework such as to accommodate what may at first appear incoherent.
And my saying that "p makes q true" needn't commit me to a causal implication either.
Quoting Banno
Yes, as I've explained more than once, I was using the term "truthmaker" only as an expedient for whatever makes a sentence true. As I also stated in a recent post, the concept of truth conditions is closer to what I was aiming for when I used the term "truthmaker" earlier.
Quoting Banno
Thanks for the link. Section 6 of the article discusses my point and answers the questions I've been raising here. Specifically:
EDIT: I think I understand the difference now, although I find the deflationary theory lacks the connection with (or "content" of) the world that I normally associate with the use of the word "truth".
:up:
I don't think anyone is claiming truth and belief are the same (nor can I really see any cause to think they might be). When people say something like "my truth, your truth", or some such, they are treating truth as a property of beliefs. They may still be confused in doing so, but if you have such an argument to make, then at least address the error. They are not simply saying belief and truth are the same thing.
"My truth" can refer to the collection of beliefs of mine which I am virtually certain of, as opposed to those about which I remain unsure. Again, this may be completely muddle-headed, but it is not simply assuming belief and truth are the same thing so requires a better counter-argument than simply pointing out why they're not.
I can see the philosophical merit in restricting truth to a property of propositions. I can also see the philosophical merit in a T-sentence definition of what it means for a proposition to be true in these terms. I think it clears up a lot of confusion - particularly the reification of truth.
But people do successfully use the word truth other ways. They communicate felicitously with 'true' as a mere emphasis of certainty attached to a belief, likewise with 'true' acting as a declaration of trust or faith, likewise with 'true' acting as a standing (more or less) for 'successful' with regards to policy, likewise with 'true' meaning something more like 'any rational person would agree with me here'...
All I'm saying is that people are both wrong/confused about what 'true' means, and people have different (but perfectly successful) uses of 'true'. It's simply not that case to say that 'we all know what true means', or 'we all know when a statement is true' as if everyone with a differing use were just being ornery.
Yet you've not demonstrated that to be the case within the context of this discussion. This discussion is about what 'false' means. "What is truth?". That's the title. Since your granddaughter did not use the word 'false' all you've shown is that she acted in accordance with what you think 'false' means, not that she knows what the word 'false' means.
Notwithstanding that, I find the whole story (whilst endearing) to miss the point completely. Consider if I say "There's nothing in my hat", and some smart-arse replies "False. There's air in your hat!"
Do we really want to say the smart-arse is right? Or would we rather say the smart-arse has misunderstood what I meant by 'nothing' in that context?
You granddaughter, bless her, did not spot a falsehood, but misunderstood the meaning of 'nothing', which any more en-cultured adult would have realised meant 'nothing-for-you', not literally nothing. Other wise almost everybody would be wrong when they say 'nothing' unless they're referring to a vacuum.
The point of all this is that language is not about the literal words we say, we can make mistakes (derangement of epitaphs), we can use the same word to mean several different things, we can be sarcastic, ironic, flattering (all of which involve lies)... and our interlocutors understand our intent and act accordingly.
Unless we're to reify the concept 'truth' to some Platonic form floating in the ether, then is just a word. It does a job and it, like every other word out there, does a different job in different circumstances.
The only analysis of it is the success (or otherwise) of its uses. Everything else is sophistry.
Quoting Banno
For unenlightened, "p is true" means "p is false, but I want you to believe p."
No, this is wrong. A "true" statement is one which expresses an honest judgement. So "p is true" means the statement "p" is what the person making that statement honestly believes. What many in this thread seem to ignore is that "true" and "false" are attributed to judgements. Ignoring this simple feature of truth leads to endless discussion getting nowhere.
I like to keep things as simple as possible. If someone was to read through this thread trying to understand the concept truth, they'd be confused as hell.
I think most of us would agree, maybe I'm wrong, that statements, viz., propositions expressed as beliefs, can be true or false, and these beliefs are separate from facts. A belief is an expression of what someone believes is a fact. Whether a proposition turns out to be true or false, depends on the facts of reality. So, there is a correspondence between true propositions and reality (the facts), and mostly we see this in the way we use propositions in various contexts. This is the way I explain truth to a beginner, and I think most people understand it.
It's a meaningful joke. It is a matter of observation that people who keep emphasising the truth of what they are saying are habitual liars. "Wolf - truly, Wolf, I mean it sincerely. Let me be absolutely clear about that." What one ought to understand is the opposite of what is intended.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
But I say, A false statement is one that expresses a dishonest judgement. So "p is true" means that the person making that statement is presenting themselves as making an honest judgement. which only an habitual liar needs to do. The rest of us always present our honest judgement and the truth of it it 'goes without saying'. That is the redundancy of truth (amongst honest speakers).
Ha! Suspicion of the emphatic, those who have to proclaim they are the truth tellers. I like it. It goes nicely with my suspicion of those who divide the world into the "habitual liar" and the "rest of us" who "always present our honest judgement".
Oh ye of little faith!
Actually, you illustrate the truth of what I am saying, and we can see it happening in society, that there is no trust, no honesty, and no meaning; we are witnessing the collapse of the social world which is the linguistic world. One points it out and is accused of epitomising what one is indicating. :shrugs: and it is a joke: the collapse of society is a joke.
Simple feature...agreed. What would you say if truth and false werent so much attributed to judgements, but ARE themselves judgements?
T-sentences allow us to either assume meaning and explain true, as Tarski does, or to assume truth and explain meaning, as Davidson attempts.
Sure.
As do we all. But what counts as a simple depends on what one is doing.
Oh, I see. We assume the person is speaking honestly, unless the person is known to be dishonest. And the person who knows oneself to be known as dishonest, will apprehend a need to qualify "p" with "is true".
But wouldn't some forms of insecurity, or paranoia, also incline a person to not necessarily assume that the others are being honest. Maybe some type of skeptic is insecure in this way. It would probably do no good to ask another, 'are you telling the truth?', because if the person were lying they wouldn't admit it.
Since it is very common, that for one reason or another, people do not honestly reveal their judgements, and there are also many people who are skeptical about whether or not what is stated represents an honest judgement, there is a need for the concept of "truth" and it is not redundant at all in these common situations.
Quoting Mww
That's a good question. But I think that this is actually what I was trying to avoid. If we make a judgement of true or false, then there must be something which is judged according to those terms. That something being judged, would be judged as having the attribute of true or of false. What I am saying is that this something, which is judged, is itself a judgement. So a judgement of true or false is a judgement of a judgement. It is not the statement itself, or the proposition, which is actually being judged, it is the judgement which produced the statement which is being judged. In the example, "p" is what is said to be true, so "p" represents a judgement which is judged as a true judgement.
I think it is important to understand truth in this way, because this is the way toward understanding why we must allow the law of excluded middle to be violated. When the judgement which is to be judged as true or false has not been made, it is suspended, then the judgement of that judgement is neither true nor false. The judgement has not yet been made, therefore it can be neither true nor false, as in Aristotle's famous example of the possible sea battle tomorrow. This is also the situation alluded to in the title of the thread. Pilate chooses not to judge Jesus, so there is neither truth nor falsity to his judgement concerning Jesus' guilt. He refused to judge what what was said about Jesus, so he neither truly nor falsely judged Jesus.
The fridge had stuff in it. Someone stated, "there's nothing in there", talking about the fridge. The statement was false. The child knew that the statement was false. She demonstrated that much.
:brow:
That's where you've staked your claims, as well as your objections, I suppose. You're not very good at providing valid objections. Just sayin'...
Quoting Michael
Quoting Michael
Why? To me all it entails or suggests is that for every actuality a true corresponding proposition can be formulated.
I lost sight of it myself. What got me into the discussion was @Pie's position as stated in the OP:
Quoting Pie
I have difficulty accepting that if a proposition is true, then the proposition is then identical with the fact that the proposition describes. So, for example, if "snow is white" is true, then the linguistic proposition somehow becomes the worldly fact that snow is white.
The SEP article on Truth that you linked to supports that this is the deflationary view:
I don't see how it can be true that snow is white if "snow" does not refer to the worldly soft white bits of frozen water that fall from the sky in cold weather.
Understood, and here is an assertorial judgement, insofar as p is true affords none other than an affirmation.
I wont agree p represents a judgement, but even without that, p is true, does, so the feature of truth residing in judgement, holds.
Do you agree, or am I missing something?
We have that substantial accounts of truth - I'm understanding this as at least correspondence theories - have an alternative to Tarski's T-sentence:
where p is a set of truth conditions and a is the "actual world", what ever that is.
This removes the disquotation in Tarski's T-sentence.
In opposition to this, the right hand side of A T-sentence is being used, it's where the spinning wheel of the T-sentence hits the bitumen of the world.
The T-sentence is preferable to the "a ? p" sentence for this reason.
It seems to me to be the difference between setting the rule out, "a ? p", and actually implementing the rule.
As I see it, 'snow is white' expresses a belief. If true, that belief is a fact.
If possible, it'd be great to make due with just the string of words and the meaning of the string of words. The meaning of the string of words is the world (or part of it rather.)
The meanings of true assertions just are the world.
To imagine a true statement becoming false is to imagine a different world.
In case it's helpful or just a fun thing to talk about, we can switch to a related theme. How does the acolyte understand the guru ? Or a mediocrity a genius ? How does an inferior mind conceptualize a superior mind ? To believe that the guru or genius possessed something hidden from me in the first place, I'd have to recognize at least the usual sapience. But how can I recognize sapience except in terms of my own conceptual scheme ? Presumably I need to project goals and clever solutions, ones that I could understand as such, in order to see intelligible life as such.
Hold on, sir. You misleadingly quote me, removing a vital conditional phrase. I'm not saying it was intentional or nefarious, just setting the record straight.
Quoting Pie
From the 'inside,' a strong belief functions as a truth...until, perhaps, disaster strikes. That's why they are dangerous.
Why wouldn't 'snow' refer that way ? Isn't what you say about snow true ?
:up:
Indeed. I'd just include it among other worthwhile inquiries.
That's not necessarily the case. "P is true" represents a judgement, but the truth or falsity of that judgement is not a feature of that particular judgement. That's why I explicitly said that truth is what is attributed to judgements. And this does not imply that the property which is attributed, necessarily inheres within the thing it is attributed to. So for example, "the grass is green" represents a judgement in which the colour green is attributed to the grass, as a property. What makes that judgement true (honest), is the judgement's relation to other judgements. Therefore truth is not a feature within the judgement itself, just like a property is not a feature within the thing itself, which is claimed to have that property.
Quoting Pie
Is there a same empirical world that different languages link up to, placing a barrier to conceptual relativism by assuring translatability?( Davidsons argument as I understand it).
Good question, intricate issue. Disclaimers: I haven't studied Davidson directly (just mostly read Rorty's use him, and I'm not eager to add the adjective 'empirical.'
Assume there is no such 'same' empirical world. What are you imaging this assertion to be 'about' ? (To be part of...) Your world or ours ? Do you imagine this hypothetical truth applying to aliens too?
I claimed in another thread that the minimum rational epistemic commitment is a plurality of persons subject to the same logic/concepts/language and together in a world that they can be right or wrong about (equiprimoridal trinity). The argument for this trifold 'given' is that its negation, if binding, depends on what it would deny. I understand 'world' here as maximally unspecified, synonymous our situation, the one we talk about with one another...as whatever happens to be true.
Is it safe to assume that Davidson is right or wrong about our world ? (I'd include ambiguous and incoherent as two more categories for statements. With irony, we could get all sorts of complicated blends, suggestive and possibility undecidable.
Are you tempted to say that we all live in different worlds ? But, if you were to say that, wouldn't you somehow talking about my world, while claiming to be stuck in your own ?
One issue to consider here is what we could mean by an alien conceptual scheme without having already made sense of it to some degree in terms of our own. We don't want to write checks we can't cash, like a pure fetishized otherness which is semantically nothing but a negation of everything intelligible.
[quote = Wittgenstein]
The world is all that is the case.
The world is the totality of facts, not of things.
The world is determined by the facts, and by their being all the facts.
For the totality of facts determines what is the case, and also whatever is not the case.
The facts in logical space are the world.
[/quote]
This is green, but let's try.
Beliefs articulate the world's possibilities.
True beliefs are the world's actuality.
Much of our language has developed so that we can talk about things like beliefs and logic and truth.
That various beliefs exist in the world is a fact, without of course (all of) those beliefs being facts themselves.
Possibility is greater than actuality in the sense that, for us, we exist primarily in the first...in what might happen, in ways the past might be interpreted. 'Truth' seems useful like North on a compass. If P, then Q seems to aim at the truth of P, not just our belief in it.
I would say that we all live differently in the one world. My world is not your world or anyone else's world but it is, like everyone else's world, part of the world. The salient point is, that common world is not something we ever experience, but is a formal stipulation based on resemblance and memory.
To understand this, think about the fact that we never perceive a whole object, we only perceive impressions or images, the continuity and resemblance of which lead the rational intellect to posit the object as the (transcendent) origin of the impressions,
:up:
Quoting Janus
Quoting Janus
It's only when we theorize and slow down that we infer that we must be 'automatically' synthesizing objects from light hitting our retina, but surely our sense organs, along with the rest of us, take their own unique tours through this world.
Inquiring into our individual ideas of the shared world does make sense to me, but I don't think one can reduce the shared world very much trouble. Consider the claim that the common world is 'a formal stipulation based on resemblance and memory.' Isn't this claim itself, according to itself,a part of 'a formal stipulation based on resemblance and memory' ?
If you just mean our visual image of the world, so that metaphysical statements aren't self-referential, that makes more sense. My hunch is that the visual imagination is what makes the correspondence theory of truth attractive. One lays eyes and hands on the plums in the icebox, confirming 'there are plums in icebox.' Perhaps the same thing is happening here ? It seems to me that our conceptuality is mostly automatically public. We talk about the couch not my view on it (unless that view becomes relevant...and, since we have the words for it already , it sometimes has been.)
My apologies. I was uncritically following .
Right, I think per-linguistically things are more or less familiar to us as "affordances" of one kind or another. They already disclose themselves prior to our naming of them. Birds recognize trees as things to perch in, for example. But the idea of the tree as "whole object" is what I referred to as a "formal stipulation" whose rational identity is contingent upon the fact that we have named it 'tree', and most specifically "that tree".
Quoting Pie
Right, prior to any conceptualization such that the common world and its objects are "formal stipulations" we always already all recognize things because of the commonality of our images and impressions with our own at other times and from other directions and with those of others, as manifested in our agreement of speech and action.
But I would argue that once we have consciously conceived the world in terms of individual entities that are the whole unities that are the origins of our images and impressions, we have already mad the formal stipulation, and we easily and naturally reify that as mind-independent objects, without being conscious of our acts of hypostasis.
Quoting Pie
It seems that it is mostly on account of visual experience that we conceive of a world of real objects that correspond to our images and impressions, and constitute the states of affairs that render our propositions true or false.
According to the SEP, Tarski is not a deflationist:
Quoting SEP article on Deflationism About Truth
As I understand it, nothing in the deflationist's theory of truth "hits the bitumen of the world". (Also, do you mean the "actual world"?) It might be worth summarising section 6.1 on truth bearers firstly:
However, as I have quoted more than once regarding the deflationary theory:
Quoting SEP article on Truth
I take this to mean that truth is unrelated to the meaning of a truth bearer, such as a statement, proposition or belief.
The same section also notes that:
I take this to mean that, according to the deflationary theory, the content of a truth bearer is unrelated to truth conditions; that is, the left hand side of a T sentence is unrelated to the right hand side. Or, in other words, the meaning of a sentence is unrelated to the facts of the world.
I disagree. If "the meaning of a word is its use in the language" for a large class of cases, then the same or similar can probably be said for the meaning of a sentence. I note that there are many parts of the world that cannot be used in the language, and that language typically involves the use mostly of words and gestures, and not things like asteroids, chairs or lakes. Sticks and stones may break my bones...
Yes, it's true that snow is white for the correspondence theorist due to the facts of the world. I'm not sure for what reason a deflationist would say that "snow is white" is true; it's not because of any facts of the matter. As I have repeatedly asked: what would make that statement true? Or, how would the truth conditions for that statement be met? According to the SEP article, truth is independent of the meaning of the statement and "deflationists cannot really hold a truth-conditional view of content at all."
I showed why in that post.
q ? the proposition that p
T(q) ? q is true
1. T(q) ? p
2. T(q) ? ?x(x=q)
3. p ? ?x(x=q)
4. ¬T(q) ? ¬p
5. ¬T(q) ? ?x(x=q)
6. ¬p ? ?x(x=q)
7. ?x(x=q)
In ordinary English:
1. the proposition that p is true if and only if p
2. if the proposition that p is true then the proposition that p exists
3. if p then the proposition that p exists (from 1 and 2)
4. the proposition that p is false if and only if not p (from 1)
5. if the proposition that p is false then the proposition that p exists
6. if not p then the proposition that p exists (from 4 and 5)
7. the proposition that p exists (from 3 and 6)
If that's a problem then we can simply rephrase the T-schema as saying something like if the proposition "p" exists then "p" is true iff p, and so the T-schema will say nothing about states of affairs that aren't talked about.
To expand further on this, the deflationary theory says that the meaning of a true sentence is just a fact of the world. Or, as @Pie says:
Quoting Pie
If so, then no distinction can be drawn between the two sides of a deflationist's T sentence. Hence:
1. A statement ("p") is true iff a statement ("p"); or
2. A fact of the world (p) is true iff a fact of the world (p).
These both mean the same thing according to the deflationary theory, as it draws no distinction between statements (or their meanings) and facts of the world. The problem with this is:
1 is unrelated to the world, provides no information about the world, and has no truth conditions; and
2 is non-linguistic, is not a truth bearer (e.g. a proposition), and does not have a truth value.
The deflationist cannot have statements/beliefs on one side as distinct from the world on the other side without committing themselves to a non-deflationary theory of truth.
Quoting SEP article on Truth
What do you surmise the Wittgenstein of PI was trying to get away from with regard to concepts like belief, truth and logic as he is using them in the Tractatus? I suggest he was not merely showing how instances of the use of these concepts reveal unique senses of meaning within the categories of truth and belief. Rather, he was trying to get us to see that the general categories that would be called truth and belief are not themselves stably fixed by their relation to the facts of an empirical world. If there are no independent facts of the world to fix our concepts to, them concepts liken pragmatic relevance, consistency, anticipatory compatibility and coherence replace true and false belief as expressions of how we cope with our world. This is self-creation rather than a fitting of language with fact.
Quoting Luke
Is that a fact about the world ? But it's 'just' concepts right ?
Note that there's a difference between the string-of-letters 'stone' and the concept of a stone (the meaning of 'stone'.)
A deflationist would talk about beliefs. A history of the development of the concepts and snow could be presented. What kinds of light/objects tends to get called 'white' could be discussed. From a deflationist point of view, your are dragging in way too much metaphysical baggage. 'True' has a use in the language. It's expressive. To take an assertion for true is, among other things, to allow it as the premise in any inference whatsoever. I think this is in implicit in if P then Q. 'If P is true, then we can be sure that Q is true.'
To me the terminology is not that important. I would like us to do more with less, so I am defending an approach that uses the string-of-words (signifier) on one side and the worldly meaning (signified object-concept) of that string on the other. I imagine that other tempting choice would use three parts, like the signifier, the signified-as-concept, and the signified-as-worldly-object.
This would be 'snow is white,' the concept of the whiteness of snow, and the 'actual' (visual?) whiteness of snow.
I think Robert Brandom does a good job of adding meat to the bones of 'meaning is use.' We perform concepts. Rather than concepts gripping the world directly, an inferentialist (following Kant) takes judgments to be the minimal units that individuals can be responsible for. "I took off my boots in the snow because I like my toes warm" does not make sense. "He had a bad teeth,so he ate lots of sugary food." Again, confusion, lack of skill with English. Their norms that govern intelligibly. These aren't the kind that get you shamed if broken but just misunderstood. On top of these norms (one kind fading into another) we have those for coherence and relevance, etc. Meaning is tribal property, but it's constantly being tweaked by individual invention that catches on.
:up:
Does it make sense to take as a fact that there are no independent facts of the world to fix our concepts to ? Seemingly not, right ? And this approach itself would have to be established and defended in terms of the very pragmatic relevance it would institute as a replacement for truth.
Quoting Joshs
Wittgenstein's intentions aside, I'm skeptical myself about the 'empirical' world stabilizing metacognitive concepts like 'belief' and 'truth.' I suggest that 'true' plays a role like 0 or 1 or North. 'Belief' looks intimately related to the 'seems' operator. I doubt humans will stop needing 'seems', 'believe', 'supposed', and synonyms to make sense of one another.
I don't think we can peel language off the world to see it 'naked.' This is the classic uncashable check, cousin of the idea of an alien conceptual scheme that's utterly difference than ours.
Wittgenstein on the relation between facts and concepts:
From PI II (PPF)
From Zettel :
From On Certainty:
If we took such a thought as a fact , that is , as an identically reproducible idea, then it would merely be a shift from the realist to the idealist side of a metaphysical trope. If instead of a formal fact , we were to take no independent facts of the world as a performative act arising from within the midst of contextual sense-making, obliged to re-validate itself the same differently in each new contextual instantiation of its use, then we would have a way of thinking and talking about what happens to notions like truth and belief when they are examined from a radically contextual vantage.
Quoting Pie
Husserl argued that there is no veil between subject and world. What appears to us, in the mode that it appears to us, is not a proxy or representation of something independent of what directly appears, but is the thing in itself ( whether imagined, perceived, remembered). From this vantage, what seems to be, what we believe or suppose , is just one way of talking about different sorts of direct experiences.
If we abandoned the assumptions of correspondence or coherence with a real outside in favor of notions of enaction and construction of a world , would we change our vocabulary? I think so. It is already happening in certain quarters of philosophy , where truth and belief are no longer considered particularly interesting or significant aspects of how humans interact.
I can relate to the ideas like the coherent version relativism, which might be described as absolute pragmatism. It's all 'just' speech acts, suggestions, co-creation rather than co-discovery. The only deep problem with this that I can make out is its utter lack of authority. As soon as one wants to bind others in terms of what they ought to believe, one is in a normative space. From a structuralist perspective, something is going to play the role of [what's-better-to-believe] and something else is going to name [the-reason-why-it's-better.] This role is more important in my view that all the different names we might have for it. This is Stirner's implicitly structuralist X (the 'holy' or the 'sacred.')
'It's just my opinion that everything is just our opinion.'
'Good for you! Next, please.'
'We don't discover but make reality together.'
'Well...I don't want to make that version of reality with you, the version where we make rather than find it. Next, please.'
Husserl has its virtues, but my non-Husserl-expert impression is that he's too Cartesian.
--God is real. He talked to me last night.
--No, he didn't. Take these pills, sir.
Is it not safely taken for granted that individual humans have incompatible beliefs? So that not all of them can be right ?
Husserl asserts there is no veil between subject and world.
Duffenhaur asserts clearly there is such a veil.
By Husserl's light, Duffenhaur must be right, so that Husserl must be wrong, so that maybe Duffenhauer is not right after all, so that maybe Husserl is right after all, and so on.
The minimal concept of the world is something we can be wrong about.
Or am I wrong to say so ?
That actuality in its 'nudity' is hard to make sense of. The actuality of the cat being on the mat is that the cat is on the mat. Redundant, it seems to me.
Folks might use their visual imagination and 'see' the cat on the mat as the 'real thing.' But this makes the truthmaker inaccesibly private and implicitly visual.
What one creates or co-creates in language implicates and is reciprocally dependent on material changes in ones world. The feedback from those material
changes produces new discovery in language. Invention and discovery are two sides of the same coin, since we construct the world that talks back to us , and offers constrains and affordances in accord with how we construct it. We co-inhabit the partially shared construction we call a space of reasons, within which we invent, discover, agree and disagree.
[quote = Stirner]
You have spirit, for you have thoughts. What are your thoughts? "Spiritual entities." Not things, then? "No, but the spirit of things, the main point in all things, the inmost in them, theiridea." Consequently what you think is not only your thought?[Pg 45] "On the contrary, it is that in the world which is most real, that which is properly to be called true; it is the truth itself; if I only think truly, I think the truth. I may, to be sure, err with regard to the truth, and fail to recognize it; but, if I recognize truly, the object of my cognition is the truth."
[/quote]
https://www.gutenberg.org/files/34580/34580-h/34580-h.htm#Page_3
As Marx and even Hegel point out, Stirner's ego is itself a spook. But understanding Stirner's ego as the group ego is one way to understand objective idealism. There's nothing outside or above us. Our beliefs just are (the intelligible structure of) reality for us, while we hold them. We are godless or just gods to ourselves. We reject the irrational as unreal, and we beat the real into rational shape. This is according to rationality as we know it so far, for rationality is part of the world that it updates and controls. (In fact, though, many humans evade this terrible freedom and cling to notions of a skydaddy.)
So do you believe in a thing-in-itself (atoms and void) or just a relatively 'material' side of a continuum ?
We co-inhabit (only) the shared part. But I think that's what you meant. It's that unshared part that makes the seems operator useful. We are constantly developing the shared part, working towards consensus.
Is Heidegger also too Cartesian? He rejected truth as correctness in favor of truth as whatever discloses itself to Dasein.
Quoting Pie
Why do beliefs have to be right or wrong? Why cant different ways of making sense of ones world be valid and useful in different ways, as different sorts of niches?
Much of the progress of science consists not in correcting wrong theories from the past , but in producing concepts in areas where they were no concept
at all . Perhaps one can find ones way through supposedly incompatible beliefs by further articulating ones own approach such that it is capable of subsuming alternative beliefs?
I am attracted to naturalistic models that dont cut corners , either by reifying materiality through reductive physicalism , or by making the manifest image of conceptualization unaccountable to the empirical world.
This is a naturalism in which normativity plays an essential role even outside of its connection to a human subject.
:up:
Me too.
How's this ? What we believe just is reality for us,... and what you believe just is reality for you. We construct what we believe from sifting and rejecting or assimilating individual's claims.
To me Husserl seems too individualistic. His later stuff seems to react to Heidegger's critique and give sociality its due.
[quote = Husserl]
In whatever way we may be conscious of the world as universal horizon, as coherent universe of existing objects, we, each "I-the-man" and all of us together, belong to the world as living with one another in the world; and the world is our world, valid for our consciousness as existing precisely through this 'living together.' We, as living in wakeful world-consciousness, are constantly active on the basis of our passive having of the world... Obviously this is true not only for me, the individual ego; rather we, in living together, have the world pre-given in this together, belong, the world as world for all, pre-given with this ontic meaning... The we-subjectivity... is constantly functioning.
[/quote]
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lifeworld
Husserl seems to be gesturing at the same 'pregiven' shared situation or primordial we-world that I'm calling the minimally specified world.
Quoting Pie
The actuality that corresponds to "the cat is on the mat" is the cat being on the mat. This is exactly the logic of the T-sentence. Or Aristotle's formulation: To say of what is that it is not, or of what is not that it is, is false, while to say of what is that it is, and of what is not that it is not, is true.
Both express the logic of correspondence, the logic of common usage; it is basic, what more do we need? There is no need to complicate matters, when it comes to something even children easily understand, it seems to me.
Quoting Joshs
I believe that Heidegger accepted the correspondence account, only he didn't understand it as being primary insofar as it only comes into play after the truth as disclosure has done its work. I see truth as disclosure as actuality, that is as what acts (on us). I think Heidegger rejected the idea that correspondence could be theory in any metaphysical sense, and acknowledged it as being merely an account of the common understanding of propositional truth. But this is from long memory of having studied Heidegger about 15 years ago, and I don't have a ready reference for it.
To me that's just the redundancy theory, which I embrace. I attribute this to Aristotle, or I think his formulation works with the redundancy approach just fine. My motive is also the same. Keep it clean and simple. The meaning of a true assertion just is (a part of) the world.
I take the CT, rightly or wrongly, to postulate something that 'makes' the meaning of the assertion true, something that the meaning 'gets right.' In other words, I take the CT to postulate some nonsemantic stuff that 'agrees' with the semantic payload.
Note that we don't want a string of words to correspond to cat-on-the-mat-ness. So even 'correspond' is too much machinery here and only makes a mess.
The meaning of 'P' is P. If 'P' is true, then P is the case, and P is a piece of the world.
Sure.
Quoting Luke
Sure, on that account the meaningfulness of truth-bearers has nothing to do with truth. As I have said several times, T-sentences allow us to either assume meaning and explain truth, or to assume truth and explain meaning.
So of course it is assumed that ("p" is true) means the same as (p).
Quoting Luke
What an odd conclusion. The relation between them is truth-functional equivalence: ?
The article is just making the point that is would be circular for deflationary theories to use T-sentences to both define truth and to define meaning.
Or in other words, deflation cannot make use of truth conditions to define truth.
The right hand side of the t-sentence is being used, not talked about. It shows what makes the left side true.
See 4.9.
Perhaps it would be most accurate to say that deflationary theories remain incomplete, but offer a better account that any other theories.
:up:
I agree, and I value Popper for emphasizing this. Creativity is central. We grow our shared beliefs, our best guess at the truth.
Sure. One understanding of Hegel is that individuals and cultures progress in response to contradictions that appear in the concepts they continually make more explicit by using. Probably not 'subject' (thing that aims at coherence of beliefs), either private or communal, is ever safely free of contradictions. Instead it takes time (or even 'is' Time) for contradictions or conceptual incompatibilities to become manifest and fixed. Such fixes themselves reveal flaws. The system swells as it falls forward. (We walk by delaying a forward fall.)
I don't understand the correspondence to be anything more than an association we all make between what we say and what we experience. For me it creates no "mess" unless we try to metaphysicalize it into theory involving reifications such as "truthmakers".
Your position is unclear to me. I understand the deflationary theory to be opposed to and different than (and simpler and cleaner than ) the correspondence theory.
Some versions of the CT look deflationary to me, so the beef may often/largely be merely terminological.
The thing on the right is a fact. And the whole is true.
The thing on the right is a sentence. And the whole ill-formed.
Now, where in any of this does a sentence correspond to a fact?
What might that correspondence be?
It consists simply in our association of the sentence "the cat is on the mat" with the cat being on the mat. We wouldn't be able to talk about anything if what we say did not correspond with (in the sense of being associated with or picturing) what we experience. This is basic.
And what is that association?
Here's my answer: that the cat is on the mat is a use of the sentence "the cat is on the mat". We have, not an association between two differing things, but two ways of making use of the very same thing.
:That the cat is on the mat", sure, but not the cat being on the mat.The cat being on the mat is not a use of a sentence, but something we see or imagine. I could draw or paint it instead of speaking about it, "The cat is on the mat" is a symbolic expression, or representation of that seeing or imagining, and the two are thus associated, although not in any absolute or essential sense, but just because we do associate them
Are we to understand the string of words as a 'picture' ? Do we really need this metaphor ?
I can see why it's tempting. We are such visual creatures that we use visual metaphors for grasping meaning.
:up:
If that's someone means by the CT, then I'd put them in my camp. But my impression is that usually an intermediate something is involved, not just a true sentence and a reality-meaning of that true sentence.
When I read a novel, for example, the events depicted, the landscapes, architecture and people described are pictured by me, and it becomes a world I am immersed in (if it's a good novel). When I read "the cat is on the mat" I picture a cat on a mat. It's a kind of generic picture, to be sure, more detail could be added; is the cat tortoise-shell or ginger? Each of those words will evoke a different picture. How big is the cat? And the mat? What colour is the mat,? Is it outside or in a room? What colour are the walls of the room? Or if outside, is it sunny or raining? And so on.
And so the correspondence theory intersperses a "picture", a conceptual scheme, between the cat being on the mat and the cat being on the mat...
Also, as I said earlier, I agree with Heidegger that there is no correspondence "theory"; correspondence is just an account of how we generally think about the relationship between sentences and events, places and people; real or imagined.
The cat isn't on the mat if someone pictures it to be on the mat. It is on the mat if it is on the mat.
I don't see what that has to do with it. What relevance would the cat on the mat be if no one sees it or imagines it? If no one saw or imagined a cat on the mat then no one would say anything about a cat on the mat, and we wouldn't need to consider the relationship between saying and seeing/imagining, would we?
Let's call you a correspondence theorist, then.
Quoting Pie
But truth bearers are already meaningful. You are now creating further issues by drawing a distinction between a truth bearer without meaning (i.e. string-of-words) and a truth bearer with meaning. What I was formerly arguing against was that a meaningful truth bearer (e.g. "snow is white") is identical with what it signifies (worldly white snow).
If you want to draw a distinction between a meaningful truth bearer and what it signifies, then this commits you to a non-deflationary theory of truth. Again:
Quoting SEP article on Truth
Your defense of the use of a meaningful, truth apt signifier/truth bearer on one side and a signified worldly object/state of affairs on the other side links truth value to truth conditions. According to the quote above, this means you have a non-deflationary theory of truth.
Fair enough. But that's not the intention of 'te cat is on the mat.' Because we can say 'I am picturing a cat on the mat just now." We reveal the world to one another in our true claims.
I'm not understanding what you're saying here; can you explain further?
The relation between subjectivity and intersubjectivity gets complicated for Husserl. He never seems to give up the insistence on the primacy for me of my subjective vantage on the intersubjective world The world for all of us is a world constituted through my own subjectivity, which cannot be bypassed. This world for us', from one to the other to the other, is constituted within MY(the primal me) subjective process as MY privileged apperception of from one to the other to the other'.
...one of the main tasks of pure intentional psychology is to make understandable, by way of the progressive reduction of world-validity, the subjective and pure function through which the world as the "world for us all" is a world for all from mythe ego'svantage point, with whatever particular content it may have. ...(Crisis, p.256)
The epoche creates a unique sort of philosophical solitude which is the fundamental methodical requirement for a truly radical philosophy. In this solitude I am not a single individual who has somehow willfully cut himself off from the society of mankind, perhaps even for theoretical reasons, or who is cut off by accident, as in a shipwreck, but who nevertheless knows that he still belongs to that society. I am not an ego, who still has his you, his we, his total community of co-subjects in natural validity. All of mankind, and the whole distinction and ordering of the personal pronouns, has become a phenomenon within my epoche; and so has the privilege of I-the- man among other men. (Crisis, p.184)
...it was wrong, methodically, to jump immediately into transcendental inter-subjectivity and to leap over the primal "I,"the ego of my epoche, which can never lose its uniqueness and personal indeclinability. It is only an apparent contradiction to this that the egothrough a particular constitutive accomplishment of its ownmakes itself declinable, for itself, transcendentally; that, starting from itself and in itself, it constitutes transcendental intersubjectivity, to which it then adds itself as a merely privileged member, namely, as "I" among the transcendental others. This is what philosophical self-exposition in the epoche actually teaches us. It can show how the always singular I, in the original constituting life proceeding within it, constitutes a first sphere of objects, the "primordial" sphere; how it then, starting from this, in a motivated fashion, performs a constitutive accomplishment through which an intentional modification of itself and its primordiality achieves ontic validity under the title of "alien-perception," perception of others, of another "I" who is for himself an I as I am. (Crisis, p.185)
It's true (or false) regardless of being seen or imagined.
I wouldn't mind, except the dominant version seems to include too much machinery.
Quoting Luke
It's just the use/mention distinction. To mention P, I put it in quotes. To use it, I don't put it in quotes.
My theory, which looks deflationist and minimal to me, is that there is just 'P' and P, mention and use. If 'P' is true, then P is the case and P is (a part of) the world.
Granting the truth of 'P', I suppose that one could call the mention of P a picture of the use of P.
That is the sense I can make of correspondence.
But note that @Janus is mentioning the visual imagination, which seems connected to a third thing (an imagining of P or something) that's not use and mention as described above. I take some CT proponents to use three parts in their explanatory machine, where I want to use exactly two.
If I tell you that there are plums in the icebox, I'm talking about those plums in that icebox. I'm not foregrounded my imagination or my motives for passing on the news. 'Phenomenologically' there's no detour through my visual imagination (not, I mean, in my semantic intentions.) The meaning of the assertion is worldly, directly revealing our shared situation. A rational reconstruction might include your motives, what you pictured, but this would be semantically secondary, in my view.
Topic slide again.
Truth is not belief - already covered:
Quoting Banno
Further, one chooses between a realist and an antirealist grammar. The best grammar for cats and mats is realist.
I think you are correct.
But I also think that truth plays a role in a structure. Mostly we care about belief, and 'true' seems like a tool for talking about beliefs, perhaps in imagining them as certain, for instance. As Brandom might put it, we've invented words that allow us to talk about our thinking. Humans become self-consciously logical through inventing concepts like inference and truth...which 'only' made explicit what they are already in fact doing.
Okay, but its not part of my argument (https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/730759) at all. I assume that truth bearers are meaningful already. The distinction I am making, and the one I see you and the deflationists as collapsing, is between meaningful truth bearers and the world; between snow is white and the colour of actual snow.
If you know there are plums in the icebox then you've seen them, and in telling me about them when the icebox is closed, you are remembering them being there, which amounts to imagining them. Unless I am there to witness the icebox you are referring to, or have seen it before and can thereby imagine it specifically, then I will only have a generalized picture of an icebox with plums in it.
Quoting Banno Means nothing to me; just sounds vaguely like an insult.
Quoting Banno
As far as I can tell all our "grammar" is realist. If we talk about cats on the mat, or plums in the icebox, we are talking about real cats, mats, plums and iceboxes if we are talking about things actually experienced or having the potential to be actually experienced.
I agree. Belief is one thing, actuality another; which means our beliefs can be wrong. My point is only that our being wrong is irrelevant if there is no possibility of seeing that we were wrong. I think you are trying to point to the ( more general) significance of the possibility that we can be wrong, even when we have no possibility of seeing that we are wrong, and I acknowledge that general fact is important, to be sure, and it is what underpins the logic of our understanding of truth and meaning; which, as I've said, in my view is basically a logic of correspondence between saying and seeing (and being, with the caveat that in specific instances being is irrelevant if it, or at least its effects, cannot be seen).
But you claimed that one cannot associate a truth value with a proposition unless there is a relationship between the saying and seeing/imagining... an apparently antirealist view.
We care about beliefs because they are the things we take to be true.
How would you know what someone meant when they said "the cat is on the mat" if you did not associate those words with the cat being on the mat? How could you know whether "the cat is on the mat" was true, if you could not check to see if the cat was on the mat?
I'm not saying that a claim, say "there are aliens" cannot be true or false, even if we have no possibility of checking, but that the claim would be meaningless if we would not see or fail to see aliens if we could somehow be where they purportedly are. So truth cannot be, in principle, separated from seeing.
Quoting Banno
Or not to be true. We don't care about them if we cannot possibly see whether they are true or not, though, do we?
That you don't know that it is true does not make it not true...
Quoting Janus
So you have beliefs you think are not true?
And I haven't said it would; in fact I have said that it wouldn't. I was talking about the significance of specific claims that cannot possibly be checked; that is that they have no significance, but I have said that the fact that there are unknowable truths is of general significance.
Quoting Banno
No, do you? But you might have beliefs I don't think are true. Are your own beliefs the only ones you care about?
This discussion might be more interesting if you addressed what I've said and didn't focus on picking me up on trivial points.
Right. But I find this approach to Cartesian. Although we have our own sense organs and nervous systems (which makes this view tempting), I think the 'I' is linguistic and normative and therefore part of the shared tribal software. I guess I side with Heidegger against Husserl here. The 'one' has priority. We are being-in-the-world, being-in-language, being-with-others. We are not I-things that only contingently have a world or a language. I speculate that the 'hard problem' is inspired by wondering at a tautology. It is raining or it is not raining. It's not how the world is but that it is.
:up:
Whatever. You appear to be returning to point that have already been addressed rather than progressing the discussion.
You moved back from what is true to what is understood, relevant, known, believed.
Again, they are not the same.
Cheers.
Well, no, I haven't moved back to anything; I've been saying the same thing all along and only repeating myself to clear up other's misreadings of what I've been saying. But yes, whatever...shall we leave it there?
Are we just not understanding one another ? I admit that I can't grasp what you are saying. I'm trying to experiment with wording to achieve consensus.
'It is true that plums are in the ice box' does basically what 'there are plums in the icebox' does. To call something true is roughly just to endorse it (as if repeating it.) The sting of word 'there are plums in the icebox' means something about the world, something about what's in an icebox. The world just is such truths, already 'mediated' or 'linguistic.' This approach rejects some vague theory of a 'naked' or 'raw' world (things in themselves) as basically empty and useless.
If one assumes P is true, one licenses the inclusion of P as a premise in any inference. This is where 'true' has a useful expressive role that helps us reason about reasoning. I think my position is prosentential.
I could be trusting the word of another. Knowledge is about warranted assertion. If I turn out to be wrong, I can make a case for my right to have made the incorrect claim. For instance, I trusted a trustworthy person.
The path you seem to be going down is too subjective in my view. You are going 'first-person' and invoking uncheckable private experience. I do think it's reasonable to talk about the creation of beliefs in terms of sense-organs and objects that affect them. But that's third-person.
:up:
I think the minimal concept of truth is involved in tracking that possibility of error.
Quoting Janus
:up:
I agree. But I don't think certain pragmatist versions of truth were successful. Warranted does not equal true. What's-most-practical does not equal true. To me this is not so much a metaphysical fact as a fact about grammar. I think we use 'true' in an 'absolute' fashion.
To take P as true is to reason from P as a premise with complete confidence. To take P as true is to forget or rather ignore all doubts about P and explore a possible world. This is one use of 'true' that occurs to me. It could be simplified, as a mathematician might do it, as Assume P.
What do you make of the critique leveled against Heidegger that Daseins own pragmatic concerns have priority over a robust intersubjectivity?
Critics get that impression based on quotes like these in which Heidegger denigrates the one for being an ungenuine, obscuring, closed off mode of discourse.
Publicness does not get to "the heart of the matter," because it is insensitive to every difference of level and genuineness.
Idle talk is the possibility of understanding everything without any previous appropriation of the matter. Idle talk, which everyone can snatch up, not only divests us of the task of genuine understanding, but develops an indifferent intelligibility for which nothing is closed off any longer. Discourse, which belongs to the essential constitution of being of Dasein, and also constitutes its disclosedness, has the possibility of becoming idle talk, and as such of not really keeping being-in-the-world open in an articulated understanding, but of closing it off and covering over inner worldly beings. Ontologically, this means that when Da-sein maintains itself in idle talk, it is-as being-in-the-world-cut off from the primary and primordially genuine relations of being toward the world, toward Mitda-sein, toward being-in itself.
Idle talk conceals simply because of its characteristic failure to address things in an originary way [urspriinglichen Ansprechens]. It obscures the true appearance of the world and the events in it by instituting a dominant view [herrschende Ansicht].Usually and for the most part the ontic mode of being-in (discoverture) is concealment [Verdeckung]. Interpretedness, which is speech encrusted by idle talk, draws any given Dasein into 'one's' way of being. But existence in the 'one' now entails the concealment and marginalization of the genuine self [eigentlichen Selbst]. Not only has each particular given itself over to 'one', 'one' blocks Dasein's access to the state it finds itself in [Befindlichkeit].(Heidegger 2011)
If you are trusting the word of another then I would say you believe there are plums in the icebox, not that you know it. Of course it is all relative to some context or other. If the icebox is shut and you are not looking at the plums then you are trusting your memory; how reliable is it? Did you see the plums in there five minutes ago, or a month ago? If you trust another you trust both their word and their memory.
That is one of the problems I have with knowledge as JTB; how do we know when our beliefs are justified? What are the criteria that must be satisfied for a belief to be counted as justified? It cannot be a precise science, and it would seem there must be degrees. Why do we need to speak in terms of "knowing" at all rather than in terms of more or less certainty or doubt?
First person experience is most checkable by the first person: I think that is unarguable. Most checkable is when I am actually looking at the state of affairs my belief is about; I can hardly doubt there are plums in the fridge if I'm looking at them.
Quoting Pie
I agree; I'm not a fan of pragmatism. Ordinary empirical claims are checkable, so they are no problem unless one wants to nitpick subtleties in the weeds. The Peircean idea that the metaphysics arrived at by the "community of enquirers" at the end of enquiry would be the truth is absurd in my view. This seems to be a kind of scientistic hubris to me. They could all be wrong, or metaphysical perspectives in general may be "not even wrong" in that they are inadequate to life itself.
But not always. "There are plums in the icebox" could also be used as a conjecture, or to deceive, or as a metaphor, or in other ways. It is only if the statement is used as an assertion that "p" and "p is true" have the same meaning. In that case, the statement is used to indicate that the statement is true. However, if it is used as a conjecture instead, then it could be either true or false and we would need to investigate whether the truth conditions for "there are plums in the icebox" are met or not. And I think the latter case tells us something different about the meaning of "true". If we find that it is true, then we will assert "p" to mean "p is true". But what does it mean to find that it is true?
I suggest that knowledge is not about certainty but rather about protocols. Do I know that [math ] \sqrt{2} [/math] is irrational ? Yes. But I can't gaze on it. I just know how to justify that claim.
But let's say that I think I saw them with my own eyes. Perhaps my memory is incorrect. Perhaps I hallucinated. Metaphysical certainty is a dead end. In fact, it only makes sense with the help of an absolute concept of truth. Assume P.
Quoting Janus
:up:
And their skill with English.
But 'know' is or is better conceived to be about license, I claim, which is typically (only) correlated with likelihood.
Quoting Janus
In my view, this is because our expertise varies and our role in a society matters. A scorekeeping vision of rationality features us all as tracking one another individually for reliability and coherence. Some people are so confused and unreliable that their certainty is no comfort to us. 'The worst are full of passionate intensity.' A psychiatric diagnosis, if legal, creates the truth. A justified belief is the best we can get, so our strongest word 'know' seems appropriate. Why waste it ?
[s]I agree. I've actually mentioned this use several times so far though.[/s]
I read the word 'not' into the above.
To assume P is to no longer be wary of using it as a premise.
Well, yes, of course.
We never find that it is true, in my view. A conjecture becomes a belief.
In my view, truth is absolute.
Sure, but this is a comment about belief. It's psychology, not grammar.
It's got that old-fashioned Hegelian optimism that's hard to embrace these days. What I like about it is that it recognizes that reality is intelligible or linguistic. Reality is the meaning of true statements. It's not some raw ineffable hidden stuff. This is like a oversimplified version of Hegel versus Kant. Are we in direct contact with reality or not ? I say yes, though the issue is largely aesthetic rather than practical.
:up:
To me this is why truth is absolute. Warranted or justified beliefs can be false. Unwarranted or unjustified beliefs can be true. Justification is normative, cultural. We can be rational and scientific and still get it wrong. Of course we think that being rational and scientific will increase our chances of getting it right.
I guess I side with Dreyfus in thinking Heidegger is being self-righteously pejorative, as if he can't help himself, despite in other places insisting on a more 'amoral' perspective.
Of course we pretty much start as one, knowing only what everyone knows. We are waist-deep in the superstitions of our time, the prejudices that Gadamer discusses. Hermeneutics. Endless interpretation.
https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/gadamer/#PosPre
In case it's unclear, I stress the primacy of the social as a neutral fact...as a discovery that various thinkers have made which is contrary to a certain encrusted interpretedness that takes the isolated self and its peep show as that which is truly given.
I could and sometimes do stress the anxiety of influence, our horror of being just a copy, a just a second-rate someone else. Creative types experience this the most. I think plenty of less creative types are satisfied being a good electrician, a good dad, a good progressive, a good conservative, a good Baptist, etc. The self-creating artist needs to be a new category altogether. The strong poet or strong philosopher needs to weave himself or herself into the conversation so people can't afford not to talk about them, thereby winning a false immortality.
https://iep.utm.edu/gadamer/#SH3b
Then its not about our use of the word true?
'True' has a use like the twelve on a traditional clockface or North on a compass. Or like the knight on a chessboard. A justified belief may be false. An unjustified belief may be true. We could, no matter how careful and clever, still be wrong.
What is the grammar of being right or wrong ? True or false ? To me it seems absolute. It is not reducible or exchangeable for warrant.
We can always be wrong about the world, because it doesn't make sense to say we could be wrong about being able to be wrong about it. The minimal specification of the world seems to be as that which we can be wrong about. The negation is incoherent. "It is wrong to claim we can we be wrong."
From Brandom's A Spirit of Trust, from pages 448 and 449
///////////////////////
Doing the prospective work of coming up with a new revision [to a set of conceptual commitments] and doing the retrospective work of coming up with a new recollection that exhibits it as the culmination of an expressively progressive process in which what was implicit is made gradually but cumulatively more explicit are two ways of describing one task. Coming up with a "new, true, object," i.e., a candidate referent, involves exhibiting the other endorsed senses as more or less misleading or revelatory appearances of it, better of worse expressions of it. What distinguishes the various prospective alternative possible candidates revisions and repairs of the constellation of senses now revealed as anomalous is just what retrospective stories can be told about each. For it is by offering such an expressively progressive genealogy of it that one justifies the move to a revised scheme.
...
The disparity of the senses (appearances, phenomena, ways things are for consciousness) that is manifest prospectively in the need to revise yet again the contents-and-commitments one currently endorses, and the unity of referents (reality, noumena, ways things are in themselves) that is manifest retrospectively in their gradual emergence into explicitness as revealed by an expressive genealogy of the contents-and-commitments one currently endorses, are two sides of the same coin, each intelligible only in a context that contains the other.
/////////////////////
Brandom invokes T. S. Eliot in the same pages. Sounds like Heidegger...who sounds like Hegel ?
////////////////////////
...if we approach a poet without this prejudice we shall often find that not only the best, but the most individual parts of his work may be those in which the dead poets, his ancestors, assert their immortality most vigorously.
...
...the historical sense involves a perception, not only of the pastness of the past, but of its presence; the historical sense compels a man to write not merely with his own generation in his bones, but with a feeling that the whole of the literature of Europe from Homer and within it the whole of the literature of his own country has a simultaneous existence and composes a simultaneous order. This historical sense, which is a sense of the timeless as well as of the temporal and of the timeless and of the temporal together, is what makes a writer traditional. And it is at the same time what makes a writer most acutely conscious of his place in time, of his own contemporaneity.
...
No poet, no artist of any art, has his complete meaning alone. His significance, his appreciation is the appreciation of his relation to the dead poets and artists. You cannot value him alone; you must set him, for contrast and comparison, among the dead.
...
...what happens when a new work of art is created is something that happens simultaneously to all the works of art which preceded it. The existing monuments form an ideal order among themselves, which is modified by the introduction of the new (the really new) work of art among them. The existing order is complete before the new work arrives; for order to persist after the supervention of novelty, the whole existing order must be, if ever so slightly, altered; and so the relations, proportions, values of each work of art toward the whole are readjusted; and this is conformity between the old and the new.
...
In a peculiar sense he [the new poet] will be aware also that he must inevitably be judged by the standards of the past.
...
Some one said: The dead writers are remote from us because we know so much more than they did. Precisely, and they are that which we know.
...
What happens is a continual surrender of himself as he is at the moment to something which is more valuable. The progress of an artist is a continual self-sacrifice, a continual extinction of personality.
There remains to define this process of depersonalization and its relation to the sense of tradition. It is in this depersonalization that art may be said to approach the condition of science.
...
The emotion of art is impersonal. And the poet cannot reach this impersonality without surrendering himself wholly to the work to be done. And he is not likely to know what is to be done unless he lives in what is not merely the present, but the present moment of the past, unless he is conscious, not of what is dead, but of what is already living.
https://www.poetryfoundation.org/articles/69400/tradition-and-the-individual-talent
I don't think it does. @bongo fury quoted this earlier which is worth revisiting:
[quote=Goodman, Of Mind and Other Matters]Some of the trouble traces back to Alfred Tarski's unfortunate suggestion that the formula " 'Snow is white' is true if and only if snow is white" commits us to a correspondence theory of truth. Actually it leaves us free to adopt any theory (correspondence, coherence, or other) that gives " 'Snow is white' is true" and "snow is white" the same truth-value.[/quote]
:up:
To be sure 'snow is white' is a generality, and, in a sense an approximation, since there is no absolute standard of white, but if snow is, generally, white, then it is that actuality that leads us to count '"snow is white" is true', or 'snow is white' as being true.
I agree that "true" has a conventional use(s). I believe that, according to the deflationary view, the word "true" is typically used to demonstrate assent to a truth bearer.
I find what you say here to be inconsistent with the deflationary view. According to you, the meaning of "true" is independent of anyone's beliefs or judgments. This is not the deflationary use/meaning of "true" as I understand it. Your use of the word "true" here seems more closely aligned with the correspondence theory.
It's really just a piece of redundancy which says nothing useful. It says "Snow is white" is true, if and only if "Snow is white" is true.
To my way of thinking if I'm looking at plums in the icebox, I don't believe they are there, I see them there, I know they are there. And this has nothing to do with justification; it is more direct than that..Once I move away and the icebox is shut again, then I can't rightly say I know they are there, even if I can say I am justified in believing them to be there. They might be there or not; for example, say someone came just after I left the room and took them out.
This is not a Gettier case, but I see a problem with JTB here; am I justified in believing they are there or not, once I have left the room and the icebox is closed? If I think it unlikely, or even impossible, that anyone would, or could, have come and moved the plums, then I am justified in believing them to be there, but I still don't know they are there, and according to JTB could only be said to know they are there if they are there. But despite thinking I might be justified in believing they are there, I don't know it, and it seems absurd to condition my being counted as knowing they are there or not on whether they are there or not, when I don't really know whether they are there or not, but merely count myself as being justified in thinking that they are there..
Quoting Pie
Perhaps unsurprisingly, I have a different view. For me knowledge is about certainty, certainty that is, not in any "absolute" sense, but in the context of everyday experience. If I see plums in the fridge, I am certain they are there. If I close the fridge door, and am still standing in front of the fridge I am virtually as certain that they are there. If I leave the room for a few moments and then return, I might still be almost as certain. If I left the room for an hour, and was confident no one else was around then I might still be almost as certain. And so on. But I would say that I only know, that is I can only be certain ( i.e. without any attendant doubt) that they are there if I am looking at them. Once I step away, knowledge steps aside with me, and belief kicks in, to be assessed as more or less justified.
Obviously here I am not taking seriously the possibilities that I have hallucinated the plums or that my memory might be incorrect; such possibilities belong to the unknowable, 'absolute' radically skeptical context I am ignoring as being irrelevant in the everyday context, the only context that I, at least, am concerned with.
Are you suggesting that deflationists have a theory of meaning rather than truth? I don't see how this is relevant to the present discussion.
Also, if you agree that nothing in the deflationist's theory of truth "hits the bitumen of the world", then I don't understand why you said:
Quoting Banno
I took you to be arguing for the deflationary theory.
Quoting Banno
How is the right hand side being used? Is the left hand side not being used? Is the left hand side meaningless because it is not being used? If so, then how are the two sides equivalent?
Quoting Banno
4.9 states that "deflationism is incompatible with truth-conditional theories of meaning" and that "most deflationists reject truth-conditional semantics".
Incidentally, 4.9 also states that "Others have gone further, arguing positively that there is no incompatibility between deflationism and truth-conditional theories." I suggested the same earlier in the discussion.
Quoting Banno
How does the deflationary theory offer a better account of truth than other theories?
No.
I don't know how to be more specific. T-sentences can be used to define truth, or meaning, but preferably not both in the same argument.
Yes, I am arguing in favour of deflation.
I dunno, Luke. Yes, deflation does not make use of truth-conditions to define truth, since that would be circular. I don't see what it is you are missing - unless you think that any theory of truth must make use of truth conditions...?
Quoting Luke
Other theories over egg the cake. They add other, superfluous stuff that fucks up other issues.
Quoting Luke
In general, concepts have public meanings, however imperfectly grasped or exploited by this or that user. I'm suggesting that grammar of 'true,' or at least the part of it relevant here, is different than that of 'justified' or 'warranted' or 'likely.' 'True' is primitive or absolute in its simply endorsing P. It's confusingly, brutally simple.
I don't think that any theory of truth must make use of truth conditions. You said:
Quoting Banno
What I'm "missing" is why you used a truth-conditional T-sentence to explain the deflationary theory.
In such a case, I think you'd be justified using 'know,' not only as an expression of certainty but also in the sense I'm suggesting of being prepared to defend or explain the claim. Noninferential reports about everyday objects from a reliable source are strong support. 'I saw those plums with my own eyes. They were in there.' We can imagine a scientist recording a measurement. This is what Sellars what call 'language entry,' the connection between 'direct experience' and public concepts.
On the other hand, such reports from an unreliable and perhaps insane person would not be accepted. I might be sure that I am sane while others are not so sure. I could even be reliable in everyday situations but be suspected as my claims became less ordinary. I could swear I saw a ghost or an angel or heard the voice of God.
But where you said:
Quoting Pie
That's not about endorsing P. That's about P being true or false regardless of our endorsement. Therefore, "true" does not mean "endorsing P" in that sense. You want "true" to mean both "endorsing P" but also something else.
SO you are re-classifying disquotation as not a deflationary theory. Fine.
Or do you think truth conditional is the same as truth functional?
As I see it, the hypothesis is something like...truth is primary, like unmitigated assertion. It's as if language was initially too simple for doubt or qualification. The vervet monkey's eagle-cry means 'there is an eagle coming to eat us...watch out!'
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vervet_monkey
Eventually we learn to doubt. We learn to mitigate claims, call them beliefs, attribute them to individuals in order to explain them, and just generally take a new distance from them. From this POV, truth is so basic that it's hard to talk about, like being perhaps.
If I claim that P is true, I am expressing a belief, correct ? What if I said that P is justified, but I still don't think it's true ? I'd be saying that standards dictate its acceptance but that I still refuse to endorse it. This might even take the form of a confession. Perhaps I think I ought to be swayed by the evidence but can't sincerely assert P.
Yes. But how do you reconcile that with this:
Quoting Pie
Where's the contradiction ?
I added to the post two posts above, in case that helps.
To call P true is different than to call P warranted. To call P true is basically to assert P, express belief.
While there are many assertions that seem to be either true or false, that seems like a separate issue to me.
If "true" means only "endorsing P", then that's all there is to the truth. Therefore, how can a justified belief be false? In what sense could we "still be wrong" about P if to say that P is "true" is merely to endorse it?
'P is true' does roughly the same thing as 'P'. So yes. Truth is so basic that's there's nothing to say about it, except that there's nothing to say about it. That's the theory anyway, which looks rightish to me.
Quoting Luke
Let's say that there's a strong consensus reached, after months of discussion, among the most prestigious virologists that a certain dangerous mutation is impossible (not just very unlikely but inconceivable.) 'Yes, Dr. Jones, it's true that such a mutation cannot happen here.' Given their unchallenged expertise, they are justified in believing this mutation will not occur. So perhaps are their brighter grad students, who can follow the relevant arguments. Nevertheless the mutation occurs.
Perhaps a team of oncologists, after extensive tests, give a patient only weeks to live ('it's true what Dr. Smith says, and you indeed have only a few more weeks')...but then he 'miraculously' recovers.
Quoting Luke
I can simply think that P is true (believe P) with P not actually being true.
What does the second instance of "true" mean in the statement above?
Quoting Pie
To say that P is not true is to assert the negation of P , or ~P. Or that's what makes sense to me. (I'm allowing for the possibility of a belief being wrong here.)
VARIANTS
I can believe P is true although not-P is true.
I can believe P while actually ~P.
I can be wrong about my belief P.
You said earlier:
Quoting Pie
So if "is true" does the work of simply endorsing P, then wrt your statement:
Quoting Pie
This can be translated as: you endorse P although you endorse not-P?
Yes. I say indeed that calling P true is endorsing it, repeating it, asserting it.
Quoting Luke
I think not. You ignore the crucial word 'believe.' To believe P is true is just to believe P.
I can believe P although or despite ~P.
I can think/believe/assert that it's true that plums are in the icebox without it being true that plums are in the icebox. (The grammar of 'believe' is not the grammar of 'true.')
Fine, let me translate it properly.
Quoting Pie
This can be translated as: you can believe you endorse P although you endorse not-P?
Quoting Pie
What you are failing to notice is that you are not using "true" here in the sense of an endorsement. If it's not true that "there are plums in the icebox", does that mean (only) that you disendorse it? If so, then why do you also endorse it (or believe that you endorse it)?
I use endorse this way: to approve openly. In this context, I equate it with repeating or (re)asserting P.
https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/endorse
ENDORSEMENT
'These fries are cold.'
'Yes indeed.'
REPETITION
'These fries are cold.'
'These fries are cold.'
DESCRIBING AS TRUE
'These fries are cold.'
'True.'
'I can believe P is true although not-P is true.'
Quoting Luke
'P is true' is not replaceable context-independently by 'I endorse P.' Instead you should just use 'P' as the replacement. You can probably so replace 'I claim P is true' by 'I endorse P.'
Your proposed translation might work for 'I can believe that I claim P is true although not-P is true.'
This can be shortened: 'I can believe that I claim P though P is false.'
But, again, the last word in the statement is not an endorsement! What makes not-P true is that there are no plums in the icebox, not that you are disendorsing or disapproving of the statement "there are plums in the icebox". You already approved that statement!
Perhaps it'll help if I make the variable use of 'I' clearer.
One can believe that P is true while in fact not-P is true.
One can believe P despite not-P.
One can believe P and still be wrong.
He endorses P.
He claims P.
He claims P is true.
He assents to P.
He agrees that P.
He affirms P.
One can believe that they approve of P?
Quoting Pie
Is it "in fact" you approve of not-P? Or "in fact" not-P despite your approval of P?
Quoting Luke
I believe that you think are making a point here, but to me you are lost in a misunderstanding. Perhaps it's the complexity in the pronoun use.
Bob believes P is true while not-P is true.
Bob believes P but he's wrong.
This is not the same as 'Bob believes that Bob endorses P, despite not P,' for this discusses Bob's belief about Bob and not his belief about P.
'P is true',if spoken by Bob, is roughly equivalent to Bob saying 'P' or endorsing 'P' when said by someone else, perhaps with a 'yes indeed.'
What does "not-P is true" mean according to the deflationist?
I [s]can[/s] can't speak for others, but I'd say it means the same thing (roughly) as not-P.
It's true that it's not raining.
It's not raining.
According to who is not-P true? If it's not Bob endorsing not-P, then who is?
Quoting Pie
My point is that when you say "...but not-P is true", then you are using "is true" in a non-deflationary way.
That "grounding fact" might be that the sentence "snow is white" coheres with some specified set of sentences, à la coherence theory.
a. "snow is white" is true iff snow is white
b. snow is white iff "show is white" coheres with some specified set of sentences
c. Therefore, "snow is white" is true iff "show is white" coheres with some specified set of sentences
The T-schema of (a) works with any number of more substantive views of truth. (b) can be thought of a theory of meaning that adds to the rather empty theory of truth given by (a).
Alternatively:
a. "snow is white" is true iff snow is white
b. snow is white iff the mind-independent material world is a certain way
c. Therefore, "snow is white" is true iff the mind-independent material world is a certain way
That would be closer to the traditional correspondence theory.
My attempt:
I believe that I am observing something that is atmospheric water vapour frozen into ice crystals and falling in light white flakes or lying on the ground as a white layer
Rather than keep saying "I believe that I am observing something that is atmospheric water vapour frozen into ice crystals and falling in light white flakes or lying on the ground as a white layer" it is more convenient to say "I believe that I am observing snow"
Where "snow" is defined as "something that is atmospheric water vapour frozen into ice crystals and falling in light white flakes or lying on the ground as a white layer".
In other words, "white" is part of the definition of "snow".
I need no knowledge of the world to know that "snow is white", only knowledge of language.
In Tarski's terms, I can say "snow is white" and a German can say "schnee ist weiss". These are said within the object language
The metalanguage is where words are defined, in that "white" is part of the definition of "snow", "white" means "weiss" and "snow" means "schnee"
Therefore, we can replace "snow is white" is true iff s by "snow is white" is true iff "white" is part of the definition of "snow", "white" means "weiss" and "snow means "schnee"
Therefore s = the linguistic declaration that "white" is part of the definition of "snow", "white" means "weiss" and "snow" means "schnee".
The issue you describe here is a problem with the justification. The justification is somewhat faulty and therefore truth in the matter cannot be ascertained. This allows for the encroachment of doubt and skepticism.
The justification is based in our ideas of temporal continuity, inertia, which are well represented by Newton's first law. Principles such as this law tell us that a thing will continue to exist, exactly as it has in the past, unless it is caused to change. This is the temporal continuity of existence which forms the foundation for that justification. And, since your observations apprehend nothing which would cause such a change, you conclude that the plums are still in the fridge.
We can see that the fault in this justification lies within the assumption that a change to the temporal continuity of existence would necessarily be observed by you. Since this is a required premise in that justification, and it is not a sound premise, truth cannot be ascertained through that justification, and doubt is summoned.
This will never work, because "truth" is a feature of particular circumstances, and the accidentals of particular circumstances cannot be captured in a universal statement such as you propose. Therefore your enterprise is doomed to failure.
You might however, change your definition of "truth", such that truth is not a feature of particular circumstances, and define it so that it is a feature of some sort of universal statement or generalization, thereby creating the illusion that success is possible, but that would really be a failure as well.
Is it a metaphysical question?
Is there any practical difference between understsnding the logic of truth, and how to know the truth?
How do we verify our truth theory, if its pure metaphysics?
Since a foundation of metaphysics is required before we can epistemologically test if a statement is true, then how do we test metaphysical foundations?
This reality, then, that gives their truth to the objects of knowledge and the power of knowing to the knower, you must say is the idea of the good, and you must conceive it as being the cause of knowledge and of truth in so far as known. Plato, Republic, 508e, Republic II.
Your critique(Pie's claim) reminds me of Moore's paradox.
A twenty-seven-month-old child can know when "there's nothing in there" is false, when the speaker is talking about a fridge. I gave that real life example earlier. She demonstrated that knowledge. She has no idea whatsoever about theories of truth. The terms "truth" and "falsehood" are not even understood by her. She certainly does not understand the logic of truth.
Which is why use tells us much more about these concepts, i.e., tells us much more about meaning and understanding.
This is about our accounting practices. It restricts and/or limits all belief to propositional attitudes. While this is little to no problem at all if we're talking about language users who have and or develop propositional attitudes, it is quite problematic if we're talking about creatures that are incapable of having a propositional attitude but are perfectly capable of believing that a mouse is behind the tree, that a lizard is under the stove, that a dog is in the house, that food is in their food bowl, or that another cat is on the bed. So, while it works well for analyzing belief statements, the grammar of belief being put to use here is inherently inadequate for taking proper account of language less creatures' belief. It's found lacking in explanatory power.
Cats do not have an attitude towards propositions. They do not hold propositions as true. The T sentence cannot properly account for creatures incapable of having propositional attitudes, and thus, we cannot rightfully encapsulate a cat's belief within quotes on the left side as we do with language users for that would be a mischaracterization of the cat's belief(an accounting malpractice when used in such a way). However, and this is very interesting to me, when we do talk about what it would take in order for a cat's belief to be true, we find ourselves saying much the same thing as we do when it comes to propositional attitudes, despite the fact that cats are incapable of having and/or developing them.
Cookie's belief that a dog is in the house is true only if, only when, and only because a dog is in the house.
Such are the kinds of belief that some language less creatures are capable of forming, having, and/or holding. Much like us, they are more than capable of forming, having, and/or holding belief about what's going on around them. Unlike us, they are incapable of talking about their own thought and belief as a subject matter in its own right. Unlike us, they are incapable of considering what sorts of things can be true, and what it takes in order for them to be so. Unlike us, they are incapable of doubt and/or skepticism. Much like us, they are capable of forming, having, and/or holding true belief, false belief, as well as belief that is neither at the time(in the case of expectation).
Again, I find it very interesting that our analysis of what sorts of things can be true and what makes them so has no issue at all exhausting some language less creatures' belief, so long as it's not formal logic being used. Common language works just fine.
Hey Sam!
Indeed. It's puzzling how a child that can barely string two or three words together knew when she heard the claim that it was not true, and then went on to demonstrate that much, and yet highly educated people seem to have talked themselves right out of that.
I think that that qualifies for Witt's notion of bewitchment. The story may be able to tell us something about hinge propositions???
It doesn't need to be "the mind-independent material world" and cohering with "some specified set of sentences" is not enough; simply being in accordance with what is experienced will do. People see snow, even if only in pictures, and it is generally white, so all one needs to know in order to understand that ":snow is white" (taken as a broad statement) is true is that snow is white.
Even children would know "snow is purple" is not true, just on account of having seen snow. On the other hand if you spray painted some snow purple, and then said "this snow is purple" of course again, even a child (who understands the words you uttered) will agree that would be true.
You are taking the radical skepticism position I have already said I'm not concerned with. I'm not concerned with it because there are no known instances of "changes to the temporal continuity of existence", which means we have no reason to take their possibility into consideration. If we do find one, then we can start worrying about it.
As I already said I am concerned only with the context of everyday experience. since this is the context in which propositional statements and our judgements about their truth find their relevance.
This is how I feel about them.
The only thing wrong with deflationary theories is they are obviously false. But that's a feature, given how the others are inobviously false, and you really get a close approximation.
We are apparently banned from discussing the logic of truth. :roll:
So can you set out, succinctly, why they are wrong? Not that I disagree...
Isn't part of this because they have taken Plato's cave allegory to heart? The assumption being that those illusory shadows are everywhere and that only adults and smart people can work to discover the truth behind the deception of appearances.
I'll leave you to it.
Quoting Yohan
Yes. Logic is a seperate topic to metaphysics and epistemology. What is discussed there is in effect the grammar of the topic, the ways on which we can put sentences together coherently.
There are a number of different ways of treating truth, that have ben expounded in logical terms. These relate to, but differ from,how we know something is true, the topic of epistemology, and the the sort of things that are true, the topic of metaphysics.
@Michael hasn't understood this, either.
This apparently ruffled some feathers when I said it, way back when, eight days ago:
Quoting Fooloso4
What you have written is a start, but there is much conceptual refinement that is missing.
You might enjoy Quine's two Dogmas of Empiricism. It is a critique of the analytic-synthetic distinction, and of reductionism.
Your post seems to make use of both.
I am talking about everyday occurrences. And yes, there clearly is changes to the temporal continuity of existence of things, that\s what "force" does. By Newton's laws, "force" is required to alter the temporal continuity of existence of a thing. This is known to us as "change".
So your plums in the fridge will continue to exist in the same way that they were put there, until a force is applied. Now the issue is whether the force required to substantially alter the existence of those plums, is necessarily observable to you watching the fridge from the outside. Well, the plums will rot, even in the fridge, and this change is not observable to you from outside the fridge. That's clear evidence that the justification for your assumption that the plums will continue to exist, as you left them, is faulty. There are unperceived forces being applied to those plums all the time, altering the continuity of their existence.
Perhaps.
I think Searle has it right when he talks about the mistakes that have been repeated, in some form or another, for hundreds and hundreds of years. It pleases me that a highly respected authority has so much to say that dovetails nicely to my own position.
Our report of a cat's belief comes in propositional form. Cats cannot have attitudes towards propositions such that they take them to be true. You know that.
Cookie's belief that a dog is in the house is not an attitude that she has towards that proposition such that she holds it as true. Rather, it's more of the direct presentation of the dog being in the house. Searle's account of direct perception and intentionality works well here. I've been watching Searle, being the exciting guy that I am...
There was a quote...
Here I was hoping to attain mutual concessions in order to further the discussion beyond the sticking points we always seem to arrive at. I am willing to concede that language less belief can be put into propositional form. I was hoping at least that you would concede that a language less animal is incapable of having attitudes towards propositions.
The insult is petty and it's not true. Ah well...
Making the Social World, p. 27, italics in original.
That whole book is worth a read, and might go towards avoiding our descent into the narcissism of small differences.
A cat's belief that a dog is in the house is not an attitude that the cat has towards the proposition "a dog is in the house". That's patently impossible. The cat's belief does not consist of meaningful marks or attitudes towards meaningful marks. It consists of correlations drawn between a dog, sheer terror(fear), and all sorts of other directly perceptible things.
He's not talking about language less creatures' beliefs.
Searle employs the objective/subjective dichotomy in interesting ways when he draws a distinction between using them in an epistemic sense and an ontological sense and the historical conflation of the two when it comes to any and all positions which deny direct perception... idealism(s), arguments from illusion, argument from science, Stove's Gem, etc.
I've had several of his books for years. That library will not be thoroughly cracked and enjoyed until I have more spare time. Been collecting for over a decade though.
He is setting up exactly that as one topic of Chapter 4.
I'll have to read it then. His notion of "proposition" must be notably different to yours in that they cannot be equivalent to statements or assertions. I hope he's not one of those who claim that propositions are somehow existentially independent of language. Either way, I've found him helpful in a few ways. If there are some things I disagree with, then it would be quite normal. As before, I'll give it a look. Thanks for the link...
Well shit!
No link. For some reason, I believed you'd given one. Do you have one? I do not remember that title, so I doubt if I have a copy of it. I'll have to look to be sure...
:wink:
So be it...
Well...
Unless that is, truth emerges within some language less creatures' thought and belief formation itself as compared/contrasted to emerging as a property of true statements, assertions, claims, propositions, etc.
Just wondering if you saw this ...
The flow is a dog's breakfast after mod intervention.
I started a thread specifically on the logic of truth, with the aim, amongst other things, sorting out the various problems with the place of T-sentences by going over Tarski, Kripke and so on from a logical perspective. Seems it's not allowed. So now the post to which @RussellA was replying is lost in a closed thread, without much explanation. Exasperating.
I don't know what to say. It's as if the mods want to actively discourage looking at specifics in detail. A forced march to mediocrity.
Thanks Bano.
I still question if the difference is practical.
Everything in philosophy should be about the process of unveiling the Truth or Being.
Every philosophy topic, in my mind, is a branch of epistemology.
Eg metaphysics is "How to know which sorts of things are true".
Ethics: How to know right from wrong.
Logic: The mechanics behind arriving at knowledge.
I can also view everything as branches of logic.
The logic of metaphysics. The logic of ethics, etc.
We are trying to organise things so that the truth is not obscured by messiness.
However, what about mathematical truths? There is nothing (in reality) that corresponds to [math]\infty[/math]. Oui, mes amies?
Practical at the least in division of labour.
I was just pointing out that the T-schema is rather empty as-is. Tarski didn't even offer it as a definition of truth:
Note that he's not saying that "p" is true iff p is the definition of truth, he's saying that it's something that must be implied by the definition of truth. His actual definition was later:
But as Goodman suggests, any number of theories on truth can imply the T-schema.
There's a few things that I get stuck on in thinking through this, but I think the most succinct one is this:
Taking meaning as primary, as you note, I think the most succinct refutation is simply "That's not what truth means" -- which others have pointed out, I believe, in this discussion, but then the mistake is going on to try and say too much, which opens the theory to refutation.
But I agree with you and others who have pointed out that said refutation depends upon a sort of pre-reflective understanding of truth. I'm not so sure I'd say unanalysable, either, but it's definitely one of those primitives that can't be rendered so easily as the traditional theories of truth attempt to.
I agree with the notion of the ethical-boundary of truth that's been floated: Since there's no Grand True Unifying Theory of Truth, though the disquotational theory is a good approximation, I ask -- what have I been doing? Surely I understand truth in this pre-theoretic way, as everyone who tells a truth does, but is there a post-theoretic way to understand truth as its being used? (descriptive of the prescriptive, maybe)
And the game of truth-telling, as @unenlightened pointed out, is a good place to start. That's how we'd come to justify what I said above and get at a feel for the meaning of "is true"
And there, I think the main thing that disquotational theories miss is the Big Truth type true. People do in fact mean big-T truth frequently enough that the theory misses out on that meaning. And perhaps we could say, well, that's not the meaning of the philosophers. But it is a meaning that philosophy-types and those so attracted tend to care about, so it's worth mentioning.
Disquotationalism sets out how small-t truth works -- but it doesn't tell us what it means. The game of truth-telling does that.
Like I said earlier, truth is best described in terms of honesty. And as such, it is quite simple. Use words to express what you honestly believe, to the best of your ability, and you are telling the truth. So if we want to understand the nature of truth we need to inquire into the nature of honesty.
First cab off the rank is that statements don't have a fixed meaning. See Davidson's A nice derangement of epitaphs. There seems to be no way to construct a coherent account of meaning as a convention that will work in every case. No set of rules will be able to capture the whole of meaning, because as soon as such rules are stipulated, some wag will undermine them
Next cab: we might do well to look to what happens in a conversation. There's an interplay between the protagonists, during which the way terms are used is sometimes fixed, sometimes changed, and usually results in some action. One way of viewing meaning is as the interplay and the resulting use. Wittgenstein.
Next cab: while we can't set out rules for every case, we can describe and analyse patterns in what we do. Always with the qualification that we can construct exceptions.
So we can note the separation of the illocutionary force of a sentence from its propositional content. "Jack went to the shop."
"Jack went to the shop!"
"Jack went to the shop?"
and so on. Austin and Searle and many others.
Next cab: We can also analyses the content of the sentence using the grammar developed in logic, and in doing so we can display its structure. Again, subject to exceptions.
Here we can make use of first order predicate logic to set out the consistency or lack there of in the utterance. Frege, Russell, and so on.
Last cab: there are are this level of the logic of the content of the statement, a few theories about the nature of truth. These deal only with truth in relation to the content, but then the content informs the illocutionary force, and what is done in making an utterance. Even the breach of a convention can only occur if there is a convention.
So yes, there are uses of "truth" that rely on the force of an utterance. There are uses of "truth" that rely on the breach of convention. There are Big Picture uses.
I propose that we might gain a better understanding of these Big Picture uses were we to have a clear grasp of the logic of truth. Tarski, Kripke, and such.
And for my money disquaotation presents that logic. At the least, understanding the logic of truth will underpin any other considerations.
But philosophy is hard, and is found in the detail rather than the trite and trivial.
And it is a continuing mystery that you haven't read Grice.
For what it's worth, I think it would be a mistake to ignore @Metaphysician Undercover's point about the connection between honesty and truth. I don't think it's so easy to say which concept is parasitic on the other.
It's in the illocutionary force isn't it?
What I was thinking was roughly this: it's easy enough to see how you would define being honest as aiming at truth, so truth has priority.
But words are a bit like colors: they are defined, as it were, "in standard conditions," which is to say, spoken candidly. Without the baseline of candid use, words cannot have meaning. (Don't make more of the word "defined" than is meant.)
Lewis landed there too, and argued that a speech community requires a foundation of truthfulness and trust (taking speech overwhelmingly as candid).
In which case honesty is prior.
Who don't? I think they do. I think they're wrong. But not obviously wrong. And they obviously do.
Quoting Janus
See, @Pie and @Banno? It's not hard not to equivocate, if you don't want to:
If you don't want to. But mysticism is a hard drug.
Quoting Banno
No, the thing on the right of the T-schema is a string of words.
Quoting Pie
Yes, the denotation of a sentence adjoined to quotation marks is the string of words itself.
Quoting Pie
But if P is the case, then P.
Quoting Pie
What is, exactly? A state of affairs corresponding to the string of words? Why not say so, like @Janus? Why the desperate urge to confuse it with the string of words? Do you feel clever when people can't follow your drift?
But our topic here is truth.
A piece of metal is a knife.
The string of words is a fact.
It's not that case that there is only one way to talk about the metal, the knife, the string or the fact. Quoting bongo fury
And as soon as one asks what a fact is, or what it is to point, the equivocation resumes.
At some stage you have to stop asking and just act. Snow is white. That's a fact.
Only for the mystic, addicted to systematic equivocation.
Quoting Banno
"Snow is white" is a sentence, and we point the word "true" at it iff we point the word "white" at snow.
"Fact" is ambiguous between true sentence and more occult alleged entities.
Quoting bongo fury
https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/350131
Word and object have no inherent connection, but only a mystic confuses the two.
Yeah, but that snow is white is a fact.
snow is white - fact
"snow is white" - sentence
"snow is white" is true - fact
'"snow is white" is true' - sentence.
Think I mentioned this previously.
But a wise fellow once said, concerning pointing,
Quoting bongo fury
Equivocal pointing of "fact".
Quoting bongo fury
What's that?
Are you saying that it is not a fact that snow is white?
Quoting bongo fury
...and?
Quoting Banno
So we agree on this?
It's saying, are you pointing the word "fact" at the true sentence or at some alleged corresponding entity?
And stop doing it, please. The equivocation.
You don't have to accept the alleged corresponding entities. But stop having it both ways, and basking in people's incomprehension.
That is muddled. Are you pointing at the knife or the piece of metal?
Quoting bongo fury
I can have it both ways because it works both ways.
What you are saying here is that meaning, as well as other human relations, requires truth (in the sense of honesty). So we should take it that truth, in that sense, is prior to meaning, and therefore does not require meaning, "truth" being the more general concept and logically prior to the more specific concept, "meaning".
If I say
Quoting Banno
then I'm pointing "piece of metal" and "knife" at a metal knife.
If I say
Quoting Banno
then I'm pointing "string of words" and "fact" at the true sentence.
1. snow is white - fact
2. "snow is white" - sentence
3. "snow is white" is true - fact
4. '"snow is white" is true' - sentence.
No equivocation.
You seem to think that (1) and (2) are the same. They are not. But (1) and (3) are logically equivalent.
Quoting Banno
Not at all. I criticised (1).
Specifically, here https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/732016
I point to the that.
You say " Are you pointing at the knife or the piece of metal? Stop equivocating!"
I go and do something else.
Mystical babble.
Quoting Banno
No, you said that. I showed here that it was beside the point.
If there is an equaviocation, you ought be able to set it out by making it explicit.
The thing in my hand is a knife or a piece of metal. We mark the difference by the context.
The string [snow is white] is a fact or a sentence. We mark the difference by the context, but in addition we can use quote marks.
So, where is the equivocation?
You seem to hold that it must be either a sentence or a fact, and never the twain shall meet. For you, it's either a knife or a piece of metal, but never both.
Unlike knife and piece of metal, there's a categorical difference between a sentence and a fact. It really can't be both.
It's all the arrows. What are they doing? Each of them seems be be doing something different.
And the splotch down the bottom - what's that? The thing-in-itself?
Ok, change the example to a coin. There's a categorical difference between a dollar and a piece of metal. Which do you have in your pocket?
I have a piece of paper with the word coin written on it. Is that a coin?
I want to run something by you and any others who may be reading this.
The most common Old English use had it that truth was the quality of being steadfast, loyal, faithful, trustworthy, honest, steady in adhering to promises and friends, etc. That is... "truth" originally meant the quality of being true, and when something was true it was steadfast, loyal, faithful, trustworthy, honest and steady in adhering to promises and friends, etc. Such use of "truth" seemed to be more applicable to people. Another Old English use, the sense of "something that is true", was first recorded mid-14c., whereas the sense meaning "accuracy, correctness" is from 1560s.
The term "true" was first used in the sense of being "consistent with fact" around c. 1200. Given that the English language began being written around c. 600, it comes as no surprise to me that English speakers would begin using it "true" to mean consistent with what occurred because they found themselves faced with conflicting stories about the very same events, especially when amidst much denser populations, many of which that had written record. They needed a means for distinguishing dependable and reliable stories from those that were not. Hence, true stories are consistent with what occurred. Stories that are not true, are not.
If being true means being consistent with fact, then a true statement is consistent with fact, where "fact" is what has occurred. True statements are not facts. To quite the contrary, true statements are so, only if, only when, and only because they are consistent with fact.
:chin: Wittgenstein does that to you! Oui?
Truth became the translation for veritas. So the Latin word for truth, with the root *were-o-, came to be translated into English by the word for trustworthy, with the root *deru-.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
I was going to post this earlier to try and highlight the categorical difference:
A sentence (as a string of letters) may be a fact of the world, but there are many facts of the world that are not sentences (e.g. some facts are rivers).
The content/meaning of a sentence can correspond with a fact of the world, but not all sentences correspond with facts of the world (e.g. some sentences are false).
That the river is flooding - might be a fact. "The river is flooding" would then be a true sentence.
Yep.
Why not?
Quoting Banno
Is that a sentence in your pocket or are you conceding there's a categorical difference between a sentence and a fact?
The world is the totality of facts, not of things (Tractatus 1.1). Rivers are things. Things are not facts.
Absolutely not. Wittgenstein is scrupulous.
Quoting Banno
Pointing.
Quoting Banno
The (alleged) thing that's not also a string of words.
Quoting Banno
Sure. Two words for one thing. No problem. If we're ready to clarify.
Quoting Banno
Fine, if you would stick to that. Two words ("fact" and "sentence") for one thing (string). But you keep doing one word ("fact") for two things (string and alleged thing that's not also a string). And refusing to clarify, and then basking in people's incomprehension.
Oh! Banno is the resident Wittgenstein scholar. I thought that was the explanation for his cryptic posts.
No.
Not quite right. I don't think I've said that the sentence is a fact. Again,
1. snow is white - fact
2. "snow is white" - sentence
Quoting bongo fury
I agree. They are not cryptic.
:blush:
Quoting Banno
Quoting Banno
No more questions, your honour.
1. snow is white - fact
2. "snow is white" - sentence
3. "snow is white" is true - fact
4. '"snow is white" is true' - sentence.
You seem to think that (1) and (2) are the same. They are not. But (1) and (3) are logically equivalent. Or if you prefer, (2) and (4) are equivalent.
Quoting Banno
Quoting bongo fury
This is interesting because the other theories don't seem to present a logic, so much, as a description of truth (hence, substantive) -- but they certainly presume a logic at least. I don't think I would describe the correspondence theory of truth as a logic. I'd say it's a metaphysical description of truth.
(Funny thing here too, given the notion of logic as truth-preservative. You'd have to, I think, come up with another way to think about logic than this common short-hand to talk of a logic of truth. Hence your invoking meaning as a beginning?)
**
I wonder if this is something that's getting lost in the conversation, at this point. So far I think we've been thinking about disquotationalism as a distinct theory from the standards. Might it be that disquotationalism is simply focused on the logic of truth, whereas the others are focused on the metaphysics of truth?
The piece of metal in my pocket is not a dollar, properly speaking. It's a coin which represents a dollar. That's what makes the categorical difference, a dollar is a value, and a coin is not a value, it is a representation of a value. And that's how numerous different things, different coins, bills, makings on paper and in cyberspace, can represent the very same value. The representations are not actually the thing represented.
That is the issue with the sentence and the fact. The sentence is supposed to be a representation of the fact. and so there is a categorical difference between the two, the sentence and the fact, which makes it impossible that a sentence is a fact. However, in common vernacular we take shortcuts and simplify to facilitate expedience. So that I might say "the coin in my pocket is a dollar", just like one might say "snow is white is a fact". These shortcuts appear to be saying that the sentence "Snow is white.", is also a fact, just like it appears like I am saying that the coin in my pocket is a dollar. The representative aspect is just taken for granted.
Quoting Banno
What I think Bongo Fury is trying to point out to you, is that in #1, you are trying to utilize that invalid shortcut, to say that "snow is white" is a fact, when in reality it is a sentence which represents a fact.
To insist that "the sentence is a fact", when you clearly recognize the categorical difference in your reply to me, quoted above, indicates that you are being dishonest in your communion with Bongo Fury. I can conclude that you are employing a dishonest use of words, a type of sophistry, because you recognize the categorical difference between the sentence "snow is white", and the fact which it represents, yet you premise that the sentence is the fact in your logical procedure.
That string of words refers to a fact.
When we say "Joe Biden is President" we're not saying that the string of words "Joe Biden" is President; we're saying that the man referred to by the string of words "Joe Biden" is President.
Perhaps it isn't quite right to say that the consequent of the T-schema is/refers to a fact.
(My emphasis.)
Exactly. According to correspondence theory in this kind of context.
Quoting Janus
(My emphasis again.)
Quoting bongo fury
Quoting Michael
Of course perhaps it isn't at all right.
Hence my second picture, just as one plausible alternative. Following up the option that whole sentences don't refer at all.
Quoting Michael
Plausibly it is fictional literature.
Not necessarily. 1 + 1 = 2 is true iff 1 + 1 = 2. 1 + 1 = 2 because this is what follows from the axioms of mathematics. The T-schema works with a coherence theory, too.
Hence my quoting Goodman, earlier. And note that my second picture is consistent with the T-schema. Even though it doesn't have whole sentences referring (or corresponding).
This possibility doesn't excuse the equivocating, between strings of words, and alleged things or situations that aren't strings of words.
I think the issue is that facts arent always things, e.g material objects. It is a fact that unicorns dont exist, but the non-existence of unicorns isnt a thing that exists. Is there a distinction between the fact that unicorns dont exist and the sentence unicorns dont exist being true?
That's a related issue, sure. I'm less unsympathetic to the notion of corresponding facts that are physical events (objects in the larger sense of regions of space-time). But I'm unsympathetic to the notion of corresponding facts generally, and even less sympathetic to their being smuggled in by systematic equivocation.
Quoting Michael
I think we agree here.
Quoting Michael
Neither is the existence of cats a thing that exists.
Quoting Michael
What do you think?
I find it strange that you're not wanting disquotationalism, then. That seems to me to be what is accomplished by the logic -- no sussing out the meaning of correspondence. Simply true sentence on the left-hand side, and used sentence on the right-hand side. Truth [s]is[/s] as a meta-lingual predicate of used language.
According to PI, the meaning of a word often depends on how it is used and/or "is what an explanation of its meaning explains" (560). I believe the way most of us have been using the word "fact" here is to mean a thing that exists in the world, a state of affairs in the world, or a way a part of the world is at some time. Many dictionaries give one of the uses/meanings of "fact" as "something that really exists" or similar. I'm not sure how you are using the word.
Quoting Michael
I think it is important when some people appear to be arguing against a distinction between facts and statements that represent facts.
Quoting Michael
There is no distinction between the way the world is and what the sentence represents if true, but there is a distinction between the way the world is and the sentence that represents the way the world is. If there were no distinction, then the sentence could be neither true nor false. The sentence would be the world.
I'm pretty sure this is what disquotational theories are trying to get at.
So --
The distinction between the way the world is and the sentences that represents is
(Sentence-that-represents) is T IFF the way the world is
Breaking out of metaphysical baggage, we'd say
"P" is T IFF P
And replace all instances of P with English sentences, while recognizing that the quotations are an operator on all sentences that these are being mentioned, not used.
Finally, coming to define T as true, but only by understanding the meaning of the previous bits, as well as the iff operator.
Funny thing there, still. We come to understand the predicate T in relation to the actual language introduced in this model I'm proposing. But truth is smuggled in by way of the "iff" connector, since we already understand these connectors to be truth-evaluative.
Consider the propositions "snow is white" and "the bird is blue". To know whether they are true or false, one must first know what they mean. We cannot decide whether a proposition is true or false until we know what it means.
There are two kinds of propositions
"Snow is white" is analytic necessary, as snow is white by definition. "The bird is blue" is synthetic contingent, as we need to observe the world.
The example of the Rosetta Stone
Ancient Egyptian was a coherent language that described the world in which the ancient Egyptians lived, yet couldn't be understood for thousands of years until the discovery of the Rosetta Stone. In Tarski's terms, ancient Egyptian is the object language. Something external to the object language was needed to give the object language meaning. In this case the Rosetta Stone was needed. In Tarski's terms, a metalanguage.
The meaning of "snow is white"
Go back to the beginning. I perceive in the world something that is cold, white and frozen. I name this something in a performative act "snow". I could equally well have named it "schnee". I record my performative act in a dictionary, where white is described as one of the properties of snow, in that white is a necessary property of snow. Austin discusses performative acts.
I utter the proposition "snow is white". In Tarski's terms, utterances are uttered in the object language. In Tarski's terms, performative acts are carried out in the metalanguage. Therefore, what does the utterance "snow is white" mean. It only has meaning if snow is white has been established during a performative act in the metalanguage. It has no meaning if snow is white has not yet been established by a performative act in a metalanguage.
Is "snow is white" true or false
The utterance in the object language "snow is white" is true if the predicate "is white" has been established as a property of the subject "snow" during a performative act in a metalanguage. The utterance in the object language "snow is white" is false if the predicate "is not white" has been established as a property of the subject "snow" during a performative act in a metalanguage.
Meaning of "the bird is blue"
For "the bird is blue" to have meaning as an utterance in the object language, the properties of the subject "bird" and properties of the predicate "is blue" must have been established during performative acts within a metalanguage. A bird, for example, having several colours, ability to fly and being an animal
Is "the bird is blue" true or false
The utterance in the object language "the bird is blue" is true if, first, the predicate "is blue" has been established as a possible property of the subject "bird" during a performative act in a metalanguage and second, if it is perceived in the world that the bird is blue. The utterance in the object language "the bird is blue" is false if, first the predicate "is blue" has been established as a possible property of the subject "bird" during a performative act in a metalanguage, and second, if it is perceived in the world that the bird is not blue
The analytic T-sentence "snow is white"
Under what conditions is the utterance "snow is white" true ? The T-sentence is "snow is white" is true iff snow is white. "Snow is white" is an utterance in the object language.
"Snow is white" is true if the predicate "is white" has been established as a property of the subject "snow" during a performative act in a metalanguage.
An analytic T-sentence may be generalised as "A is B" is true iff the predicate "is B" has been established as a property of the subject "A" during a performative act in a metalanguage.
The synthetic T-sentence "the bird is blue"
Under what conditions is the utterance "the bird is blue" true ? The T-sentence is "the bird is blue" is true iff the bird is blue. "The bird is blue" is an utterance in the object language. "The bird is blue" is true iff not only the predicate "is blue" has been established as a possible property of the subject "bird" during a performative act in a metalanguage but also if it is perceived in the world that the bird is blue
A synthetic T-sentence may be generalised as "A is B" is true iff not only the predicate "is B" has been established as a possible property of the subject "A" during a performative act in a metalanguage but also if it is perceived in the world that the A is B.
Quine and the analytic-synthetic divide
Quine wrote Two Dogmas of Empiricism 1950. He argued that analytic truths are problematic. He distinguished between logical truths, "no not-x is x" and truths based on synonyms, such as "a bachelor is an unmarried man". Synonyms are analytically problematic, in that although bachelor is a synonym for unmarried, they have a different senses, different meanings.
Consider the analytic proposition "snow is white", which is analytic because by definition snow is white. But note that the word "is" has different possible meanings. As a metaphor, "cheese is heavenly". As irony, "spinach is delicious". As identity, A is A. As description, "the Eiffel Tower is a wrought-iron structure erected in Paris for the World Exhibition of 1889 with a height of 300 metres". As definition, "a unicorn is a mythical animal typically represented as a horse with a single straight horn projecting from its forehead". As assumption, "drinking a lot of water is good for you".
The word "is" in "snow is white" is not used as an identity, but as a definition.
Where does meaning and truth exist
Consider the proposition in an object language "snow is white". To know whether it is true or not first requires knowing what it means. As with the example of Ancient Egyptian, meaning cannot be discovered within the language itself, no matter that the language is coherent, no matter that it describes the world within which it exists. Meaning is discovered external to the language itself, whether the Rosetta Stone, or a dictionary created in a performative act within a metalanguage.
The meaning of the object language exists within the metalanguage, not in the object language. Similarly, the truth of the analytic proposition "snow is white" exists not in the object language but in the metalanguage.
Consider the proposition in the object language "the bird is blue". The meaning of the object language exists within the metalanguage, not in the object language. The truth of the synthetic proposition "the bird is blue" requires not only its meaning which exists only in the metalanguage and not the object language but also a perception of the world that the bird is blue
Where is the world
I perceive something in the world. If I believed in Idealism, the world would exist in a mind. If I believed in Realism, the world would exist mind-independently.
My argument so far requires that I perceive a world, but whether this world exists in my mind or exists mind-independently makes no difference to either the meaning or truth of the analytic "snow is white" or synthetic "the bird is blue". As an aside, Wittgenstein's Tractatus may also be read independently of any belief in Idealism or Realism.
The creation of meaning and truth
I perceive in the world something that is cold, white and frozen. In a performative act I name this something "snow". Subsequent to this performative act, "snow" means something cold, white and frozen and it is true that "snow" is something cold, white and frozen.
Meaning and truth have been created in a performative act.
The problem of the nature of objects and properties
I perceive something in the world that is cold, white and frozen, and in a performative act name it "snow". Later I may discover that "snow" is not only cold, white and frozen but also H2O. How can the same object have different properties ? This raises the question of what "snow" is exactly. It raises the question of what any noun is, whether it be snow, table, the Moon, the Eiffel Tower, etc.
Bradley, for example, questioned the nature of objects and their properties. He starts with the example of a lump of sugar. He notes that there appears to be such a thing as a lump of sugar and this thing appears to have qualities such as whiteness, sweetness, and hardness. But, asks Bradley, what is this thing that bears properties? On the one hand, he thinks it is odd to assume that there is something to the lump of sugar beside its several qualities, thus implying that postulating a property-less bearer of properties is incoherent. On the other hand, he notes that the lump cannot merely be its qualities either, since the latter must somehow be united.
For Bradley, unity or coexistence of qualities presupposes relations, which is why he questioned our concept of relations, leading to questioning the ontological existence of relations.
IE, "snow" is not an object existing in the world. "Snow" is a name given to a set of properties that exist in the world.
A solution to the Liar Paradox
Consider the statement "this statement is false". Tarski diagnosed the paradox as arising only in languages that are "semantically closed", and to avoid self-contradiction, it is necessary to envisage levels of language, the object language and the metalanguage. The metalanguage is where truth and meaning are created in performative acts.
When I name this ship the Queen Elizabeth, the ship only has the name Queen Elizabeth at the conclusion of my performative act. At the conclusion of my utterance "I name this ship" it is not yet true that the words "I name this ship" refer to the proposition " I name this ship Queen Elizabeth".
Similarly, the statement "this statement is false" only has meaning at the conclusion of my performative act. At the conclusion of my utterance "this statement", it is not yet true that the words "this statement" refer to the proposition "this statement is false".
IE, within the performative act, "this statement" doesn't refer to the statement "this statement is false".
Summary
Truth is a creation of a performative act, in that, in naming this ship the Queen Elizabeth, it becomes true that this ship is named Queen Elizabeth.
My conclusion may be summed up by a line from that great film "The Shooter" - The Truth is what I say it is
I dont understand the use-mention comparison. If P is the way the world is when P is true, this implies that P already has a use/meaning. And Ps being a way the world is is not a use of P (or a use of language).
Truth conditions are on the right
Well, P is not the way the world is. "The way the world is" is part of the metaphysical picture of truth that I posited. In the metaphysical picture you have representation on the left-hand-side, and represented on the right-hand side.
But in the logic you have the mention-operator, variables, the copula, T, and the domain for P (I said sentences, but I should say statements)
Note that in the logic there is no way the world is or isn't or anything. There are only variables that can be substituted for English sentences. (I would accept other natural languages as well, just using English since we're using English) -- that is, this is stripped of the metaphysical baggage. Instead we have a logic with a formula and defined operators and domains, and then we fill in what the predicate T means based on the meanings of English (that you and I already know).
Quoting Banno
Quoting Banno
(3) is about the sentence "snow is white". (1) is not. How are they both facts? As a result of logical equivalence?
I'd say they are both facts because they are both true statements, and facts are true statements.
At the very least, this is how we talk about them.
So in the case of 3, if we were to set out the T sentence:
" "Snow is white" is true" is T iff "Snow is white" is true.
You can tier this up as high as you like.
This might be the problem:
Quoting Luke
This is not quite the same as saying a fact is a true statement. "Most of us" would do well to look at a broader range of examples.
Who, me?
You mean that "snow is white" is not a fact, because facts are things in the world, like that snow is white, and so while "snow is white" represents a fact, it is not a fact?
Isn't that what I have been arguing?
I'm also pointing out that it would be problematic if someone were to say other wise. Consider these two sentences:
I.
II.
A subtle difference. Which is preferable? I say (I), but you and @bongo fury appear to be advocating (II).
I must have that wrong.
Yeah, I think that that is a key consideration here. Logic is an accounting practice of that which already existed in its entirety prior to being taken into account.
Quoting Banno
And then...
Quoting Moliere
Quoting Banno
:brow:
You're welcome.
:wink:
This touches on the fundamental error in of many in this thread. The topic is truth, and not belief or justification. The substantive theories work (more or less) as theories of belief or justification, but not as theories of truth. They tell us when we might appropriately hold something to be true, but not what truth is.
So, as an example, disquotation is discounted by some here, not because it is inadequate as a theory of truth, but because it is inadequate as a theory of belief or justification.
See https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/13349/the-logic-of-truth/p1, where I began to set out the strategy Tarski adopted in developing his theory of truth. This strategy informs the logic of truth.
Oh, my bad. The reassurance was directed at the etymology.
Quoting creativesoul
Statements are not facts. "Snow is white" is a true statement, but not a fact. That snow is white is a fact. '"Snow is white" is true' is a fact. And '"Snow is white" is a true statement' is a fact.
The difference is in what is being done with each. See my reply to Luke, above.
The etymology is interesting, because the term "true" was first used in the sense of being consistent with what has/had occurred, long prior to the term "fact" being coined and/or being used in a manner inconsistent with what had occurred. The first use was that sense, what has/had ocurred. I cannot be too certain off the top of my head, but it seems like a couple of centuries went by...
"Fact" in the sense of the case at hand is notably different than "fact" as what has/had occurred. Those are both distinct from "fact" as a true statement.
That would be basic correspondence theory, yes. My picture 1. Something I thought that neither of us agreed with but only one of us was capable of discussing coherently.
Quoting Banno
Cough, splutter...
Quoting Banno
Perhaps (in the light of your new reflections) you meant "the thing represented by the sentence on the right is a fact"? (Similar to the clarification offered here.)
But then that would be exactly where a sentence does correspond to a fact. (According to the theory being discussed though not espoused.) And the correspondence might be whatever you just called representation.
And if the truth is what you say it is, does it follow that what you say is true, is true?
Can you cast spells?
Don't be too concerned, you'll catch on.
See this argument. It tries to capture were we differ.
See this reply.
I'd like to hear what you have to say about this:
Quoting Banno
Again, it seems to me that you are suggesting that (II) is the better account. Am I wrong?
This by way of looking for a middle position.
Are there any truth conditions, or is it simply an algebraic biconditional?
Quoting Moliere
Isn't that just substituting "domain" for "the world"?
Quoting Moliere
This still does not explain (or I still don't understand) the use-mention metaphor. Is it supposed to be the same as the use-mention distinction?
No, it's the same as saying that a river is a fact.
Tarski's work doesn't really apply to ordinary language use. Whatever we chose to do with the T-schema, as it relates to ordinary language use, will have to be stipulated.
Don't refinements usually imply improvement?
And I think, contra , that Tarski's analysis informs our use of "true" in natural languages.
I wasn't sure. @Pie certainly appeared to be arguing against the distinction. I didn't know whether this was a common view among deflationists.
Quoting Banno
Not according to @bongo fury's recent quote of yours, it seems:
Quoting Banno
Are you saying "The cat is on the mat" is not a sentence?
No.
I'm having the greatest difficulty in seeing what your objection is. Please take a look at
Quoting Banno
Which is better? Because, again, you seem to be advocating (II).
Yes. (I) is fine, as I say:
Quoting bongo fury
Now read on...
No, I'm not advocating II. That snow is white does not represent a fact; it is a fact.
And what of (II)?
You can't really call Tarski's work an "analysis." He wasn't analyzing anything.
If you use the T-schema to say something regarding ordinary, natural language use, you'll have to stipulate how you want to approach that. Tarski doesn't do that for you.
...and now you seem to be agreeing with me.
:groan:
Quoting bongo fury
(II) is nonsense.
Address the other.
I agree. And yet it seems to be what you are saying.
Quoting bongo fury
This is addressing the other.
To what extent I understand that paper, I agree with you. I'm just ripping the schema from Tarski more than applying what Tarski said, and putting together something like a simple logic that I thought might bridge some understandings. I have tried that Tarski paper more than once, and I wouldn't dare tell someone here what it means. :D
The distinction between logic and metaphysics seemed pertinent. So I thought I could "step things down" from abstract-description to something like a logic, a simple set of symbols and their accepted formulae -- away from facts and general pictures of the world (seeing as I, at least, find that inadequate anymore... truth is so much more than correspondence)
Point taken. I'm going from secondary sources rather than the horse's mouth. My understanding is that Tarski's truth predicate is entirely formal. It's not truth as it appears in the wild.
So the T-schema could just as easily be a B-schema:
"P" is blob IFF P.
What's blob? It's just a gear in a logic machine. It's a mistake to read folk notions into that.
Quoting Moliere
Exactly.
The original use of "true" was set out earlier by me, and it meant consistent with what occurred. I personally do not employ the notion of "fact" because of - as you like to say - all of its philosophical baggage. I tend to stick to the long form. But, given that not all true statements are so as a result of being consistent with what happened and/or is happening, it seems reasonable to extend its application to being consistent with the way things were and/or are as well as the case at hand. I say this, if for no other reason than to account for things like claims about personal preferences, as well as social conventions and other parts of reality that emerge via language use.
It's interesting to me, as well, how the original use did not involve being taken account of. I mean, we began using the term "true" long before ever considering that and/or how we were. The same goes for "truth". It was only later that skepticism over the use emerged.
Maybe just start another thread. Name it something kind of obscure so the moderators will leave it be.
But it's sunny, so not yet.
I agree with that understanding as you've spelt it out here.
So stipulating English statements.
What do you mean by "statement"? A proposition?
:up:
I'm not sure I'm satisfied with that, especially in part because I don't like the directional metaphor -- more, or less than? Up or down?
I suppose it's better to say that correspondence seems to work-for, but it's not something you'd consider a universal theory of truth, or something. Or, you could, but you could also, with that, build ontologies of tables and not-tables and such. And that's just a bit too much for me.
Quoting Tate
I'd settle for any used English sentence, including sentences on this thread.
Used? So truth only applies to the content of human interaction?
Not truth, but the meta-predicate "-B", let's say -- to mark its queerness.
If we care about the liars paradox, say, then these things can be introduced through the power of the semantics of English (which are probably absurdly powerful, even limited to just statements?)
That's fine. It just has to be clarified. We should also note that in limiting truth to the content of human interaction, we're making a judgment about a portion of truth predication in ordinary language use.
We're saying that when people speak of truths which have not yet been discovered, they're mistaken, or speaking metaphorically, or are confused.
How should we address that?
Kneel before the error theory! embrace the error theory! :D
That's the elegant solution.
I don't know. There's usually blood and guts everywhere when we try to do surgery on natural language use.
Heh. Well, that's why it's a "for us" predicate. Sort of like a rule to a game, you could say. If an incision matters to a community of users, well -- then the incision matters, and the predicate -B obtains meaning among those who use said predicate.
You mean just for the two of us?
Universality could be a concern of ours, though, right? That's usually part of the game. But it's anyone here still participating and interested to define said predicate. And part of the game, as it is, is that it's totally breakable. But then that's how you start to introduce rules.
Of course, the queerness is just meant to mark how we are just playing a game between us, but obviously we're still interested in truth. That's how this all started after all. But the game is queer enough that I thought I'd stipulate.
[quote=Tate]truth is so much more than correspondence
Moliere
Exactly.[/quote]
In a sous rature (under erasure) kinda way or in some other way?
No theory of truth is going to cover every use of the concept truth. It seems that most uses of the concept, though, do point to a relationship between propositional beliefs, and states-of-affairs. In this sense there is a kind of correspondence or association between the propositional belief, and those states-of-affairs that make the proposition true, as opposed to false. As with the word game, we have a set of family resemblances that guide us when using the concept. There are no hard and fast definitions that work in every social context.
I'll mention it again as it bears repeating.
a) "snow is white" is true iff snow is white
b) "snow is green" is true iff snow is green
However we make sense of the consequent of the T-schema I think it should apply to both (a) and (b). It is not a fact that snow is green. Although there may be times, like with (a), where the consequent is a fact, there are times, like with (b), where it isn't. A rigorous account of the T-schema should cover both cases.
So, "p" is true iff p. What sort of thing is p? It is not always a fact. Maybe an answer to that will tell us what sort of thing a fact is.
The truth is what I say it is
I perceive the world and observe something white. In a performative utterance, I name this something "black". Henceforth, for me, "something is black" is true iff something is white, and the truth for me is that "black" is white.
Unfortunately, those in authority within society had previously in a performative utterance named this something "white", such that society as a whole accepts that "something is white" is true iff something is white, and the truth for society as a whole is that "white" is white.
Truth is relative. There is no absolute truth. My truth is no more valid nor less valid than anyone else's. It may be true that I will have difficulty fitting in with society, but that is no judge as to what I know to be true. After all, in 1633, the Inquisition of the Roman Catholic Church forced Galileo Galilei, one of the founders of modern science, to recant his theory that the Earth moves around the Sun, and under threat of torture, Galileo so recanted.
Is what I say true, true
I make the performative utterance "I name this ship Queen Elizabeth".
I can then say that it is true that this ship is named Queen Elizabeth.
Is what I say is true, true ?
(What I say is true) is (this ship is named Queen Elizabeth)
So yes, (this ship is named Queen Elizabeth) is true
So yes, what I say is true is true.
Spells
A spell has magic power. Magic produces supernatural effects. The supernatural exists outside the natural world. The natural world is matter, energy, time and space. My belief is that there is nothing outside the natural world, though I don't know.
Therefore, I believe that I cannot cast spells, but I cannot say that I know that I cannot cast spells.
Sometimes something is true because you say it. You cannot apply the above reasoning to everything.
There you go, from the great Keats himself!
I don't think so. Most uses of "truth" point to honesty, as in "are you telling the truth?". It's just a certain type of philosopher, practising a defective form of epistemology, who wants to reduce "telling the truth" to a "relationship between propositional beliefs, and states-of-affairs".
This proposed reduction ignores the fact that 'telling the truth" refers to making a statement about what one honestly believes, and there is no necessary connection between what one honestly believes, and any real "states of affairs". So, this proposal, made by some epistemologists, that "truth" is mostly used to "point to a relationship between propositional beliefs, and states-of-affairs" is fundamentally flawed. It is flawed because there is no necessary relationship between one's honest belief, which "truth" is normally used to refer to, and any real "states-of-affairs".
Consequently, these epistemologists will endlessly discuss how it is possible that "truth" could actually refer to a relationship between propositional beliefs and states-of-affairs, because there will always be a problem which makes it impossible that this is actually the case. And of course, that is because there is no necessary relationship between one's honest belief, what "truth" actually refers to, and any real states-of-affairs.
"Beauty is truth" is -B iff Beauty is truth
Some might object and say "beauty" is the sort of thing which has to be not-included, because -- but the because is where a new rule is introduced between us. Or perhaps we're fine with accepting this as an example statement that comes to define -B for us -- we're realists of beauty, and such uses don't bother us, in fact we encourage such uses because the logical form gets along with our metaphysical belief in beauty as a real thing unto itself that can be successfully predicated.
The formal predicate, being formal, can be anything we want. But since we're talking about truth we'd probably use example sentences which try to break or test that. But it's true that we could focus on another meta-lingual predicate (say "...is persuasive") and the set of statements we agree to, along with the rules for why we agreed to them, would inform our meaning of the meta-lingual predicate.
Beauty, to me, is the very cosmos itself!
The T schema does cover both of these cases. If snow is not green, then the antecedent is not true. You could ask: why is it not a fact that snow is green? And: what would make it a fact?
Quoting Michael
For almost every case I can imagine, p is always a fact of our world, our conventions and/or our myths and stories. These might all amount to the same thing.
Per Wittgenstein:
I meant that when we make sense of the T-schema we cannot simply say that the consequent is a fact because sometimes it isn't.
Quoting Luke
Is there some singular term we can use to describe the sort of thing p is? Maybe "narrative"? Sometimes that narrative is a fact and sometimes it is a fiction. Which is really just another way of saying that sometimes the narrative is true and sometimes it is false, making the T-schema just the deflationary theory that the sentences "'p' is true" and "p" mean the same thing.
Agree. Most of the time I accept the names given to things by society, such as ships, tables, governments, etc. However there are occasions when there are no existing words that fit the bill. For example, to make a philosophic point, two years ago I made the performative utterance: "a peffel is part my pen and part The Eiffel Tower". For me, it is now true that the "peffel" is part my pen and part the Eiffel Tower.
Cool.
So truth is a family-resemblance concept. There are no hard and fast definitions that work for all contexts. So, consequently, there is no universal theory of truth.
What does that tell us about truth, then? And how are we even able to compare these theories? Is it that there is no truth at all, or an undefined truth? Or is there simply a toy logic we invent in the moment which allows us to temporarily compare these theories among one another, but which ultimately results in no insight -- a formalism of truth?
Heh, hopefully I'm just making a point about the domain of "P" -- though this is philosophy, and I wouldn't be surprised if I'm on team anti-parade :D
Sure, I'm happy to call it "narrative". Or maybe our current conceptual frame.
Quoting Michael
I don't agree that the distinction between fact and fiction corresponds to the distinction between true and false. It is true that Mickey Mouse wears red shorts and that vampires have no reflection.
Quoting Michael
It is redundant if "p" means nothing more than "'p' is true". But this tells us nothing about why "p" might be false.
a) "snow is white" is true iff snow is white
b) snow is white iff "snow is white" is true
As a biconditional both are correct, but I have this intuitive sense that they can be interpreted differently. Perhaps this is related to the paradoxes of material implication.
That's true.
"vampires have no reflection" is true iff vampires have no reflection
"snow is white" is true iff snow is white
The T-schema doesn't really say anything about facts at all. It may, incidentally, be a fact that snow is white (or in some parallel world that vampires have no reflection), but the T-schema is silent on that.
As I mentioned before, we need a more substantive account of meaning (and perhaps truth) to actually get anywhere important.
That's why I said we should consider why we say that a statement is false. I suggested it could be due to being in conflict with our current conceptual frame:
Quoting Luke
The correspondence theory of truth - necessary but not sufficient, ok, but in what sense? Logically, aesthetically, spiritually, for no apparent reason, on a whim, a fancy, what?
Quoting Moliere
:up:
Ah, OK -- what's wrong with correspondence. Why bother switching out what works?
I think that in specifying what correspondence consists in we end up hypostatizing truth -- we treat what is basically conceptual as if it has properties of its own. But I can understand that that's not a universal concern, more of a me-thing. A general suspicion of metaphysical talk is something which is usually in the background of my thinking. Here we end up using "fact" like there are these facts independent of our use of language which secure our language-use. And so correspondence consists in a sort of relationship between Propositions and Facts, both separate one from another.
But in setting out what a fact is, at least in speech, the facts begin looking pretty similar to propositions. Like there isn't really a difference being drawn as much as we're inventing a story to make sense of this "truth" character.
We could say, noting their similarity in philosophy, that Facts have a way of invalidating our use of Propositions. So perhaps we cannot say what facts are, but they show themselves at all times.
But then here we are, a fact among facts interacting with facts -- and nothing really ties "facts" together at this level, no predicate will assemble them all. Especially as you begin to include the not-plums within the ice box. Why not the not-plums differentiated? There were two not-plums in the icebox, one not-green the other purple.
How many entities can we create with such a logic? An infinite explosion. And what rules would be introduced to stop that?
This all being an attempt to show there are problems with correspondence as we try to specify exactly what it means insofar that you think an ontology of not-things and not-predicates isn't desirable.
...
There is also the slingshot argument in the back of my mind, given the formalisms. To my mind the only way to stop the slingshot argument is to deny substitutability. But in so denying it seems to me that it's conceded that truth is not universal -- and so we get back to questioning the very rule or intended target of a universal rule of truth.
We like to imagine animal signals as, in essence, caused by the occurrence of particular features within the animal's environment. The vervet monkey "emits" a particular sound associated with a particular predator when that predator is present (and, I believe, only when there are other vervet monkeys around to hear it). There is no question of honesty here.
When we demand (or command, or request, etc.) that someone tell the truth, we are demanding that they behave in a certain way. It would be a senseless demand of an animal that has no choice in the matter. But at the same time, we are demanding that the speaker relinquish their freedom to say whatever they like and instead be bound by the truth.
If we look at displacement, it may become clearer. If the vervet monkey's calls are caused by their environment, you cannot ask one about a call they made yesterday. In the absence of the stimulus, they simply do not make that call, and the stimulus is in the past. Similarly, you cannot ask such an animal what call they would make if a particular predator were present. If it's not actually present, no call.
Linguistic animals like us can use displacement though, so we can ask someone to say what they said when they encountered something yesterday. Then we can reason from the words produced to the stimulus present, but only if we trust the link between what you said yesterday and the environment you were in yesterday. That is, only if we believe that, yesterday, on encountering what you did, you had no choice about whether to say what you did.
In a sense, this is all counterfactual business: you can ask someone to speak as if this situation now were the one they were in yesterday. And, further, if the link between your experience and what you say is not so snug as it is for non-linguistic creatures, we can ask you to behave as if it were. That is, we can ask you to say what you would, if you were in some particular situation, and if you had no choice about what to say.
On such an account, bizarre and cartoonish though it may be, honesty is a matter of the connection between a, possibly hypothetical or counterfactual, situation and what you would say in that situation. You can interpose beliefs here if you like, but the content of such beliefs goes back to situations. (For it to matter to your speech that you think, correctly or not, this is a snake-situation, you have to know how to speak in snake-situations.)
When we talk about truth, we're referring to what people believe. Some theories provide a better answer to the question of truth than other theories. I happen to think the correspondence theory works well.
Usually when people agree that a particular statement is true, they agree on some fact of the matter. In some cases we're just speculating about the truth, or we are just giving an opinion about what we think is true. In still more cases we may express a theory that X is true, as Einstein did with the general theory of relativity. It wasn't until Eddington verified Einstein's theory that we knew the truth of the matter. Here of course truth is connected with knowledge, not just an opinion or speculation.
If you want to learn what truth is, then study how the concept is used in a wide variety of situations, i.e., in our forms of life. Think about people disagreeing about political or economic views, they're disagreeing about the facts associated with these views. Most don't know enough to recognize what facts make their belief true or false, so their disagreeing over opinions, and some are willing to kill over their opinions, but I digress.
What's true can also refer to possible worlds, and to works of fiction. So, there can be facts associated with things that aren't even real. Anything we do is associated with some fact, and as such it can be associated with what we believe.
There is definitely the concept of truth, so it's not as though the concept doesn't exist, or that it doesn't have a place within our various linguistic contexts.
Insight is gained by looking carefully at the various uses of these concepts. The problem is that many people want exactness where there is none, at least not in some absolute across the board sense. There are some absolutes when it comes to truth, but those absolutes are relative to a particular context.
This, is it a definition?, breaks down when we take into account the following facts:
1. How do we determine correspondence with reality? Via observation or more colloquially looking, sensu amplissimo. What about maya?
2. What about, as I already mentioned, some mathematical truths that have no matching counterpart in reality that has left us guessing is math invented or discovered?
3. Intriguingly we have the ability to assume a proposition as true, there being no requirement for an assumption to describe reality. Fideism?
4. Left for the reader as an exercise.
You present an argument that language is arbitrary, which in a sense it is, then jump to the non sequitur that truth is relative.
Quoting RussellA
You present an account of institutional facts, in which the direction of fit is word-to-world. and then jump to the non sequitur that all utterances are of this sort. They are not.
I comment any of Searle's more recent writings on these topics to you. He explains in detail how these ideas relate. Or you could have another look at my thread on institutional facts.
T-sentences do fit every* case of "'p' is true", but at the cost of triviality.
But further, as with any term in a language, we don't need a definition in order to be able to use "true". We demonstrate what it means by our use of the term. (PI §201, again)
The exercise here is to find an appropriate grammar that explicates what is going on. But that is hidden in the discussion, especially by the notion of "correspondence".
&
*allowing deranged epitaphs. The Liar paradox being an example.
What does telling the truth consist in if not giving an honest and accurate account. What does giving an honest and accurate account consist in if not a correspondence of the the account with whatever it is (purporting to be) an account of?
To what does this correspond?
"Frodo walked in to Mordor" is true ? Frodo walked in to Mordor.
To what does this correspond?
"Frodo walked in to Sydney" is true ? Frodo walked in to Sydney.
To what does this correspond?
"No bachelor is married" is true ? No bachelor is married.
To what does this correspond?
"All bachelors are married" is true ? all bachelors are married.
To what does this correspond?
"This sentence is false" is true ? this sentence is false
To what does this correspond?
Ands so on. By the time you give an account of correspondence, there is nothing left.
Would you agree in saying there is no universal theory of truth?
I think the examples elucidate the concept of truth. And, in a given discussion, the examples would elucidate the predicate -B which stands for truth, but with the understanding that it gets updated with every iteration, with every example.
We'll see which one gets priority in my too-hard-for-me-now-matrix -- Levinas or Davidson.
But that T-sentences are a way of defining truth.
So we understand what truth is, but not which things are true.
This comes back to the pivotal distinction between truth on the one hand and belief, justification, warrant and so on on the other.
So correspondence and coherence and the other substantive theories are theories of belief, justification, warrant and so on, but not of truth. And each tries to limit the determination of which sentences are true, and works, to a point, then fails.
"this sentence has thirty one letters" is true iff this sentence has thirty one letters
The above sentence has seventy one letters, but the quoted sentence has thirty one. Do we have to make the "this sentence" in the consequent refer only to the consequent and not the biconditional as a whole?
"this sentence is false" is true iff this sentence is false
If we accept that the T-schema is true then, using the above, "this sentence is false" is false (assuming the consequent is referring to the biconditional as a whole).
That would need to be done with normal everyday language use.
T sentences are shorthand. I've an issue with the very notion of propositions, so clearly with the accounting practices involving p are included in that, but I'm very fond of the simplicity of Tarksi's formulation, despite not placing as much or the same sort of value upon logic as folks like yourself.
"this sentence has thirty one letters" is true iff that sentence has thirty one letters
You mucked up which sentence you were talking about.
And that's somewhat a whole other subset of thoughts on truth -- how to resolve the liars paradox.
I'd say that's an answer, but I didn't want to go with it because it leads into a whole other topic unto itself. As in, various theories of truth resolve the liars paradox in their own ways. It's not something unique to the formula.
That's not disquotation then. It isn't in the form "p" iff p. Yours is "p" if q.
In Tarski's case, by separating the metalanguage from the object language, so that such self-referential sentences cannot be constructed.
So it has limited applicability to natural languages as self-referential sentences can be constructed in English.
What theory of truth is able to make sense of the English sentence "this sentence has thirty one letters" being true then?
Remember this?
Quoting Michael
Whatever happens with liar, true or false, the T-sentence is true.
Indeed, if one adopts a third truth value, between true and false, the T-sentence remains true.
"this sentence has thirty one letters" is in the object language.
In the metalanguage, we name that sentence "Fred". Fred is true if Fred had thirty one letters.
Fred has thirty one letters.
Fred is true.
Sure. I situate logic differently in that logic is an accounting practice. When taking account of that which already existed in its entirety prior to being taken into account, different sort of considerations arise... Such considerations are only established more along the lines of a priori reasoning.
Banno calls me an anti-realist as a result of the stance I take regarding what sorts of things can be true and what makes them so. A prediction is neither true nor false at the time it is made because it is about what has not yet happened. Correspondence to(consistency with) what has happened(fact, in the original sense of "true") plays a major role in my thinking. Seems to me that most academic circles realize that any substantial notion of truth needs to be able to account for or be amenable to correspondence... somehow.
And yet, amusingly, even if this is so, because it is a conditional, ("this sentence is false" is true iff this sentence is false) is true.
OK, but this is no longer deflation/disquotation/the T-schema, which are all just "p" is true iff p.
Your account now is "p" is true iff q.
The reason why the Liar is not truth apt is because it has no truth conditions.
I entertain dialethism, but actually the liar's paradox is one of the things I think I've come around on in saying it's not dialethic. Or, it can be, but that depends on the rules of logic we're willing to allow.
Not like that's a definite belief, as @Sam26 pointed out. Still thinking through that one.
But unsurprisingly, I'm not opposed to dialethism.
It always was. Putting p on both sides is a special case.
Edit: See here.
Each of these can be answered, I don't see a problem. But to think that "p is true, if and only if p" is some kind of answer, is to say nothing meaningful, it's tautological, and that's being kind. Is this how you learned to use the concept true? I took a philosophy class by Tarski and now I know what truth is. Most of that theory is just so convoluted. I get much more out of Wittgenstein's ideas, even if there are some problems, than theories like Tarski's.
Quoting Banno
Then it just seems to be saying that "p" is true iff its truth conditions obtain which is a pretty vacuous theory. So as I said earlier, a more substantial account of truth is needed. Correspondence, coherence, verificationism, etc.
"This sentence" is true iff this sentence.
That's a flaw in my view for what it is attempting to take into account does not always exclude temporality.
Not even sure what you're trying to do there...
It is a kind of game. But, then, I am saying logic is a kind of game, more or less.
T-sentences answer the first.
@Sam26 answered the second, but few noticed.
Quoting creativesoul
It needn't. See Indexicals and Temporal Logic
So that criticism of logic falls flat on its face.
Indeed. This stuff is complex.
Ah, playing with the T-schema.
Accounting malpractices of human belief. That's what they all amount to.
Ought it be?
My twenty-seven-month-old granddaughter understood just fine when she heard someone say something about the fridge that was not true. Her behaviour showed that beyond a reasonable doubt. The interesting aspect of that was that at the time she was barely capable of stringing two or three words together, but she knew right away that "there's nothing in there" was false when an adult said that talking about the fridge.
"The man with ten coins in his pocket" refers to Smith and Smith alone, because it is Smith who is doing the thinking. Smith's belief is true only if, only when, and only because Smith gets the job. Smith did not believe anyone but himself would get the job. Gettier's accounting malpractice would like us to believe otherwise.
In the second case, Smith believed Jones owned a Ford. He did not believe that Brown was in Barcelona. It is only as a result of believing that Jones owned a Ford that he would believe "Either Jones owns a Ford or Brown is in Barcelona". He believed "either Jones owns a Ford or Brown is in Barcelona" was true because Jones owned a Ford. Gettier leaves out the last bit, which is the most important bit of Smith's belief in the second case.
Again, an accounting malpractice of Smith's beliefs. Smith's belief was justified false belief in both cases. False belief is not a problem for JTB.
To be clear, it's not a charge against Gettier so much as it is a charge against the convention he used. He followed the rules. The rules allowed the accounting malpractice.
I could not have imagined or wished for such a great real life example. I laughed so hard as a result of her opening the door to show that stuff was in there... The way she uttered "ders dat, nnn dat, nnn dat, nnn dat.... She was so emphatically serious.
:lol:
Did you miss the anecdote about my granddaughter? You may appreciate it greatly.
With regard to Witt's notion of hinge propositions, does her knowledge require any more subsequent justification?
There's some sort of bedrock there, I would think.
Perhaps just knowing what the words mean is enough.
I think that that real life example tells us quite a bit about how we autonomously 'employ' correspondence long before ever being able to talk about it. It may tell us something about unreflective thought and belief and the presupposition of correspondence within it.
Correspondence is primary.
If being justified means being well grounded, then sure. If it means providing reasons to support a knowledge claim, then no.
I tend towards justification as being well grounded, which does not necessarily require language use.
You may be right, I just thought that her belief that stuff was in the fridge was well grounded, true, and required no further subsequent justification method.
That came long after the first known uses of "true" and "truth"...
It is well grounded. What more of a grounding does one need in this situation?
Exactly. Sounds like there's quite a bit of overlap in our positions regarding that.
I think that is wrong. Animal signals are caused by the animal itself, not the animal's environment. The human being acts by free will for example, not "caused" by one's environment, and the actions of other living things are created in a similar manner. The living being's actions are influenced by, and affected by it's environment, but not caused by its environment.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
This paragraph is consistent with what I said, but it is inconsistent with what you said, about animal signals being caused by the animal's environment. Here, you imply that the human being is free to choose, to either tell the truth or not. If a human being chooses not to tell the truth, how can this act be construed as having been caused by one's environment.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
This type of speculation is all pointless, because the person can choose to be dishonest. You cannot base your speculation about what "honesty" is by assuming that a person will act in an honest way when asked to, because this ignores the reality that a person may just as likely choose to act dishonestly.
Quoting Janus
The point is that there is no necessary relation between giving an honest and accurate account, and the account corresponding to to whatever it is purported to be an account of. Therefore, giving an honest and accurate account is not the same thing as providing an account which corresponds with the thing given an account of. The necessity required, to say what you say here, is not there.
In relation to "truth" then, if to tell the truth is to give an honest and accurate account, then there is no necessity that "the truth" which is spoken, actually corresponds with the reality of the thing which the spoken truth has given an account of.
There is a trend in epistemology to give "truth" some kind of unreal, divine definition which would have "truth" be a type of exact account of the reality of the thing given an account of, or even some form of precise replication of the thing using words, ("snow is white" is true iff snow is white, for example), but this is a completely mistaken idea of what we ought to think "truth" really is. Human beings are incapable of providing such precise, exact replications of reality through the use of words, so we ought to allow that if they provide to us, a replication of what they truly believe, to the best of their ability, they are speaking "the truth".
Gosh, my bad.
I'll try to do better.
Therefore... they are not free...
What do you mean by asking for a "necessary relation"? Aren't all relations contingent...on context? The contingent relation would be one of correlation; we can see that the description is an accurate portrayal of what is described, can't we? At least we feel convinced that we can, and felling convinced is just that: a feeling; If we feel convinced, then what more can be said? Unless someone were to come up with a an argument powerful enough to unseat that feeling. How often have you seen that happening?
Not exactly. I mentioned before that in The Semantic Conception of Truth (1944) Tarski only said that the T-schema must be implied by the definition of truth, and that he offered something else as the definition ("a sentence is true if it is satisfied by all objects, and false otherwise").
But also in Truth and Proof (1969), where he explains that the T-schema is only a partial definition:
But, again, my example of "this sentence has thirty one letters" seems to be an exception to the partial definition given by (3) and the general definition given by (5). It doesn't seem that either (3) or (5) can fully account for self-referential sentences.
Also, I should add, even his 1933 paper explains that the T-schema is not a general definition of truth:
What kind of conclusion is that? Do you think "free" means incapable of considering the environmental circumstances when choosing one's actions? That would be more like "random" wouldn't it?
Quoting Janus
I don't quite understand your use of "contingent" here. If you ask someone to tell the truth about something that happened, and the person gives you an honest reply, there is no necessity which would allow you to conclude that the person's reply is an accurate portrayal of what happened. The person might have a faulty memory, as we all do to some extent. This produces the need to allow for all sorts of varying degrees of what you call accuracy, depending on what features of the particular occurrence you are asking the person to describe.
I do not see where any sense of "contingency" is relevant here. The person's reply is not contingent on any specific feature of the occurrence, and might actually recount something totally irrelevant to what is asked for. So we can validly conclude that it is not contingent on any form of "correlation" at all. And, I do not even understand your sense of "correlation" here either. That word implies an interdependence, a mutual relation between things. How would the context, in any way, depend on the description, unless the context was totally fictional, being created by the description? But if that were the case, then there is really no context at all to be involved in such a correlation.
Oh gawd, now you're doing it.
Quoting Michael
Which one, then? Please choose, and not equivocate. E.g.
Quoting Michael
p the truth-bearing sentence/proposition/consequent, or p some corresponding, truth-making non-word-string?
Quoting RussellA
An interesting puzzle, though, is how, relative to a language game, truth can be absolute as well as relative.
Quoting Banno
So this is what you now say.
Quoting Banno
In light of your new reflections, then, do you endorse the following clarification?
I'm unsure.
Snow being green isn't a sentence, so what is it?
Quoting Michael
Do you mean the word-string "snow being green" or something else? Are you unsure about that?
Something else.
Snow being green isn't a sentence. Snow being white isn't a sentence. Vampires being immortal isn't a sentence.
Do you mean that some alleged (truth-making) non-word-string corresponding to or referred to by the word-string "snow being white", or indeed by the word-string "snow is white", isn't a sentence?
I think that was @Luke's point, but fair enough. So you would clarify thus:
Quoting Michael
?
Or are you still unsure whether it's correct to call a (truth-bearing) sentence or proposition a fact?
I mean exactly what I said; that snow being green isn't a sentence. What I'm unsure of is what snow being green is.
Quoting bongo fury
Here's a sentence:
a) Joe Biden is President
I would say that the subject of the sentence is a person. I wouldn't say that the subject of the sentence corresponds to a person.
So here's another sentence:
b) "snow is white" is true iff snow is white
Perhaps the consequent of (b) is a fact, similar to how the subject of (a) is a person.
Well I would recommend it, in any discussion of semantics, as "subject" is notoriously ambiguous between word and object, and often clarified for example by use of "grammatical subject" versus "logical subject". (Which at least serves to flag up the issue.)
Quoting Michael
If you don't see how my clarification might prevent people from thinking you were talking about the word string "snow being green" not being a sentence, then I must suspect you are becoming enchanted by systematic equivocation.
Given that I didn't use quotation marks it should be obvious. Most of us understand the difference between use and mention.
a) snow being green isn't a sentence
b) "snow being green" isn't a sentence
These mean different things. That should be obvious to any competent English speaker.
Banno said the following:
[i]"Tarski took that notion and applied it to truth, and showed that, just as there are always theorems that cannot be proved, there cannot be a definition of truth within that language. Another language is needed, or at least an extension of the language.
The proof takes a first-order language with "+" and "=", and assigns a Gödel number to every deduction, as in the incompleteness proofs. It then finds a Gödel number for a definition of truth, and shows that it is not amongst the list of Gödel numbers of the deductions. Hence, that definition is not amongst the deductions of the language.
In plain language, an arithmetic system cannot define arithmetic truth, for itself.
Hence it was apparent to Tarski that in order to talk about truth, one needed an object language and a metalanguage. This is what he developed in his definition of truth."[/i]
There seems to be something amiss here, viz., applying Gödel's incompleteness theory to the definition of truth. Tarski thinks that since there are theorems that cannot be proven within a system, that he can use this idea to create a meta-language, and thereby create a definition of truth outside our ordinary language (be it English, Italian, Spanish, etc). However, the question is, is this a misunderstanding of Gödel's theory. Gödel's theories apply to statements about number theory, so any mathematical theory that doesn't include statements about number theory are excluded from Godel's theories. So, there are limits to what Gödel is proposing. It seems a bit of a stretch, to say the least, to think Gödel incompleteness theory can be applied to the meaning of truth. I think that Tarski is stretching Godel a bit too far.
I disagree. Never mind.
Quoting Michael
Well sure, but a consequent is a sentence (or proposition). So you now reject
Quoting Michael
as tiresome pedantry? Ok. Since you don't claim to be denying corresponding truth-makers for whole sentences, I shall be less suspicious of equivocation.
Quoting Michael
Without truth-makers for whole sentences, this is unproblematic. It just means that " 'snow is green' is true" and "snow is green" share false instead of true as their common truth value.
And if you want more (rather than pure deflation) try
"True" applies to "snow is green" iff "green" applies to snow.
This talks about practices of classification.
c) unicorns are green
"True" applies to "unicorns are green" iff [more careful formulation, still false]
Fiction is literally false. Figurative truth translates usefully into literal truth about second-order extensions.
https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/556693
So perhaps Tarski is right in referencing Godel. What's wrong is interpreting Tarski as having said something about the meaning of "true" in our natural language (at least with respect to his 1933 paper).
This allows him to get away with just using sentences as truthbearers. In the real world, we don't have that luxury.
Tarski's star student, Richard Montague, denied there was any difference between formalized languages and natural languages, and considered linguistics a branch of mathematics. For what it's worth.
I agree that most of the time I accept the names given to things by society, such as ships, tables, governments, etc. However there are occasions when there are no existing words that fit the bill. For example, to make a philosophic point, two years ago I made the performative utterance: "a peffel is part my pen and part The Eiffel Tower".
I agree that most of the time the direction of fit is world to word, but there are occasions whereby word to world is also required.
===============================================================================
What is truth ?
I perceive in my world my pen and the Eiffel Tower. My pen and the Eiffel Tower are facts in my world.
Along the lines of the Tractatus, it is immaterial as to whether I believe in Idealism or Realism. Regardless, I know that my pen and the Eiffel Tower are facts in my world.
In a performative utterance, I name my pen and the Eiffel Tower a "peffel". A performative utterance is in a sense a christening, such as "I name this baby Horatio". I record my performative utterance in a (metaphorical) dictionary.
Before the performative utterance, in my world are the facts my pen and the Eiffel Tower. After the performative utterance, in my world are the facts a peffel, my pen and the Eiffel Tower.
In Searle's terms, a performative utterance is an Institutional activity. A performative utterance creates new Institutional facts, whether it is the fact that the bishop always stays on the same coloured squares, or a peffel is part my pen and part the Eiffel Tower. Institutional facts require a social obligation, whether I am obliged to move the bishop diagonally, or my listener is obliged to acknowledge the sense of the word peffel when used in conversation.
Under what conditions is the statement "a peffel is part my pen and part the Eiffel Tower" true ? Its truth value can only be known if its meaning is first known. The meaning of a "peffel" may be discovered in the dictionary, such that "a peffel is part my pen and part the Eiffel Tower". Knowing the meaning of a "peffel", and knowing that my pen and the Eiffel Tower are facts in my world, the statement "a peffel is part my pen and part the Eiffel Tower" is true.
It is said that dictionaries are not all that useful as meaning changes, but (metaphorical) dictionaries are foundational to knowing the nature of truth. It is true that definitions may change with time, in that Art as Postmodernism didn't exist before the 1960's, but as definitions change, our knowing what is true changes. Our knowledge of what is truth is not a fixed thing.
Under what conditions is the statement "A is X and Y" true. First, its meaning must be known. The meaning of "A" may be discovered in the dictionary, such that "A is X and Y". Knowing its meaning, and knowing that X and Y are facts in my world - the statement "A is X and Y" is true.
Therefore, a linguistic statement is true when, not only, the subject has been defined in a performative utterance as having the properties given in the predicate, but also, the predicate exists as facts in the world.
IE, rather than "snow is white" is true iff snow is white, I would suggest that "snow is white" is true iff not only has "snow" been defined as having the property "white" but also snow is white.
===============================================================================
Quoting Banno
Some aspects of language can be arbitrary, and other aspects can be relative.
I perceive something white in my world. I have a free choice as to what I name it. In a performative utterance I give it a name, I christen it "X". In a sense, my choice of "X" is arbitrary.
As regards "the truth is what I say it is", truth refers to the statement "snow is X" rather than the fact in the world that snow is X.
Situation one: I christen "snow" as "white".
"Snow is white" is true iff "snow" has been defined as "white" and snow is white.
Situation two: I christen "snow" as "black"
"Snow is black" is true iff "snow" has been defined as "black" and snow is white.
In a sense, the truth of the statement is relative to my arbitrary choice of the name I use when christening what I have perceived in my world.
:up:
Given the Sorites Paradox, we have a heap of sand. A heap is defined as "a large number of". Large is defined as considerable. Considerable is defined as large. Definitions become circular.
The word "heap" is as vague as any concept - love, hate, government, the colour red, tables, etc. Yet we have one word for something that is imprecise, for something vague yet is recognizable.
I suggest that the brain's ability to fix a single name to something that is variable is fundamentally statistical. For example, I am certain I see the colour green, I believe it is green, I am probably seeing green, I think it is green, it could be green, it may be green. Such statistically-based concepts could be readily programmed into a computer. Complex concepts may be developed from a set of simple concepts.
I think the T schema only works with sentences that begin with a universal quantifier. I cannot make much sense of my saying that, but it seems to me that I'm just repeating something Davidson and Quine said during a discussion between them about Tarski's definition and disquotation model.
Yes, although the circularity perhaps only reflects the fact that definitions are unnecessary. The game asks for judgements, but not reasons.
Quoting RussellA
Fair enough. My interest is more in the linguistic community's ability to fix the name. Recent research in the area is indeed statistical.
Quoting RussellA
Or, even better, developed by evolutionary algorithms that simulate cooperative language games. The results are indeed similar to your picture, or mine here:
But, as such, they all fail the sorites test, which requires some perfectly absolute intolerance, as well as tolerance. Is my gripe. As discussed.
I mentioned this to you because you seemed to be wrestling with the tension between individual (Humpty Dumpty) judgements and general norms. And I think that's what the sorites puzzle is about. As your reply maybe supports.
What could a truthful account of an event be if not an accurate portrayal of what happened? The question is not about how we can know whether an account is truthful or not. Taking your radical skeptical line we could never know. I could have witnessed the same event someone is giving an account of, and so be in a position to judge whether the account were truthful or not, but according to your line of reasoning, my memory might be faulty, which means I could never be in a position to judge the truthfulness of any account of anything.
But the point is we must understand what it would mean to be able to judge whether some account were truthful or not, in order to be skeptical about our ability to do so.
1. The spoken/written sentence
2. The proposition the listener/reader derives from 1
3. The state of affairs relevant to 2.
Truthhood obtains to 2 alone. 1 is inherently ambiguous, and is not in itself true or false.
Are scrawlings on a page or vibrations in the air true? Absurd, this is an obvious category error. They are symbols, only their interpretations can be true or false.
The answer is that the whole formulations do not correspond to anything, but the underlying logic is that the quoted sentence on the left in each case corresponds to an actuality it represents, as it is used on the right, if the sentence is true.
"The whole is greater than the sum of its parts" corresponds, if true, to the whole being greater than the sum of its parts.
"Frodo walked into Mordor" corresponds to Frodo walking into Mordor, as depicted in Lord of the Rings.
"Frodo walked into Sydney" does not correspond to anything since the fictional character Frodo was never depicted by his creator as walking into Sydney.
You get the picture, correspondence is most easily understood, it is the model we all use every day and the one exemplified by the T-sentence..You'll only confuse yourself if you try to overthink it.
This is just not true. P paints a propositional picture. By stating P, in some languages and contexts, it might be assumed that the same speech act is also affirming the propositional picture as being true(whatever that means). In other languages or contexts it might be assumed that P is short for "consider P", "it might be that P", etc.
I agree with your method, but I think it takes me elsewhere. I like where you start:
"When we talk about truth, we're referring to what people believe. "
But then I have to say that "better" or "well" looks too close to "true" :D -- As in, correspondence itself is also a fact, and our statements about correspondence are true due to that fact. That's consistent at least! But if it's not that, I wonder what value that isn't truth decides between the theories for yourself?
I think people agree to a fact, but I've been saying there's not much of a difference between a fact and a true statement -- that they are one and the same, and the story of correspondence is what creates a picture of some fact corresponding to the meaning of a statement believed. In the same way that we can say true things about Harry Potter, so we can say true things about truth.
Sometimes a person might be suspicious and go test a claim -- are the plums in the icebox after all? Here the method is "look in the icebox", and depending upon what you see you'll ascertain whether the person spoke truly or falsely. The meaning of true or false doesn't change because that's been well-entrenched by several hundred years of use. There's a definite history to the predicate "...is true". But our belief about the sentence "There are plums in the icebox" will change depending upon what we see. We will evaluate it to be true or false.
Was it true or false beforehand? Yes. That's exactly how we use the words "...is true" and "...is false". In the game of truth-telling, it's understood that the person can lie -- that what they say could turn out to not be the case if we go and check somehow. So we apply that game to individual statements and invent a metaphysics around it. But it started out as a social practice. It started with others, before myself.
See
Quoting Banno
It's not Tarski who pulls this stunt, but others after his work.
Quoting bongo fury
I dunno, Bong. You seem to me to just be repeating an argument I've already addressed a couple of times.
And it seems that others (@Michael) have tried to make the same point to you.
Quoting bongo fury
It's clear that the thing on the right is not the name of a fact. Names do not have truth values.
AND again,
Quoting Banno
You seem to be denying that, that snow is white is a fact. You want to say instead that, that snow is white only represents a fact. And I think that's not right.
Yours is perhaps the move criticised by Davidson in On the very idea....
Cheers, yes, that's the idea.
So Tarski's indefinability theorem has an odd conclusion, and yet it is an accepted, proven piece of formal logic.
Keep in mind that it applies to axiomatic systems. Tight little constructs that keep everything overly simple.
I think of such systems as sub-systems within natural languages. So we have an axiomatic system that cannot talk about the truth of it's sentences, a metalanguage that can talk about the truths of the object language but not about it's won truths, a meta-metalanguage that can talk about the truths of the object language and the metalanguage but not itself, and so on. And a natural language that can talk about all of them and more.
And this is where Gödel and derangement of epitaphs come in to play. Any rule can and will be broken to grow the language.
Perhaps that is the problem.
[quote=The Semantic Conception of Truth](T) X is true if, and only if, p.
We shall call any such equivalence (with 'p' replaced by any sentence of the language to which the word "true" refers, and 'X' replaced by a name of this sentence) an "equivalence of the form (T)."
Now at last we are able to put into a precise form the conditions under which we will consider the usage and the definition of the term "true" as adequate from the material point of view: we wish to use the term "true" in such a way that all equivalences of the form (T) can be asserted, and we shall call a definition of truth "adequate" if all these equivalences follow from it.
It should be emphasized that neither the expression (T) itself (which is not a sentence, but only a schema of a sentence) nor any particular instance of the form (T) can be regarded as a definition of truth. We can only say that every equivalence of the form (T) obtained by replacing 'p' by a particular sentence, and 'X' by a name of this sentence, may be considered a partial definition of truth, which explains wherein the truth of this one individual sentence consists. The general definition has to be, in a certain sense, a logical conjunction of all these partial definitions.[/quote]
Which authors disagree with Tarski?
Tarski defines truth in terms of meaning, using all that satisfaction stuff.
But in this:
...there can be no doubt that the meaning of p is held constant; that p is used on the right and mentioned on the left. (p cannot mean something other than it means.) So there is no need for satisfaction, or any other theory of meaning.
Hence it holds meaning constant, and so gives a definition of Truth.
Addition: He's right, since he is talking about formal languages. In English, which sentences can we not turn onto quotation-mark names?
He's not. That quote is from the section "The Concept of True Sentences in Everyday or Colloquial Language". Later on in that section he says:
He makes it clear that a definition of truth is impossible for colloquial language and a formal language with an infinite number of sentences, only offering the above for a formal language with a finite number of sentences.
Yes, he defines truth for the object language in terms of satisfaction. He is correct in saying that a definition in terms of satisfaction may not work for English. Others have since developed on that notion.
That's besides the point.
You seem to be saying "Tarski didn't say that", and I agree. It is a follow-on argument.
The only point I am making is that the T-schema isn't a definition of truth. From his 1969 paper:
That "imaginary infinite conjunction" (extended from his earlier example of a finite language) which is the definition of truth being:
Although, again, this only applies to formal languages.
And my reply is that for Tarski, that is correct. But it has been used as such since his work.
And I refer to you the previous argument:
Quoting Banno
To which you replied
to which I replied
Quoting Banno
And that is where I think we are up to.
Looking out from my stoa, Family resemblance, Gödel incompleteness and the deranged epitaphs, and Banno's game, all seem to be indicative of much the same aspect of language. That it is open.
Bongo can defend himself, but he did not say that the thing on the right is the name of a fact.
Anyhow, you appear to be saying that names are not facts because facts have truth values whereas names do not. But it is propositions, not facts, that have truth values. I don't see why facts must be propositional, other than you stipulating they must.
Also, you contradicted this when you said:
Quoting Banno
Things in the world have names and they are facts.
I don't know what to do with that. Names are not propositions.
What are facts? Names? Things in the world? Both? I still do not know what to do here.
Yes, things like that snow is white.
We use names to refer to individuals.
That's why in first order logic we use a,b,c... for individuals and f,g,h... for predicates and then put these together to make f(a), g(a), h(a,b) and so on...
a,b,c... are names. f(a), g(a), h(a,b) are propositions or statements or sentences - you choose - and so not names.
If f(a), g(a), h(a,b)... happen to be true, then they are facts.
Like that snow is white.
As I mentioned earlier, one definition of "fact" given in many dictionaries is "something that really exists".
It's not that we can't turn sentences into quotation-mark names, it's that such a proposed definition only applies to quotation-mark names, which is insufficient. The correct definition should apply to all true sentences. Again, from his 1933 paper, continuing immediately from the prior quote:
I suggest you read that section of the paper rather than have me quote it piecemeal to you.
Quoting Banno
Then you should probably mention that in your exegesis as it currently reads as if this was Tarski's position and so is misrepresentative.
Let me have a go at paraphrasing what is going on here, with an eye towards our at the least agreeing on that. Tarski has
"Snow is white" is true IFF snow is white.
He is pointing out that one cannot substitute p for (snow is white) in order to obtain
"p" is true IFF p
because the quote marks make the context intensional; 'snow is white' and that snow is white have different extensions. Substitution cannot occur salva veritate. And so on.
Bowdlerising the argument, suppose we call "Snow is white", Fred.
Then we can write
And perform a universal generalisation to get
...which is not what we want.
Do we agree that this is what is going on?
Tarski gets past this for formal languages by developing the mechanism of satisfaction, so that he has extensionally transparent terms on both sides of the equivalence.
Are we happy so far?
My point is only to show you what Tarski said, which is that, to quote him again:
And later:
He quite literally says that the T-schema isnt a definition of truth and that a definition of truth for our everyday language is impossible. Maybe you and other authors disagree with him, but Im not here to defend Tarskis position, only to present it.
The only contribution of my own that Ive added is that the sentence this sentence has thirty one letters appears to be an exception to the rule that p is true iff p, and so this disquotational account of truth is deficient. Tarski does pre-empt this, saying in Truth and Proof that, of his formalized language, "demonstrative pronouns and adverbs such as 'this' and 'here' should not occur in the vocabulary of the language", but I'm unsure how other authors who adopt the disquotational account for everyday language resolve the issue.
And in fact earlier you seemed to agree with me on this, saying "it always was [ 'p' is true iff q ]. Putting p on both sides is a special case", showing that "'p' is true iff p" isn't the definition of truth but something which (most of the time, at least) follows from whatever the actual definition is.
Ok. Do you think I have claimed he said otherwise?
I'm now puzzled as to why we are having this conversation.
This is precisely where the problem is, unwarranted attempts such as yours, to reduce the meaning of "a truthful account" to "an accurate portrayal of what happened". We all know, that "to tell the truth" means to state what one honestly believes. Therefore, we should also know, and adhere to the epistemic principle, that "a truthful account" means one's honest opinion. Now if we look at what "one's honest opinion" means, and what "an accurate portrayal of what happened" means, we see a huge gap between these two.
So if we simply assume that "a truthful account" means "an accurate portrayal of what happened" when it could equally mean "one's honest opinion" we have made a very serious mistake which could badly mislead us. And of course, as explained above, the problem is with the assumption that "a truthful account" means "an accurate portrayal of what happened". That one's honest opinion is an accurate portrayal of what happened is something which needs to be justified.
At this point, justification enters the scheme, allowing us to move from "one's honest opinion" to the conclusion of "an accurate portrayal of what happened". But we clearly ought not make this move without justification. Since there is in principle, such a huge gap between those two (ones honest opinion, and an accurate portrayal of what happened), we cannot move from one to the other without justification. To do so would be an irrational leap of faith.
Quoting Janus
This is not "radical skepticism" in any way shape or form. It is a simple reflection on the reality of things. Different people have different descriptions of the same event, very often conflicting. That is commonplace, everyday, and not a statement of radical skepticism. Therefore every "truthful account" ought to be justified before we act on it. Have you never observed the proceedings of a court of law where people are sworn to tell the truth? These are not the proceedings of some sort of radical skepticism, these are the day to day proceedings of people who are working to determine the Truth.
Notice, I say "Truth" here with a capitalized T. That is because this is supposed to be some sort of Divine Truth, independent of human opinion, which we think we might be able to get at, through the process of justifying human truths (honest opinions). However, we of course, being only human, will never achieve that Divine Truth, that perfect, absolutely accurate portrayal of what happened. So, all this talk about "truth" in that sense, what I call "Truth" here (the perfect portrayal), is just pie in the sky nonsense for us lowly human beings.
Quoting Janus
As explained above, this is the purpose of "justification". To properly judge the accounts of other people requires an understanding of justification. These accounts may contain honest mistakes as well as dishonesty, and uncovering these two requires different investigative skills. That is why we cannot simply assume an account is an honest, or truthful account.
Truth rests on meaning - and meaning rests on definition
The Sorites Paradox asks that when on the removal of a single grain a heap becomes a non-heap.
In the dictionary, a "heap" is defined as a "large number of". "Large" is defined as "considerable". "Considerable" is defined as "large". In this case, circular. Does this mean that definitions are unnecessary? Society has determined that it is not necessary that a "heap" be defined within a single grain, as it has, or example, with the metre length, recorded on a bar of platinum - iridium in the Bureau International des Poids et Mesures.
The Sorites Paradox is only a paradox because it requires a definition that does not exist. It would be like asking if the proposition "a xyxxy swims in the sea" is true or false before the meaning of "xyxxy" had been defined.
The Sorites Paradox requires the definition "a heap has at least X grains and at most Y grains" without defining the meaning of X and Y.
In Tarski's terms, the proposition " a heap has at least X grains and at most Y grains" is in the object language. The truth or falsity of the proposition may only be proven in the metalanguage, whereby a heap has at least X grains and at most Y grains. Yet the meaning of X and Y has never been defined. Truth can never be proven in the metalanguage until meaning has been defined in the object language.
The Sorites Paradox shows that it is not the case that definitions are unnecessary, rather, that it is only a paradox because it is requiring a definition that doesn't yet exist.
Another consideration; what if we drop the use of the word "false" and replace it with some substantial notion of falsity?
1. This sentence does not correspond to a fact
We can then say:
2. "This sentence does not correspond to a fact" does not correspond to a fact
Is (2) a contradiction that entails that (1) does correspond to a fact? Perhaps you might say that it corresponds to the fact that it doesn't correspond to a fact? But it would seem that that reasoning would have to be said of every sentence that doesn't correspond to a fact, and so falsity itself would be self-defeating according to the correspondence theory of truth. Or if (2) isn't a contradiction then the liar paradox is solved: liar-like sentences do not correspond to a fact. Rather than being contradictions they're redundant, as (2) appears to show.
(And in fact the above applies to the stronger "this sentence is not true" form of the paradox).
Or if we don't like the correspondence theory of truth:
3. "This sentence does not cohere with some specified set of sentences" does not cohere with some specified set of sentences
4. "This sentence has not been proved" has not been proved
5. "This sentence does not warrant assertion" does not warrant assertion
etc.
It's best not to oppose false with true. This is because a true and honest statement may be demonstrated to be unjustifiable (false). So "false" is best presented as unjustifiable, which is not the same as untrue (dishonest).
I think the heap puzzle is a clear enough counterexample to that general assertion.
Meaning rests on, or is, usage: some of it agreed, some controversial. Whether 10 grains constitutes a heap is controversial. But a million grains is an obvious case. And obvious cases and obvious non-cases are sufficient to guide usage, for many words. We don't need a dictionary or manual.
Quoting RussellA
If by definition you now mean threshold or cut-off point, then yes, and I agree. But then it's "only" a paradox because ordinary usage is perfectly meaningful without such definition.
Some of them are sentences, and some of those are true, yes. Meaning, some them are what we choose to point the word "sentence" at, and some of those are what we choose to also point the word "true" at.
Quoting hypericin
What are interpretations? I would say: sentences that help us construe symbols as pointing at things. What would you say?
Interpretations are the meanings we construe from sentences. Meaning is what the sentence points to, not the sentence itself. It is the signified, not the signifier.
Meaning is not something in the world either, it is something in the head (otherwise, how can we make sense of abstractions, lies, or fictions?).
We can express meanings with sentences in one language or another, with body language, with pictures.
Sentence, meaning, worldly referent are all not identical, do you agree?
Hilary Putnam famously claimed that meanings just aint in the head. He meant by this that what our language concepts refer to in the world determines their meaning. He illustrated this with his twin earth experiment.
https://www.quora.com/What-did-Hillary-Putnam-mean-by-meanings-just-aint-in-the-head
Agreed.
Quoting hypericin
It is invented, or pretended, by people using their heads, but that doesn't locate it in the head.
Quoting hypericin
See the link above.
Quoting hypericin
The second is our pretended connection between the first and third.
I'd come across this at some point before, I found it very unconvincing, then and now.
I would say that Putnam is conflating meaning and referent.
The meaning of "the water is cold" is the same on Earth and Twin Earth. We can see this by the fact that it would translate to the same sentences in other languages on both planets.
It just so happens that the worldly referent on Twin Earth is different.
How could the meaning of the water is cold be the same in both places if on Twin Earth water is xyz rather than H2O? What if on Twin Earth the word water refers something similar to what we think of as fire here on Earth? Would it make sense on Twin Earth to say the water is cold?
If the meaning of "water" was swapped with "fire", then of course the meanings of the sentences would be different. And then the sentence would translate into different foreign sentences on the two worlds.
I don't think so. @Michael grudgingly accepted the very same clarification you continue to reject. I don't know if this is because you also reject truth-makers corresponding to whole sentences. On which the clarification is premised. So do I. Maybe @Michael only accepts them for the sake of argument. So can I. And so you seemed to do here:
Quoting Banno
So I used your word "represents" to clarify
Quoting Banno
as
But whereas @Michael found this manner of clarification too obvious for words, you start critiquing correspondence theory:
Quoting Banno
I wouldn't mind, if you wouldn't keep on equivocating between the factual literature on the right hand side of the T-schema and its worldly subject matter.
Then where is it located?
Wherever we pretend it to be located. In a diagram we might draw an arrow between our depiction of a symbol and our depiction of the corresponding object. We may or may not pretend some corresponding bolt of energy passes between the symbol and object themselves.
But I'm treating meaning as synonymous with reference, and I notice from your discussion with @Joshs that you baulk at that. I think Putnam points out a history of the supposed distinction, through denotation vs connotation, sense vs reference, and others more ancient. And recommends dropping it.
So meaning is both purely imaginary and not in the head, an imaginary lightning bolt from symbol to object which is also the object? This does not strike me as a particularly coherent account.
Quoting bongo fury
Then how does he deal with sentences with no referent? "The cat in the hat" has meaning but no reference in the world. If the meaning of "The cat in the hat" is in your head, then mustn't all meaning be in the head?
I don't see that; it seems to me that the logic in common is simply correspondence of what we say (or not) with some kind of actuality. For me it starts with being able to say meaningful things about experienced and imagined things; without that basic correspondence between saying and seeing/ imagining, we've got nothing. I guess we'll have to agree to disagree about that: I'm not going to labour the point.
Why would an honest opinion about, say, what happened not be an accurate account of what happened? Perhaps you could give an example showing how these might diverge.
I don't see how we can proceed here, since to my eye your approach looks incoherent. You repeatedly quote what I have written as if you were citing obvious contradictions, but they are not.
Quoting bongo fury
"Snow is white" is not a fact; it is a sentence. That snow is white is how things are, and so, it is a fact.
Now the bit in the above sentence that I italicised is a string of letters, "snow is white", and it is not dissimilar to the bit I bolded.
I'm emphasising that the very same thing can be marks on a screen, a string of letters, a sentence and a fact.
Do we at least agree on this?
Well, I'm going to just stipulate that names are not facts. The person Luke is not a fact, but that Luke posts on the forum is.
And I don't think I will be alone in doing this.
There are very many reasons for this. Simply put, human beings do not have infallible observational skills. Here's a few of the reasons. We do not pay attention. We do not have superb descriptive skills (knowing the best words to use, etc.). And, we do not have an infallible capacity for memory. If you come to recognize the weaknesses in your own observational capacity, you will come to see that an honest opinion doesn't guarantee an accurate account of what happened. Perhaps though, you believe yourself to be some sort of divine being.
Quoting Janus
I already did give an example, the court of law. Have you ever been in a court of law, and listened to the variance between different peoples' honest account of what happened?
Here's another example which might be easier for you to relate to. My wife and I sometimes will go out to an event. The next day we may discuss what happened at the event. Most times we have conflicting descriptions about various details. Since the two descriptions are both honest opinions, and they directly conflict one another, we can conclude that an honest opinion about what happened is not the same thing as an accurate description of what happened.
I grant that when it comes to extended or complex events people can fail to notice and/or remember things. An honest account in those kinds of cases need not be a completely) true account. But it's not black and white, and the point is that, insofar as one's attention and memory have reliably informed them of some aspects of the event, then an honest account of what is remembered will be an accurate, that is a true, if not a complete, account. I haven't suggested that people are infallible. But the main point is that we think that there is, even if it is not realizable, a true account of all events, and that if someone were to be able to give such an account it would necessarily also be an honest account.
Your logic here is unacceptable induction. If we know that our observational capacity can and does regularly fail us, from time to time, with regard to different aspects, then we cannot conclude that an honest account gives us an accurate account. Even if most times an honest account is an accurate account, we cannot make the conclusion that an honest account is an accurate account. That' is simply the way that inductive reasoning works, exceptions to a proposed rule invalidate the rule.
Therefore we must seek justification for each aspect of each honest (true) account, because without this procedure we will never know where the faults in these honest descriptions lie. Not knowing where the mistakes lie is what happens if we take it for granted that an honest description is an accurate description.
Quoting Janus
Well, some people might believe that, it's an ontological decision. But most of these people are the ones who believe in God. Consider that "a true account" is given in words, or maybe other symbols like mathematical ones. How do you think that there is a "true account" of things which human beings have no understanding of, and have no symbols for, fundamental particles which have not yet been named for example. Obviously there are no human words or symbols for these things which have not yet been apprehended by the human mind, so how could there be a true account of them. Or do you believe that God has words for these things? Then your God supports this notion that there is a true account for all events.
Only if facts are true sentences/statements. If facts are situations, circumstances, states of affairs, or what's happened and/or happening, then the answer is "no", because none of those things are marks on a screen, strings of letters, or sentences.
If there is a mouse behind the tree, then the fact consists of a mouse, a tree, and the spatial relationship between them from some frame of reference/vantage point. That fact is no more a sentence, string of letters, or marks on a screen than the tree, the mouse, or the spatiotemporal relationship is.
Quoting RussellA
Sounds right to me. My granddaughter knew what "there's nothing in there" meant, thus she knew it was false when someone said it about the fridge. Given she was barely able to string two or three words together at the time, it shows us that we can know what some statements/sentences/claims mean long before we're able to vocalize and/or utter them. It also shows us that knowing what a statement means and/or whether or not it is true or false does not always require metacognition and/or doubt that is informed by thinking about our own thought and belief as a subject matter in its own right.
Me either. That each corresponds to and/or is consistent with different facts does not mean that correspondence is not the commonality between them.
That surprises me coming from you.
What are we doing when we talk about belief if not referring to what people believe?
Seems to me that people can believe things that are not true and/or clearly and demonstrably false. Truth cannot be not true and/or demonstrably false. What people believe can. Thus, truth is not equivalent to what people believe.
Sure. Just not the fact which, as a sentence, it represents. Except of course in cases of self-reference: "this sentence has thirty one letters" etc.
The very same thing can be marks on a screen, a string of letters, a noun or noun phrase, and a thing. Just not the thing which, as a noun or noun-phrase, it represents. Except when it is "word" etc.
Now, I happen not to believe that there are such things as facts, which are represented (your word) by whole sentences, analogously to how such things as cats and dogs are represented by names or nouns. But I don't mind discussing or making a diagram about them. For the sake of argument.
You appear to be motivated by a similar scepticism, hence:
Quoting Banno
Surely, a sentence doesn't work like a name? Agreed. Unfortunately you think you have a better idea, but you don't perceive that it involves equivocating, as is borne out by
Quoting Banno
So how did this happen?
Quoting Banno
Yes, but the bolded string and the italicised string both represent (allegedly) a non-linguistic fact. Only the slightly larger string that includes quote and unquote represents a string. So,
Quoting Banno
Yep, why not?
Quoting hypericin
Eh?
Quoting hypericin
See the link above.
(For Goodman's solution. I'm not sure how Putnam deals with it. Good question. :smile: )
Where did I say, "...truth is equivalent to what people believe[?]" When we talk about truth, we are talking about what people believe, or what they believe to be true. Just because someone believes something is true, doesn't make it true. It, obviously, can turn out to be false. So, what I'm saying is that you can't separate true and false from people, and their linguistic forms of life.
Hopefully, this makes it clearer.
Quoting creativesoul
So, what I posted didn't clear it up for you?
If I imagine that there is a dragon on Neptune, that imagining is in my head, not Neptune. Are you claiming that meaning is something like a social reality which is not localized in any one person's head?
Quoting bongo fury
You just claimed that meaning and reference were synonymous.
I'm not sure how your earlier post pertains.
Maybe.
I just think that talking about truth and talking about belief are quite distinct in their focus. There is also a possible unspoken presupposition and/or implication that I'm curious about.
Is your position such that there is no such thing as true belief beyond people and their linguistic forms of life?
Do you deny and/or reject language less true/false belief?
Yes, I do deny it. I don't see how you can have true and false apart from propositional content, which is necessarily linguistic.
Okay. That's the conventional view when it comes to belief as propositional attitude. I agree that propositional content is necessarily linguistic, but I see no reason to agree that all our belief amounts to an attitude towards a proposition which represents that belief such that we take the proposition to be true.
For example, if one believes that a sheet is a sheep(a common cottage industry Gettier example), they do not have an attitude towards the proposition "a sheet is a sheep" such that they take it to be true, but they most certainly believe that that sheet is a sheep.
Imagine the world before humans...
In this world before humans, if it is possible for a mouse to be behind a tree, and it is possible for a language less creature to believe that a mouse is behind a tree, then it is possible for a language less creature to have true belief(assuming the mouse is behind the tree) and/or false belief(assuming the mouse is not).
Saying that talk about true and false amounts to talk about what people believe, is not the same as saying that all belief "amounts to an attitude towards a proposition which represents that belief." As you know, I do believe, along with you, that beliefs in themselves, are not necessarily linguistic. For example, if we are referring to beliefs that dogs have, those beliefs are only true and false for us, not for them. They have no concepts of true and false, their beliefs are completely devoid of propositional content.
The mouse is in a particular state-of-mind, but it's not equivalent to our linguistic states, in particular, our beliefs as statements. So, the mouse is not believing that there is a mouse behind the tree, as you and I might believe. How could it do that without a linguistic framework to work with. It has no concept tree and mouse. If it did, well, maybe we could also infer the concepts true and false to the mouse also. You seem to be imposing linguistic concepts where there are none.
When I refer to beliefs (pre-linguistic beliefs in animals or humans), it's completely devoid of any conceptual framework for them, but not for us, as linguistic users. So, it seems that the tendency is to impose our conceptual framework onto them.
Ah, my mistake. That's very true. This is more interesting.
If we're saying that a dog's belief can be true, we're not necessarily saying that the dog is aware of that. The dog has no language. We agree there. The dog has never used "true" or "false". We agree there. The dog's belief is completely devoid of propositional content. We agree there. Our account of the dog's belief consists of propositional content. I strongly suspect we agree there as well.
My post prior to this one begins to address how true and false belief could exist in their entirety prior to the concepts of "true" and "false". I'm curious to get your take on that. I see that you have in the meantime while I was writing this...
Part of the problem is in separating those concepts that have an ontology that is separate from language, and yet part of language; and, those concepts that have an ontology that are strictly linguistic, viz., concepts like true and false. So, concepts like belief, moon, tree, etc., have an ontology that involves extra-linguistic things, but other concepts are strictly linguistic. Part of the problem is placing strictly linguistic concepts in a non-linguistic environment. I think this would be an interesting study.
That's the question, right?
How could a language less creature believe that a mouse is behind a tree if it has no linguistic concepts?
Indeed, it is. It is also quite common to conflate our reports of another creature's belief with the other creature's belief. I do not do that. Our report consists of propositional content. A language less creatures' belief cannot.
Yes, yes, and yes...
That's much what I was getting at in the world before humans example...
Try this
https://fdocuments.in/document/goodman-likeness.html
Some of my intuitions run the other way, but it's a messy area for sure. Research into the cognitive states of pre-linguistic children and animals is bound to be more difficult and less conclusive.
But I'm a little surprised to see you say, quite definitely, no concepts here, no conceptual framework whatsoever. It sounds like you take this to be true by definition and I wonder why. Is it all about language? Or about what enables language? What's the story here?
I'll give an example. Infants, I understand, have a sense of object permanence before they have a sense of object identity. If a toy is moved across their field of vision, passes behind a screen, and comes out as something else, that doesn't bother baby. If it doesn't come out at all, that does.
There's something in the ballpark of the conceptual going on there, I'd say, but what exactly, it's complicated.
First, I take it that concepts, are necessarily linguistic, unless you can demonstrate how they're not. Maybe you can have a wider definition of concept, such that it doesn't include language, but if you did that it would just be a matter of what kinds of concepts we're referring to in each of the arguments.
How would this be about concepts, as opposed to their brain's relationship to a moving object?
That's an interesting way to put it.
I'm not sure how to debate whether concepts are linguistic, but in the meantime I'm just curious why you would take such a strong position. Are concepts by definition linguistic? Or do you think they're just obviously linguistic?
Can you give me a thumbnail of your thinking here?
It's always, already interpreted.
Quoting Davidson
If he's not, I am.
I agree. But meaning then must be distinguished from interpretation, which is in the head.
I see four distinct components to a sentence:
1: The symbols themselves: The sounds or markings.
2: The meaning of the symbols: This is determined by language rules and context, and may be more or less ambiguous. This is not in the listener's or reader's head.
3: The interpretation: this is the mental schema the listener or reader conjures up, using the language rules and context as best they can, attempting to match the meaning.
4: The referent: The object in the world, the phenomena, or the abstract idea the sentence is referring to.
Sentences are just tools used to induce thoughts in others (or represent thoughts to ourselves, when thinking). It is the thoughts themselves which are true and false. A sentence is true if, when interpreted correctly, it induces true thoughts.
This is helpful because it removes the ambiguity of language which otherwise confounds the concept of truth, when truth or falsehood is applied to sentences themselves.
My correction:
1) The symbols themselves are not concept-independent, as if sounds or markings were not already interpretive meanings.
2)The meaning of symbols cant be divorced from its interpretation by an individual in a given context.
3)Interpretation doesnt just compare itself to an extant set of rules for meaning. It is the only place where meaning actually arises.
4) We cant speak of objects in the world outside of the objects that we form through our conceptual interpretations
But there seems to be an inconsistency in that you agreed "meaning is something like a social reality" then recanted with "Sentences are just tools used to induce thoughts in others".
Which is it to be?
Not inconsistent, I didn't recant. Sentences, whose meanings are something like social realities, are tools used to induce thoughts in others.
1) Are you speaking of the difference between the physical markings and their interpretation as letters or phonemes? I agree, this should be distinguished.
2) No, it is absolutely divorced. You can see this by looking at an incompetent language user. A poor English user might understand "Water is wet" to mean water is slippery. This interpretation does not impact the meaning of the sentence, which remains water is wet
3) Languages users don't just compare, they have to actively construct an interpretation. As above, this construction is distinct from the meaning of the sentence.
4) But then, cf. the Twin Earth you cited to me.
Meh. Looks like vacillation.
No, meaning is social. It is stable whatever or whether we think of it.
Interpretation is what is in the head.
You've lost me. Or perhaps i wasn't with you to start with.
I'm not quite sure what to say to this.
(Yes, I believe the original experiment was looking for rudimentary physics-related expectations among infants -- that something moving along that way will continue to do so, and it turns out as long as something does, even a different something, they appear to be satisfied.)
What I'm unsure about is the implication that concepts don't have to do with the brain's relationship, as you put it, to objects. I mean, sure, "mind" is probably a much better starting point, but you went with brain, so brain it is. Is that not more or less exactly where we expect to find concepts?
Maybe not, if you think the social is being given short shrift here. But then are we going to say that societies have concepts but individuals, even individual members of societies, don't? That sounds terribly odd. So if the social demands to be brought in, how exactly? And is the social, shall we say, aspect entirely linguistic?
Quoting Sam26
Well, this was part of my question, whether experiments were relevant to your position, or whether you understood concepts to be inherently linguistic phenomena in some sense. So are you saying that this is an empirical question after all?
One example I like to use is the fire example. A language less creature, including but not limited to prelinguistic humans, can learn that touching fire causes pain without having a clue how to say, "touching fire causes pain", and without ever having an attitude towards that proposition such that they take it to be true. How can this be the case if believing that touching fire causes pain requires linguistic concepts?
Well, quite simply... it can't be if such belief requires linguistic concepts! Yet language less creature can and do learn and/or believe that touching fire causes pain. We can watch it happen. So, the only conclusion to draw here is that belief that touching fire causes pain does not require language or linguistic concepts. The difficulty in sensibly discussing and/or setting out language less belief is had in what the SEP characterized as...
...which I've recently found to be no problem at all. Although, I do reject the notion of 'mental lives' as a proper characterization of thought and belief. The belief emerges by virtue of the creature drawing correlations between the fire, the touching, and the subsequent pain they feel afterwards. There is nothing here that requires language, aside from our account of what happened. The fire, the touching, the subsequent pain, and the correlations drawn between those things(and others) are all existentially independent of language. That's what the belief consists of:The fire, the touching, the pain, and the correlations drawn between.
Belief that touching fire causes pain consists of the behaviour, the fire, the pain, and a creature capable of performing the behaviour as well as drawing the correlations between the aforementioned things. It is existentially dependent upon all of this. There is no need for language.
We can perform the same analysis with the belief that a mouse is behind the tree, as shown earlier in this thread as well as several others. The debate between Banno and myself also used that example in my opening statements about the content of belief.
There's no need for concepts here.
A 'sense' of object permanence or an expectation(belief that something will come out the other side)?
I would go with the latter in that case. There is something similar to the conceptual going on there, but if the situation can be effectively/affectively exhausted without invoking the historically problematic notion of "concept" the better off we are.
This discussion of language less creatures' belief directly pertains to the topic of truth, because if it is the case that a language less creature is capable of forming, having, and/or holding true and/or false belief, then it only follows that either true belief does not require truth, or truth exists prior to language. We can take this even further and surmise that some language less creatures are capable of forming, having, and/or holding meaningful true belief. It follows that either meaning exists prior to language, or belief need not be meaningful to the believing creature. The latter is absurd.
So, one stumbling block seems to be the position you hold about notions of true and false. You've expressed concerns, and rightfully so, about the difficulties inherent to any attempts to sensibly attribute the terms "true" and "false" to language less belief as a result of true and false being strictly linguistic notions. See if I can ease this difficulty...
Notions/concepts of "tree" are existentially dependent upon language. What we pick out with those notions/concepts is not. Trees are not existentially dependent upon language. Much the same holds good for the notions of "true" and "false" as they pertain to language less thought and belief...
There can be no question that all notions/concepts of "true" and "false" are linguistic, if by that I mean that those notions are existentially dependent upon language use. However, and this is key, what those notions pick out to the exclusion of all else is no more existentially dependent upon language than trees are. We use "trees" to pick out the things in my front yard. We use "true" and "false" to pick out things(belief in this case) that are consistent with and/or correspond to fact.
If there is a mouse behind the tree, then the fact consists of a mouse, a tree, and the spatial relationship between them from some frame of reference/vantage point. That fact is no more a sentence, string of letters, or marks on a screen than the tree, the mouse, or the spatiotemporal relationship is. If there is a creature, say a cat, that is capable of believing that that mouse went behind that tree, and the mouse is behind the tree, then that creature's belief is consistent with and/or corresponds to fact. The tree, the mouse, and the relationship between them are all meaningful to the cat as a result of the correlations drawn between them by the cat's biological machinery. They become meaningful by virtue of this process(drawing correlations).
That's a not too rough and ready outline/model of what meaningful language less thought and/or belief consists of and/or how it emerges onto the world stage. It's amenable to evolutionary progression as well as being commensurate with supervenience.
A fraught notion...
I'm speaking about linguistic concepts, but you seem to be suggesting a broader sense (thoughts, ideas, etc, - I'm just guessing, since you didn't say). Concepts like true and false, and what we mean by true and false, develop in social contexts, not in isolation. The relationship between language and the mind/brain is something we don't fully understand. We obviously have our intuitions and opinions, but that's as far as it goes. I would say, as per the context of this thread, that true and false are necessarily not part of the conceptual framework of non-linguistic animals.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I wouldn't say, "societies have concepts but individuals, even individual members of societies, don't?" - I would say individuals learn to use linguistic concepts in social contexts, so individuals have linguistic concepts only in so far as they acquire them socially. This gets back to the private language argument.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I'm saying that there maybe some experiment that shows what part of the brain lights up while using linguistic concepts, as opposed to what happens when being shown objects apart from a linguistic context. These kinds of experiments aren't going to answer the question of what we mean by concepts like true and false. So, in the context of what I'm referring to, some experiment, at least as far as I understand, isn't going to answer a question of meaning and use. Of course it depends on what you're looking for.
I would word it slightly different, the concept tree, includes the notion of something existentially separate from language. Whereas the notion of true and false seems dependent on linguistic content in an important sense. In other words, I can imagine a dog seeing a tree apart from language, but not a dog observing true and false apart from the application of these concepts within our linguistic framework. This can be a bit confusing, because when we talk about true and false, we often refer to objects (i.e., facts) that we observe, although not always (referring to facts as abstract objects).
There is definitely much more to say, and I'm sure we're not going to see eye to eye on some of this.
Sorry I didn't respond to all of your posts. I have a difficult time sitting for hours responding. So, I tend to take long breaks (sometime hours, days, weeks at a time). I find that social media can be a bit taxing, and in some ways unhealthy.
Yes if we agree to clarify that the string without quotes is what we're calling a sentence, while the string with quotes is a name facilitating talk about the smaller string (the calling it a sentence).
Quoting Banno
Yes if we agree to clarify that the string itself is not what we're calling a fact, at least, it is not the fact which, as a sentence, it represents. That would be as silly as confusing the name "Fido" with the dog which, as a name, it represents. The string is a sentence, representing or corresponding to the fact.
Quoting Banno
If the bolded bit is the bolded string, and slipping something else in between that and the white snow is choosing to distinguish the two, I enthusiastically plead guilty.
Your link is not entirely supportive of your claims:
Quoting SEP article on Facts
I have appealed to dictionary definitions and ordinary language use. This article mentions my use, but it also states that they are using terms which are contrary to the "usual concept" of truthmaking and the "usual notion" of representation. Wittgenstein teaches us to look to common usage for meaning, so I don't think I'm alone in my use of the term "fact" either.
Saying "it is true" in this case is indeed redundant. But this is a simplistic example; actually a commonplace. Like "It is true for you what it is true for you".
Truth, however, is a complex and multifaceted concept and term. That's why it reigns in philosophy since ever!
From my point of view, there's no such a thing as an absolute, objective truth. The closest to that is a commonly accepted, agreed upon truth. Most people believe --i.e. it is a common truth among them-- that moon landing is a fact, true. However, there are some people who don't, but instead believe in conspiracy theories about the subject. But, based on facts and proofs in general, as well as on reason and cohesion, we can safely say that moon landing is a fat, i.e. true.
This "process" is maybe more clear in court cases, where different "truths" --both genuine and false, supported or not by facts and argumentation-- are presented, in favor and against the accused, It is the prevailing one that, according to the jury or just the judge, determines in a court whether the accused is innocent or guilty. And sometimes, it cannot be obtained.
Besides, if Jesus was as wise as he has been portrayed, I doubt if he had said such a thing, and if so, we don't know how it meant. I believe it's most probably a fabrication by John, like many other.
For sure. I'm with you on that last bit. As it pertains to the rest...
What I offered in the previous couple of posts was where I thought our views were a bit different. Upon rereading, I also realized that I did not properly quantify my examples. What I mean is that the example given was about how true and false belief, and thus truth(and meaning) can exist without language. But that example(language less thought and belief) does not touch upon any of the cases where the notions of "true" and "false" are used to talk about things that are not independent of language. Those cases far exceed in sheer number alone the language less ones, in both the literature and common practice.
Be well until next time!
:up:
Yeah, it is. I am not alone in rejecting the notion that a fact is what makes a true proposition true. Rather it would be better to say that facts just are true propositions.
Quoting Facts as propositions
This, incidentally, looks to be much the same disagreement as I have with
I never said that you were; I said that I wasnt alone in my view either.
Quoting IEP article on Truth.
Therefore, I am not alone in rejecting your stipulation.
That bit.
Quoting IEP article on Truth
A shame that the Children's Encyclopaedia of Philosophy does not provide adequate references. That might be an argument worth addressing if it were filled out. What is it for snow to be a constituent of the fact that snow is white? Facts have parts?
I don't believe my views expressed with Creative leads to this conclusion. What in particular leads you to think this? I think you've expressed this before, but I think it's a misinterpretation of what I'm saying.
As I already pointed out in the SEP article:
Quoting Luke
In case you missed it again, facts are what make propositions true, and - it is usually assumed - the existence of a thing is what makes a proposition true. Therefore, the existence of a thing is, or can be, a fact.
Here's the point at issue:
I take the latter, you the former, views. I ask what it is for snow to be a constituent of the fact that snow is white, and you reply by repeating that facts make propositions true.
Not seeing a point here.
I get that. True and False are concepts we might naturally think of as applying to linguistic artifacts, so in that sense at least they're "linguistic concepts".
True is funny though.
If I ask someone whether they thought what you said was clever, I'm expressing an interest in what you said and how you said it, among other things. If I ask someone whether they thought what you said was true -- I might be investigating your character, or I might be very interested in the state of the world suggested by what you said. (Are the barbarians really within the walls?) Not so much in your phrasing or diction or use of periphrasis.
So even as it seems to apply to linguistic artifacts, True is a somewhat odd duck. Not alone, though. Many such usages come to mind, especially 'modal' adjectives like probable", "likely", "impossible", and so on.
Anyhow, I don't have any particular agenda here. Was just curious what you were thinking.
That's why we should look at the meanings of these concepts in terms of use (social linguistic constructs), and in terms of Wittgenstein's family resemblance idea. It gives us a much better picture of what meaning amounts to.
Facts are what make a proposition true or account for the truth of a proposition.
The existence of a thing can account for the truth of a proposition.
Therefore, the existence of a thing can be a fact.
Well, no. Rather according to the SEP article, one view is that facts are what make a proposition true.
There are other views, also addressed in the article.
And yes, the existence of a thing can be a fact. But this is not dependent on which of the competing views one choses.
So if true propositions are facts, then "The Queen exists" is a fact.
But your contention, the one with which I disagreed, was that an individual can be a fact. The Queen is not a fact.
Trivial stuff.
What an odd response.
After I give examples with the intent of showing the difference between being interested in someone's words, on the one hand, and what they're talking about, on the other, you suggest it will all be clearer to me if I focus on how people use words.
No need to turn this into another Wittgenstein thread, though...
Just so that I can understand how this "view" works, can you explain how you would distinguish between a proposition which is a fact, and a proposition which is a falsity. Please don't say something like the proposition "p" is true iff p, or I'll accuse you of being dishonest again. That's because '"p" is true iff p', is a statement which relates the proposition referred to by "p" to the fact referred to with p, which is what you just rejected.
Actually, I asked you why an individual cannot be a fact. You didnt answer this question and instead responded by stipulating that names are not facts. My initial contention with which you disagreed was that a river is a fact. Im not sure what you mean by an individual or why you say the Queen cannot be a fact. Is a river an individual? If the existence of a river makes a proposition true or accounts for the truth of a proposition, then it is a fact - at least, according to one view of facts.
Quoting Banno
Your original contention was that a river cannot be a fact. You did not qualify that this is only according to your own view. If you now acknowledge that the existence of a river can make a proposition true according to one view, then you were wrong to say that a river cannot be a fact.
The only thing odd, is that you didn't see the connection between my reply and your response.
Ok, a river is not a fact. That a river exists might be.
In much the same way that a name is not a sentence. Or an individual is not a state of affairs.
That has little, if anything, to do with whether facts are true propositions.
At first I thought you might have been making a subtle point, Now I am thinking you have made a trivial error.
Quoting SEP: Facts
See the bit in bold? Are you claiming it is wrong?
So non-existent rivers are not facts? I might agree with you there.
If the existence of a river accounts for the truth of a proposition (e.g. this river contains many fish), then it is a fact.
Just as the existence of snow accounts for the truth of snow is white.
No, but I dont agree with everything that philosophers like to say. And, as I have already pointed out, the article gives a passing mention to some opposing views. Your claim that existing things are not facts - on any view - remains wrong.
IS there anyone you can cite who thinks that an individual is a fact? Is there any mention of this theory in the SEP article? Does anyone else agree with you?
Otherwise, we might do well to stick to distinguishing between facts and individuals. Facts are about individuals.
No, you are not. The correspondence theory is not the theory that facts are individuals, nor that facts can be individuals, or anything of the sort.
Thanks. I think we are done here.
Once again, the correspondence view is that facts are what account for the truth of propositions. Do you deny that the factual existence of snow accounts for the truth of the proposition snow is white according to this view?
And you still havent told me what you mean by an individual.
Not so odd. I miss a lot. Can you fill it in a little for me?
Quoting Pie
...or not a property? The merits, or lack thereof, of the prosentential view remain undiscussed.
We do seem to treat truth as a property, at least in that we predicate it to propositions.
Has anyone worked through these ideas?
FWIW, I liked what I saw of the prosentential theory, maybe a few years ago on IEP. It has a linguistic feel to it, and provides reasonable motivation for the existence and usefulness of what sometimes appears to be a superfluous word. (The model-theoretic approach more or less shows it to be unnecessary, so much so that Dummett commented that if you didn't already know what truth was, you'd have no idea what you were defining with all those T-schemas and what the point of it could possibly be.) I keep it in the back of my mind when constructing examples.
Blocks the Liar, as I recall, and if that matters.
R v ~ R is true. Does R v ~R correspond to anything? Tautologies like R v ~R are true by force of logic alone, it matters not whether it's actually raining or not. :chin:
As you like. R v ~R happily corresponds to the fact of it raining, just as R v X, for any X does. Likewise for corresponding to it not raining.
On the other hand, a tautology is uninformative. It says nothing, and saying it commits one to nothing. It's not entirely unnatural to defend correspondence but restrict it to informative claims.
It corresponds to the fact that it is never, at the same place and time, both raining and not raining.
Ok. I stand corrected. However there's got to be a statement that's true without corresponding to anything, either partially or wholly, oui? I can't think of one though.
A true proposition that does not appear to correspond to anything.
Quoting Janus
That'd be ~(R & ~R). Not the same. Unless you are Meta.
If you are right and (R v ~ R) is true but does not correspond to a fact, then it puts paid to correspondence.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
R has the same truth value as (R v X), by OR introduction.
But (~R v R) does not have the same truth value as (R v X), which would be false if it were not raining and X were false.
Not so much because that's not an exclusive or. You're talking about something else.
Here's something for you. Was thinking about 'modal' adjectives after my exchange with @Sam26, and it's curious how it's not at all tempting to treat them as properties of sentences (or propositions, whatever).
(1) Sheila says you sent that email. Is that true?
Maybe true is "true of" or "applies to" the sentence Sheila said.
(2) Is it at least possible that you sent that email?
No one wonders if the sentence Sheila said is possible. She's already said it.
Obvious candidates are (a) that "possible" is short for "possibly true" and (b) that we're not talking about the sentence but the state of affairs the sentence describes. (2) and (b) seem to get along fine, but we could have a better match for (a) with something like
(2') Is it at least possible that what Sheila said is true?
which you could continue to interpret as Sheila's sentence maybe possessing this property.
There are ways in which constructions involving "true" and the modal adjectives diverge, but also quite a few where they are very close.
(3) Is what Sheila said true?
(4) Is what Sheila said possible?
(5) No, it's not true because it's impossible.
That last one is a doozy because if you want to take to take "it" as what Sheila said, you can't take both "true" and "impossible" as properties a sentence might have -- that would be nonsense. It doesn't rule out truth as a property but you need a nuanced expansion of (5) into logical form to allow it. (Maybe the second "it" is impersonal, etc. etc.) Not a huge hurdle, maybe, but you have to wonder why ordinary usage would lean toward sometimes treating these so similarly if they're so different.
(6) It's not only possible, it's true.
And if we decide to cut through all this by taking, say, "possible" as meaning "possibly true", there's the peculiarity that these modal adverbs (now) contrast with
(6') It's not only possibly true, it's
Of course we, knowers of systems modal, will be tempted to say this is also
(6'') It's not only possibly true, it's actually true.
To a normal person, "actually true" will sound a bit like "really pregnant" or "completely off".
Anyhow, once we've added "true" everywhere, what's it doing? It's no longer part of the contrast with "possible". But we can't move on to saying that "true" is short for "actually true" because that would completely undermine our treatment of "possible", "impossible" and the others.
I don't mind resorting to Philenglish ("It is the case that ..." "It is possibly the case that ...") and the formal systems are what they are. I was just wondering if we might learn something from how ordinary usage handles things, and I think I've learned that there is some kind of relationship between truth and the various alethic modes, but the picture is far from clear.
Quoting Banno
Agreed, which is why I mentioned that R v ~R will also correspond with it not raining.
Yeah that's it, except partial is full for a disjunction. "Or" means "or", for realsies.
What about the coherence theory of truth?
1. If p then q
2. p
3. q [1, 2 MP]
4. If p then ~r
5. ~r [2, 4 MP]
6. q & ~r [3, 5 Conj]
q and ~r cohere (they're consistent) and so are true w.r.t each other. Lies among which number the white lies (gennaion pseudos) depend not on correspondence (impossible) but on coherence (consistency in re other lies - web of deceit, lies beget lies). Clearly correspondence theory of truth is not the only game in town; plus what about maya (the world as an illusion) and the Cartesian deus deceptor? Consistency aka coherence (theory of truth) is all we can hope for (at the moment).
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Isn't it?
One analysis (I think it's Davidson, again) of "Sheila says you sent that email" is
i) You sent that email.
and
ii) Shiela said that (i) is true
And no one wonders if "Is that true?" is asking about (ii).
"Is it at least possible that you sent that email?"
might be
2") Is it true that in some possible worlds, (i) is true?
And here you have an opaque context:
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
We might reinstall the extensional transparency with
3') Is (i) true?
4') Is (i) possible?
which at least superficially predicate to (i).
Dangerous ideas like this should come with a warning label!
Quoting Banno
That's right, my hasty bad; it corresponds to the fact that at any place and time it is always either raining or not raining, which amounts to much the same thing.
Davidson, On saying that, uses this strategy to deal with indirect discourse.
Now that article is about propositional attitudes, yet I hadn't given it much attention. But propositional attitudes feed in to the discussion between @Sam26 and @creativesoul. SO might need to reread it.
Article Source.
This seems to have the odd result that the sentence "it is raining or it is not raining" is true because it corresponds to anywhere.
And here I am again at a loss to say what that correspondence amounts to. "it is raining or it is not raining" does not seem to mean "anywhere".
It corresponds to the fact that it is always either raining or not raining at any place and time; shortening that to just "anywhere" which says nothing about time or raining is misleading.
But "Its raining, or it isn't" says nothing about time or place. It still seems odd to insist that it does, clandestinely.
If it is to be true "it's raining, or it isn't" implicitly references time and place, since it can be raining at one place and/ or time and not raining at another place and/or time at either the same place or time (but not both, obviously). The same applies to "it's not (raining and not-raining)".
But that's not right. (R v ~ R) is never untrue. time and place are irrelevant.
All that's fine -- I think, I didn't check all that carefully -- but again look where you end up, contrasting
(1) Is P true?
(2) Is P possible?
Why are those constructions so similar, and why would it be so natural to contrast the truth of P with the possibility of P, the likelihood of P, and so on?
The intensional revolution in fact sweeps away truth along with possibility, necessity and the rest, and leaves a purely extensional model-theoretic semantics behind. ("True" turns out to be an incomplete symbol, completed as "true at W", which is in turn just defined as satisfaction, and everything is just shorthand for that.)
Which is just more evidence, in a screwy way, that this is the set of concepts truth belongs with -- which is a little surprising, since the stability of truth is nearly what defines the split between extensional and intensional contexts. If truth belongs with this stuff, something isn't what we thought it was.
Quoting Banno
The way I was thinking about this: on each occasion when R v ~R is true, it's because R is true or because ~R is true. We additionally know that this covers all possible occasions, but what makes it true on each occasion is specifically one or specifically the other, not the additional fact that there are no occasions not covered by one disjunct or the other.
R v ~R doesn't need to know it's guaranteed to win in order to win; as far as it knows, it's just always lucky.
It can't be luck if whatever sentence we stick in (pv~p) gets us truth. It's structure, not correspondence.
I don't think so. Truth gets on quite satisfactorily in extensional circumstances.
For "it is raining" (R) to be true, we have to go out and verify or, if you're Sherlock Holmes, you can infer it from wet shoes. The same goes for "it is not raining" (~R). [Correspondence check]
However, "it is raining or it is not raining" (R v ~ R) is true and doesn't require us to go out and verify anything at all. [No Correspondence check]
This has to mean something, oui?
So you would have "it's raining or it's not raining" parsed as (r ?~r).
That still get you a tautology,
and so it's true without regard to location. The contents of R are irrelevant. Hence what R coresponds to is irrelevant.
Nuh. It can rain without you noticing.
:snicker: Think of a universe with only me in it.
Don't fall to the idealist error of thinking truth is dependent on you. Down that path lies solipsism.
It could still rain without you noticing.
Perhaps in Spain, on the plain.
I agree with you that it's always true if the "or" is not considered as exclusive and as implying "either raining or not raining, but not both", but it should have been clear to you, if you were paying attention, that I already acknowledged that.
Also, why don't you save time by answering questions posed to you in plain English?
It's just as true for XOR.
Solid copy!
What does that mean in English? If it means "raining or not raining, but not both" then it is not always true, but more likely always false, because it is mostly always both raining and not raining on Earth, depending on time and location. You'll need an argument to convince me otherwise; dogmatic pronouncements are not going to cut it, matey.
Put that one in the schema...
In the back of my mind I'm thinking of the intuitionist's rejection of p v ~p as an unqualified introduction rule. To introduce p v ~p, you have to have p in hand, or ~p in hand, and use the usual rule for or introduction. I simply allowed the introduction but applied the idea to truthmakers: one or the other of those will be what makes the disjunction true when it's true. The disjunction itself is a freebie, vouched for by whichever of the disjuncts is true. You're right of course that one or the other will always turn up, but we still get to say, on each occasion, here's what makes R v ~R true this time.
(Snipping the rest the past-my-bedtime speculation about truth. Probably shoddy stuff anyway.)
Yeah, it is:
Interesting. So we again need a trivalent logic, with (p v ~p) being neither true nor false, but this time in order to defend the correspondence theory of truth.
A marriage of correspondence and anti-realism.
Oh, the time in which we live!
What?
R: it's raining.
~R: It's not raining
XOR: exclusive OR
R XOR ~R: It's either raining, or not, but not both
T: true
A bunch of T's down a column: this is true regardless of whether it is raining or not raining.
Therefore,
Quoting Janus
IS false.
You are not doing argument.
Quoting Janus
Quoting Janus
Cheers. Bye.
Further admissions?
Of course I am "doing argument"; I am examining the actual and interpretive possibilities. It seems you think I have contradicted myself, but the first statement should be read as 'if the formula is true, then it corresponds to the fact that it is never, at the same place and time, both raining and not raining". But then I go on to question the meaning of 'place'. If 'place' means 'Earth' then obviously the formula is not true. Then I offered the example of standing on the edge of a storm front. So the truth of the formula rests on the meaning and scope of 'place'.
In any case, if the proposition 'it is either raining or not raining' is true then it corresponds to the fact that it is always and everywhere either raining or not raining, leaving aside all other considerations of time and location as well as whether it is actually true or not.
Likewise if the proposition "it cannot be both raining and not raining:is true, then it corresponds to the fact that it cannot ever be both raining and not raining, regardless of considerations of time and location and whether it actually is true or not.
If you think none of this constitutes a valid argument then you should be able to say why it is not, but you have made no attempt to directly address anything I've said. All I'm getting from you, as usual, are pompous statements with no accompanying explanation. It's a poor showing.
:rofl:
You're either right or not about those sentences that assert nothing.
Quoting IEP
And that Mary agrees. And you have at least two speakers to deal with if you don't.
So
Quoting Pie
reduces further to a property of utterances. E.g.
Language (and even logic) as opinion polling. Which gets my vote, although it can sound daft. As can coherence theory in general, after all.
It could rain without anyone noticing it, but there would be no proposition without someone to produce it. And truth is of the proposition. Therefore no truth without someone noticing something.
Yes, I made a similar point at the very start of this discussion. And here which includes a translation into ordinary English.
No, I don't think I was saying anything like that, just offering motivation.
(Snipping lots of musing about "It's raining or it's not", which was more fun to write than to read.)
I'll stand by my two suggestions:
(1) it's reasonable to say disjunctions are made true by one their disjuncts being true;
(2) correspondence can naturally be taken as applying only to informative claims, so tautologies need not apply.
I don't think the mere existence of disjunctions or conditionals falsifies correspondence theories. (Seems like we would have heard about that if it were so.)
But it was gibberish both times.
Quoting Michael
That's not how that works. You don't need existential generalization to know that q exists; you just predicated something of q!
You're trying to say that if something has a property then it must exist. But the assertion that something has a property presupposes that it exists. Asserting that it doesn't have some property would work just as well.
You don't "find out" that the individuals in your universe, like q, exist; you assumed them when you built it, or you name them (uniquely!) when you create them, as with existential instantiation.
The pertinent point is that given the premise ?p: T(q) ? p, the conclusion ?p: ?x(x=q) follows, which suggests either that the world is exhausted by our descriptions of it or that expression-independent propositions exist.
The simple resolution is to specify the T-schema as saying that for all propositions that p, the proposition that p is true iff p.
Quoting creativesoul
Also @Luke, from the exchange about named entities being true.
I think I'd say the above is not a belief, but a belief-mediated perception. We see the sheet-as-sheep. We might hold beliefs about sheet-as-sheep -- but note how this strays from logic, and is clearly phenomenology, complete with dashy-portmanteaus :D
Maybe unpalatable to some, but to answer:
Quoting creativesoul
I'd say perception is linguistically mediated in us, but that perception simpliciter, in all species, does not require language. When we talk of beliefs in animals we're speaking in folk psychology. We understand the animals, being animals ourselves, and we're speaking of their psychological states through the folk concept of "belief" -- and I say "folk" non-pejoratively, because I think the folk concept of belief -- and truth, for that matter -- is actually better than a lot of philosopher or scientific inventions. Just not as precise as philosophers or scientists like, as @Sam26 said, since they really really like being right about things in lots of circumstances, when folk-notions simply don't work that way.
Also feel like noting that all of us have already undergone that transition, having started without language but then, through exposure to the language-using social world, we learned it through our social practices. (and hasn't anyone noticed how dogs, and our fellow apes, learn bits of language with training? That is, if the Lion spoke to me, I'd know what the Lion said -- at least as I think of things)
Quoting Luke
I think the best way to define the "mention operator" as I called it, and had yet to be able to answer your question, is to say what it does is it converts a natural-language string into a name for that said string using the same alphanumeric characters, but changing its function from a proposition to a name.
One thing I'm noticing here, in your examples, is you like to treat existence like a predicate. So the existence of things gives propositions used their truth-value.
"This river contains many fish" is true iff there exists a river, and the river contains, and the object contained by the river are fish, and the relationship of said fish to the numerical predicates in the context its within is such that speakers would say "many".
You agree with this:
Quoting Luke
On your account of correspondence, how is it that "There is no river on this dusty plane" true? The fact is the dusty plane, rather than the no-river. But the proposition is about the no-river. Or, the classic "The present king of France is bald". There is nothing to which this proposition refers as we speak it today. So you'd likely say something like the proposition is either obviously false, given there is no fact to the matter, or does not have a truth-value, or something like that. But that's something I liked about the plums example -- here was something that would matter, and is a lot more natural to our way of thinking. When you open up the fridge and see nothing in it, the no-plums have an effect on your state, at least. The nothing has an effect on us. And especially the no-plums, if we wanted plums. The no-plums have a relationship to the believed proposition. The fact is the empty fridge, and yet the sentence is "There aren't any plums in the ice box", and it's true. (or, perhaps you could say the fact is the imagined plums, but then we'd have facts-about-imaginations which doesn't work quite the same as facts-in-the-world, hence our confusions)
Given that true propositions about what is not there are many, and we are saying that truth is correspondence to facts, there must be non-entities to which said propositions correspond to -- unless you have some kind of translation you always perform on statements which use names referencing nothing, like "When non-referring names are used, the right-hand side of the T-sentence will be translated into names which refer to be understood" -- something I'd say looks ad hoc, on its face, though perhaps there's another motivation to speak like this.
Quoting Banno
Quoting Janus
Another thought in the back of my mind, though to develop it more I'll have to look at temporal logics now --
But this exchange reminds me of Kant's distinction between logic as such, and transcendental logic -- the primary difference being one abstracts from spatio-temporal relations, and the other does not. If you'll allow the indulgence, I believe it goes back to Aristotle's definition of non-contradiction which you are mirroring here, @Janus --
link
[quote=Aristotle in the SEP on Logic]It is impossible for the same thing to belong and not to belong at the same time to the same thing and in the same respect (with the appropriate qualifications) (Metaph IV 3 1005b1920).[/quote]
Still, worth highlighting that the relationship between time and logic is thorny. In a sense logic should be timeless. Yet we live in time. What to do with that?
Quoting Moliere
This seems consistent with indirect realism, idealism, and similar frameworks which work from the same fundamental mistake. Namely, that we have no direct access to the sheet(in this case), so we're not seeing the sheet, but rather only our perception, conception, sense datum, etc. thereof. I reject that view because it is based upon invalid and/or untenable reasoning(argument from illusion, etc.).
I'm not using "belief" in the same way you are either.
So, sure... there are different ways to account for meaningful thought and belief, and you've presented, roughly, one very popular mistaken one.
lol
Is that what I said, that philosophers and scientists really really like being right. I cracked up when I read this. Although the latter part of that sentence, viz., everyday speech doesn't work that way, is something I would say. I think I may know where this comes from, but it's the way it's worded that I thought was really really funny.
I do think this whole notion of looking for a precise definition of truth is just a waste of time. It's like trying to find a precise definition of the concept game, or, trying to find a precise definition of pornography. There are just to many uses with too many variables. Do I know all the variations of the use of the word game? No. Do I understand what a game is when I see it, most likely. Is the word useless without a precise definition, obviously not. A vague use might just be what we need in many social interactions.
I like the notion of correspondence, but that doesn't mean that I'm going to try to come up with a theory that explains every use of truth as correspondence. I like that it generally works. Probably in most or many cases we can see what corresponds, like how a painting of Joe's farm corresponds to the arrangement of the house, the barn, the pig pen, etc., at Joe's farm. Is this how every use of the concept truth works? No. Does this mean that I don't know what truth is? No.
There are just too many lines of thought, distorted by hundreds of different uses of concepts. It's like trying to find the best move in chess, sometimes you can, but often you make the best move based on a variety of factors. Again, there are just too many variables.
Indeed. If we are to have a philosophically and scientifically respectable position, the evolutionary progression of meaningful thought and belief must be sensibly accounted for. That requires a notion of meaningful belief that is simple enough that language less creatures are capable, and rich enough in potential to account for the evolution into language use(langauge creation/acquisition) all the way through to thinking about thought and belief(and language use) as a subject matter in its own right(metacognition).
Current convention is incapable of doing that because it places the initial emergence of both truth and meaning on the wrong side of language creation/acquisition, amongst a few other fatal flaws(accounting malpractices).
Situations, circumstances, states of affairs, and/or events all have parts.
"Snow is white" is true by definition. The more interesting cases are not.
Well, I extrapolated, I'll admit. :D - glad to amuse, though.
Quoting Sam26
I agree with this. Philosophy is useless, after all. (at least, it should be ;) ) -- one might reframe the question, then. Without a definition being able to be supplied, what could we ask of a theory of truth? What is it we're asking after in the first place? Definitions cannot be pinned down, and you and I, at least, agree that truth is the sort of thing without a precise definition -- in fact, if we were tempted to define truth based on our philosophical practices, we might say that truth morphs itself with context -- that which theory we use is context-dependent. Or, if we're error-theorists, then we'd just say there is no such thing as truth itself, and its more like a character in a story about our sentences.
Quoting Sam26
This is interesting, and takes my mind in yet another direction -- another possibility, or fair inference from what we've said so far about truth, is that it's simply not definable nor morphable. In some sense we might say that truth is transcendental to all conversation, in the sense that it is the necessary belief for all statement-making speech to be possible at all. In which case it's a bit like defining the noumena -- it's a place-holder in conversation for something bigger than what we can comprehend.
Well, hold on a second there. Suppose the case of seeing the sheet-as-sheet. Then we'd have direct access to the sheet. It's just that it is also possible for us to see what we have direct access to as something else we have direct access to. (whatever "direct" is doing now... without indirect-realism/idealism to define "direct", it seems superfluous)
"as" is a linguistic expression of a phenomology of perceiving entities as particular entities. So with the usual Gestalt phenomena we'd say that we see the ink-as-old-woman or the ink-as-young-woman, or the ink-as-duck or ink-as-rabbit. That is, the question of "access" or realism/anti-realism is set aside for now.
What that would mean is that individual perception is not some means for seeing knowledge, or something. But I'm fine with that. Knowledge is socially created and accepted before a community of knowledge-producers, rather than epistemic Robinson Crusoe's seeing authentic truths that they write down.
Philosophy isn't useless, that's not what I'm saying, some philosophy maybe useless, but to lump it all together as useless is to not understand the nature of philosophy. For example, you're putting forth a philosophy when you respond to what's been said. If you have a set of beliefs about life, science, morality, truth, etc., and you're using reasoning to explain your arguments, then you're doing philosophy. It's just a matter of doing philosophy well, using well reasoned or well grounded arguments. Everyone does philosophy in some sense. Especially if you think about life.
This has been said more than once.
It's not right.
The definition of snow is frozen atmospheric water vapour. Colour is irrelevant.
Basically that philosophy is useless is a feature, to me, rather than a bug. Though I agree, if pressed, that the kind of philosophy which deals with one's particular life circumstances and feelings -- the stuff that the general philosophy often attempts to grasp in a more general way -- is useful-for, but it's only useful-for-me. The useless stuff attempts -- and seems to fail -- at a more general aim.
So the uselessness of the dialogue on truth isn't something that counts against it, in my opinion. It's a wonderful waste of time (and then, once in a blue moon, someone is clever enough to turn a waste of time into something useful)
The point, so far as there was one, to this discussion is to find a grammar for our notion of truth that holds together in a more or less consistent way.
The core of that consistent grammar is, roughly:
On topic: I think that you and I agree on those three things, thus far.
Is hitting the target a property of the arrow?
...and yes, it is the purpose of an arrow to hit the target, as of the proposition to hit the truth.
Hence I avoided "Truth is a property of propositions and such".
And of course, as for all language, we can add the general deranged epitaphs clause that one might set up a proposition that deliberately is false, as one might shoot to miss.
That's basically what I've been saying, but in terms of use within our forms of life. So, I think the best way to look at the concept truth is in a Wittgensteinian way, i.e., via the PI and OC.
Quoting Banno
I'm not inclined to separate true and false from belief. What we believe to be true and/or false is where these concepts get their life. Moreover, why would we need another meta-language to explain what we mean in our everyday language? And, how many other meta-languages do we need to explain our other concepts? I find this problematic to say the least. In other words, to explain "p" is true IFF p you have to go back to our everyday speech (give e.g's), otherwise it has no meaning apart from our everyday uses. I don't believe "p" is true IFF p adds anything significant to the discussion of truth, if anything at all.
Nor am I. To be sure, to believe that p is to believe that p is true. They are not unrelated, but they are different, and have differing uses in both language and form of life.
And the difference can be best seen in that truth ranges over propositions, while belief relates a proposition to a person. The one is unary; the other, binary.
Quoting Sam26
I don't see that we do. Our everyday language permits us to talk about our language, and so is it's own metalanguage. The various logical systems are part of our everyday language, not seperate from it.
The T-sentence, and especially the discussions around it, set out the relation between truth and meaning, set the syntax for that form of life.
Put it this way: are you willing to deny the T-sentence? If not, it gives a point of agreement, If so, it gives a point of departure.
Let's stay with this for a moment.
I don't see how a proposition that's true, has meaning apart from what one believes to be true. What I'm saying is that it doesn't seem to make sense to separate propositional truth from beliefs. It's as if true propositions exist in some metaphysical reality, apart from beliefs. I'm assuming that what you mean by "truth ranging over propositions," is that propositional truth can stand on it's own apart from belief. What does it mean for a proposition to be true apart from someone's belief that it's true?
This is very problematic. Do you mean, 'where p is what is believed to be the meaning of "p"'? That would just make truth belief. Or what exactly do you mean by "the meaning of 'p'"? Since it appears to be very important to the truth or falsity of "p", according to your scheme, maybe you could give us some guidance as to how to determine the meaning of "p".
Good idea. A bit of depth.
We can perhaps see the difference most clearly if we look to the use of each rather than meaning. Let's look at an example in which it might make sense to separate truth from belief.
There's a tree over the road. Suppose Fred believes the tree is an English Oak. But it is a Cork Oak.
We might write, in order to show the bivalency of the belief:
Believes ( Fred, The tree over the road is an English Oak)
And
True (The tree over the road is a Cork Oak).
Quoting Sam26
How? I don't see anything like that.
Quoting Sam26
If you are asking if there are truths that no one believes, then I think a few considerations will show that this is so. Antirealists may well argue otherwise, and sometimes I would agree, It depends on context. That's the topic in another thread.
Quoting Sam26
I hope it is apparent that we seperate truth from belief in those language games around error, mistakes, lies, and so on.
An additional comment, From Searle, to ward off a common error. While "Believes ( Fred, The tree over the road is an English Oak)" has the syntax of a relationship, "The tree over the road is an English Oak" is better thought of as the content of Fred's belief, not a relation between a proposition and Fred. Not marking this distinction adequately is what, I regret, led to @creativesoul's present confusion.
"There's an English Oak over the road." This is Fred's belief. So, instead of it being the English Oak, it's a Cork Oak. So, Fred's belief is false, it doesn't match the facts. So, Fred believes one thing, but the fact is, "The tree over the road is a Cork Oak." It's not, as I see it, a difference between a belief and true, it's a difference between what he believes is true, and the fact of the matter, viz., "The tree over the road is a Cork Oak."
I don't' think your explanation is clear at all. It seems confusing to me. Okay, let's drill further down on this part.
Again, this is ill-formed, mixing predicate and propositional terms with abandon.
But if we try to get to the sprite of the argument, you might validly infer, from "q is true", that something is true; T(q)??(x)T(x).
That is arguably an instance of existential introduction.
But you can't get to "q exists". That'd be an instance of the existential fallacy. That a set has a particular attribute does not imply that the set has members.
Puzzling.
Quoting Sam26
What's unclear about that?
If Fred's belief is false, and Fred's belief is that the tree is an English Oak, then "The tree is an English Oak" is false. To be false is to be not true. So Fred's belief is different to what is true.
Which was my point.
So I'm not seeing a problem.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
By the way, if I was quoting someone, I didn't know it.
Quoting Banno
I can tell you what I was thinking; it's not complicated. In order to tell you some part of how things stand in our shared world, I must be accurate. Big as the world is, it is possible to miss when aiming at it. If I tell you Donald Trump won the 2020 presidential election, my arrow has gone wide. It may make a bullseye on some other world, but not on this one.
Now we seem to agree that having struck the target is not merely the condition of the arrow, but involves the target as well. They are related in a certain way, and it is that relation that we call "having hit the target". Examine the arrow, and you will find it is no different from any other, no different from one that missed the target entirely, no different from one still in the quiver. On all this, I take it we agree.
Truth is when you hit the target.
Quoting Banno
Indeed.
But if you don't mean that truth is a property of propositions, I don't know what you mean when you say "Truth ranges over propositions and such." "Ranges over" how? What does that mean? Does the rest of the world play any part in this ranging that truth does?
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Nor do I, apart from that it is propositions and such that are true, or not. In a way this is stipulating the sense of "true" we are using here; as might be opposed to a true friend or a true note.
Consider the accepted though controversial definition of knowledge as justified, true, belief (JTB theory of knowledge). A proposition p is knowledge IFF
There's a knower K
a) who has the belief p
b) p is true
c) p is justified
If all conditions a, b, c are fulfilled K knows p and that's knowledge. Clearly, since p is true is a separate condition (b) to justification (c), the conclusion is obvious viz. that whether p is true or not needs to be determined independently of its justification. For that the first port of call is a definition of truth that has nothing to do with justification i.e. we can't say that a proposition p is true IFF there's proof of p. What might this definition (of truth) be and how are we going to verify/falsify the truths of propositions in a way that skips proofs/justifications?
And I must be shooting at it. I do other things as well.
But yes, it stands to reason there's a target. Problem?
Quoting Banno
And the arrows that are stuck in the target are indeed there, can be counted and so on. But you would count them not because they are arrows, but because they are arrows that are stuck in the target. There are lots of arrows. Arrows are cheap. What makes an arrow interesting, given that I was aiming at the target, is that it hit.
We can move on to nails I hit right on the head, if you're tired of archery.
Indeed, if belief and truth were not different, then all we would need for knowledge would be justified belief.
@Sam26?
Only that those who might suppose there to be no difference between truth and belief do not seem to have the benefits of a target for their arrows.
I don't see that we have a point of disagreement.
Personally I think the attempt to separate logic from temporality and spatiality is doomed to fail, or to yield an insipid and uninteresting logic, that is merely formal, and suitable only for "bean-counter" types. I think you are right about the connection to Aristotle. My questioning of the role of time and place in such formulations as 'it is either raining or not raining, but not both' shows the ambiguity of the idea of place. Time is easier for us to delimit since we have clocks.
Other examples like 'an object cannot be both black and white all over' are much less ambiguous. We can visualize the impossibility of an object being two colours or tones all over very easily, just because such a thing is impossible to imagine.
So, I believe that what seems self-evident in logic is so because of what we perceive and what we can imagine perceiving, and what we can consequently imagine being the case. To my way of thinking this is the essence of modal logic; what is impossible in all worlds just is what we find impossible to imagine, and I think what we can imagine is constrained by the general characteristics we are able to identify in what we perceive. If we perceived very different images of the world with very different characteristics, then we would be able to imagine what for us, as we are, is unimaginable, and our logics would be correspondingly different.
I believe in mathematics truth is defined as provable i.e. knowledge is justified [s]true[/s] belief (truth is redundant i.e. subsumed under justification).
Is your belief that Paris is the capital of France true or merely justified? If you want to say it's true and justified then it would count as knowledge according to JTB. But if you want to say it's true, does that mean that you know it's true or you merely believe its true?
If you can say you are certain that Paris is the capital of France and that therefore 'Paris is the capital of France' is true, then if you were correct then you could be said to know that your belief is true and justified.
It's odd that JTB says that in order to know something, what we take ourselves to know must be justified and true. But if we knew both of those conditions were satisfied, we must already know whatever it is we know to be true independently of its being justified, since they are separate criteria.
That's why I say that to know is to be certain, as distinct from merely feeling certain. But then how can we ever be certain that we are certain? It makes it look like JTB says we can have knowledge but never know (in the sense of not merely believe, or feel certain, but be certain) that we do, because that would involve an infinite regress.
Anyhow, we're in Gettier problem territory as per my map. There seems to be an gap between truth and justification i.e. even if you have a proof for a proposition p, p can still be false. Go figure! From an induction perspective this makes complete sense of course but from a deduction point of view - the conclusion is necessarily true if the premises are and duely plugged into a valid argument form - it doesn't. You mentioned infinte regress, gold star for you!
I think it's just a post just going around in circles, making it seem complex, but it is the inevitable going around in circles when trying to claim not merely belief, but knowledge (except in the case of that which is presently perceived) that is the problem. Belief may consist in feeling certain, but we don't merely want to feel certain, since then it would be possible to be wrong, but aspire, futilely, to be certain; in other words to be able to claim knowledge that we, per impossibile, know that we know and know that it cannot be wrong.
Of course, for all practical, non-skeptical, purposes we have all kinds of "certain" knowledge.
So you agree that truth is a relation between a proposition and something else. There might be more that goes into that, but it's at least that.
Here's a variation on this theme. Consider the arrow again. You could say Hit(some-target, some-arrow), and that would be a two-place predicate. But you could also, given a target, produce a one-place predicate, Hit-this-target(some-arrow). You get the one-place predicate by partially applying the two-place predicate.
Now compare how we handle truth in possible worlds semantics. Is truth a one-place predicate? It can be, if you have fixed which world you're talking about, but the general form would be True(P, W), right? It's a start, but you'll often see more, adding a catchall "situation", ?P, W, S?, or time and location, ?P, W, L, T?. You could certainly add language, and deal directly with sentences. However complex this relation becomes, you could always curry it to get back to a one-place predicate "true".
But truth is only a one-place predicate by assumption or by choice.
It's at the very least a relation between a proposition and something else. Agreed?
Fallibilism springs to mind. Methinks we've set the bar so high that we can forget about 1[sup]st[/sup], 2[sup]nd[/sup], and 3[sup]rd[/sup] positions, there isn't even one who can make the jump.
I say we make do with what we got ... pray and hope for the best!
Did I? Seems a step too far. I think I maintained that truth ranges over propositions, in order to contrast it with belief, which seems to involve both propositions and believers.
Maybe you should rephrase that for Srap Tasmaner's benefit.
Yes, if truth were not a relation between a proposition (or belief) claiming (or believing) whatever and something else that provides the conditions for thinking the proposition or belief to be true, then truth would be an empty wheel spinning in the void.
You seem a bit too preoccupied with where you believe my position is mistaken. That's several times now where you've charged my position with some sort of confusion or mistake that you imagine, I suppose, that you understand. It's almost as if you do not understand that your ontology for meaning, truth, and belief stops at meaningful marks whereas mine digs a bit deeper.
What's the difference between seeing the sheet and seeing the sheet-as-sheet?
The idea of fallibilism in relation to belief makes sense, but not so much in relation to knowledge. To be fallible is to be possibly wrong and if knowledge is true, how could it be wrong? There seems to be a mighty hole in the AP submarine!
No progress there, so let's revisit "ranging", then I'll give up:
Quoting Banno
So your position is that "true" is a word that can be applied to various things -- statements, beliefs, friends, bicycle wheels, and so on -- and you've chosen some of those things that seem related and said you're using the word "true" in the sense that it applies to those things; and the sense in which the word "true" ranges over some of those things is, well, that you can apply the word "true" to them.
Anything to add?
Sheet-as-sheet is stronger :strong:
Not so much bicycle wheels. Statements, beliefs, sentences, utterances, yes. And yes, there is not much more to its analysis than is given in a T-sentence. I've been maintaining a deflationary account, with nothing more substantive like coherence or correspondence.
I like small truths. I've found them more... congenial. Other views suffer hubris.
I asked a related question elsewhere and got this as the answer by someone more knowledgeable than me:
But if you prefer, perhaps address the English language translation:
1. for all p, the proposition that p is true if and only if p
2. for all p, if the proposition that p is true then the proposition that p exists
3. for all p, if p then the proposition that p exists (from 1 and 2)
4. for all p, the proposition that p is false if and only if not p (from 1)
5. for all p, if the proposition that p is false then the proposition that p exists
6. for all p, if not p then the proposition that p exists (from 4 and 5)
7. for all p, the proposition that p exists (from 3 and 6)
Are you saying that 2 and 6 are false?
The more precise form of my argument takes as a premise ?p: T(q) ? p and so concludes ?p: ?x(x=q). It doesn't conclude ?p: ?x(x=q), and so there is no existential fallacy.
What does this difference amount to? How is Fred's false belief different from someone's true belief, other than one propositional statement is true and the other is false, which amounts to a difference about the facts. Also, I do believe truth and falsity are properties of propositions.
For me, the content of a belief is expressed as statements/propositions. Moreover, I don't see how Searle can get away from the idea that there is a relationship between what Fred believes and his statement that he believes it. As if there is some mistake here to be avoided. The only mistake is adding in these extraneous notions. I don't see any of these theories adding anything important to the idea of truth. I think Wittgenstein had a point about these kinds of theories, which is why he tried avoiding them.
Just that. The argument is ill-formed.
What can we do?
Well, we might take "t" as a first-order predicate over a domain of propositions; I gather you want to do something like this. It's fraught, as should be clear by now. All it does is assume that propositions exist by putting them into the domain.
We might try a free logic, but then we'd have an expression something like "whatever is true exits", and fall foul of the inexpressibility of Existence Conditions
Can you demonstrate something on that basis?
Did you bother even reading the rest of what was said?
It's not ill-formed.
And, to use ordinary English language, are you saying that the below is false?
If the cat is on the mat then that cat exists
Well, a difference as to the facts is exactly a difference as to which statements are true.
And it's held by someone other than Fred.
That's it.
Yes, and read a few chapters on pred logic and free logic. :brow: The white sauce nearly caught in the pan - I shouldn't read while cooking.
I tried to formulate a few versions of your argument to see if I could get it to work in a formal system, but could not.
Q(a) already assumes that a exists, so of course it follows - from the definition of ?x.
Try it this way: can you conceive of a proposition that does not exist?
Then what does it mean for a proposition to exist?
And can you remind my why we started on this argument?
Then the argument is valid. From the premise ?p: T(q) ? p it follows that ?p: ?x(x=q). For all p, the proposition that p exists.
Quoting Banno
We didn't. This argument was a response to Pie's OP where I wanted to draw a distinction between these two related claims:
1. "p" is true iff p
2. "'p' is true" means "p"
The former has a possibly problematic entailment as my argument shows.
But as I said to Srap, the simple resolution is to specify that the T-schema is saying ?q: T(q) ? p, i.e. for all propositions that p, the proposition that p is true iff p. The conclusion is then the truism that ?q: ?x(x=q), i.e. for all propositions that p, the proposition that p exists.
Quoting Banno
I was addressing
Quoting Michael
Which was your original point...
1. "the cat is on the mat" is a true sentence written in English iff the cat is on the mat
2. "'the cat is on the mat' is a true sentence written in English" means "the cat is on the mat"
These mean different things. And (1) is true but (2) is false.
Now consider:
3. "the cat is on the mat" is a true sentence iff the cat is on the mat
4. "'the cat is on the mat' is a true sentence" means "the cat is on the mat"
If (3) and (4) also mean different things, with presumably (3) being true and (4) being false, then what of these two?
5. "the cat is on the mat" is a true sentence
6. "the cat is on the mat" is true
Do (5) and (6) mean the same thing? If they do, and if (3) and (4) mean different things, then (7) and (8) mean different things:
7. "the cat is on the mat" is true iff the cat is on the mat
8. "'the cat is on the mat' is true" means "the cat is on the mat"
You haven't gotten very far yet. The difference between "it is a Cork Oak" and "it is an English Oak", is that the former is justified. Yet you say that the difference is that the former is true. This makes "true" nothing other than "justified", in practise. But in theory you insist on a difference between justified and true. How do you describe that difference? Where do you turn to place "true", to God's belief (absolute truth), or to the individual's belief (honest subjectivity)?
Where does mention or use come into it?
Quoting Moliere
Hopefully we can avoid that rigmarole. According to the correspondence theory, the truth of a proposition is determined by whether or not a proposition corresponds to the empirical facts of the world. On the other hand, the deflationary claim made by @Pie and @Banno(?) is that true propositions are identical with the empirical facts of the world. Opposing this deflationary claim, I argued that language and the empirical facts of the world are distinct. It is difficult to try and draw this distinction without attempting to use language to gesture at the existence or instantiation of things in the world other than language.
Quoting Moliere
Sounds okay to me. I was thinking more along the lines that "this river" has to refer to something outside the sentence and that, in order for the sentence to be true, it should be in principle verifiable that there are indeed many fish in the river.
Quoting Moliere
I said I might agree that "the no-river" is not a fact; not that it is a fact. On my account of correspondence, the proposition is true because no fact (of a river) corresponds to the proposition.
Quoting Moliere
There is no present king of France, so I'd agree with what you say here. The proposition proposes nothing (presently) verifiable and so it cannot be verified as either true or false.
Quoting Moliere
Right, but this example is the same as "the no-river". We can verify whether or not it's true by seeing for ourselves; that's what "empirical" means, and that's the strength of the correspondence theory.
The arguments for the deflationary theory given here seem to illicitly assume the approach (or "truth") of the correspondence theory without admitting it. If deflationism is no more than endorsing a sentence that one believes to be true, then there is no place for correspondence, verification, "finding out" whether or not a proposition is true, truthmakers, or facts. There is nothing more to truth than endorsement and, therefore, no way of determining or discovering the truth of a given proposition. According to deflationism, looking for plums in the freezer has nothing to do with the truth or falsity of the proposition about plums in the freezer. There is then nothing "outside" the proposition that counts for or against the truth of a given proposition. A T- sentence is then no more than an abstract equation with absolutely no relation or reference to reality, as several here have noted already.
That's not a T-sentence, of course.
So what are you doing here?
Check the rest of the comment. You may need to refresh your page as I made some substantial edits about half an hour ago.
The main point is that, prima facie, these are different claims:
1. X is Y iff Z
2. "X is Y" means "Z"
So, prima facie, these are different claims:
3. "p" is true iff p
4. "'p' is true" means "p"
And, as my argument from that original comment shows, (3) has possibly undesirable implications implications which may not follow from (4) hence the importance of distinguishing (3) and (4).
I don't know why you are making these claims. They don't seem related to anything.
You said
I think a distinction needs to be made between these two claims:
1. "p" is true iff p
2. "'p' is true" means "p"
Now Davidson pointed out that if you have a true T-sentence such as
1. "S" is true iff p
then you have in p, in effect, the meaning of S.
Hence my comment.
1. "p" is true iff p
2. "'p' is true" means "p"
So could you actually clarify what it is you are trying to say? Are you saying that, according to Davidson, (1) and (2) are equivalent?
I was going to say no difference, other than some extra accounting being redundantly performed, but I think I like this answer too:
Quoting magritte
:D
From the examples that we'd be looking at, as persons interested in some meta-lingual predicate, like truth. The example sentences aren't going to be used by us, but they will serve as examples for clarifying, between us, what is meant by the meta-lingual predicate.
So on the left-hand side you have what is mentioned by us (converted into a name for the calculus), and on the right-hand side you have what is used by whoever or whatever our source is.
Quoting Luke
I think what I'd say is that it just leaves those questions open. In the context of the plums, the method for verifying, finding out, and such wouldn't be pre-specified by deflationary accounts. So one could, for instance, go check for themselves. Or they could ask their friend who just came back from the fridge if there are any left. The method of justification is left open with respect to deflationary accounts -- not denied. Clearly for someone to say they believe such-and-such, we'd have to do something to provide a justification in the game of reasons. The deflationary account is just attempting to put that game of reasons to the side of an understanding of the concept of truth -- so that the two are distinct.
So when you say:
Quoting Luke
I don't think I'd say that true propositions are identical to the *empirical* facts. I'd say that true propositions and facts are one and the same, but that doesn't mean I'd discount reality. Reality just isn't the totality of facts, in that case -- as you note, they're just true propositions, so I certainly wouldn't want to reduce the entirety of reality to them. I don't think either @Banno or @Pie have said they'd do the same, either.
Why would I make a distinction between facts and reality? Well, because we cannot count how many facts there are. There could, after all, just be one fact -- the fact of reality itself. All of existence is what makes our sentences true or false. That Mars is the fourth planet in our solar system is related to the empty fridge and so makes "there are no plums in the ice box" true, being the one big fact that's there.
After all, it's not like reality is divided up into English sentences, right? As you say, language and the world are distinct. So we have access to the world on one side, and language on the other, and we match them up. But the world isn't made up of linguistic constructs, so it leads me to ask "what is this matching? What matches what? Where does the fact end and the language begin?" It seems like I'd have to be able to specify what facts are distinct from language to hold up this claim, but I am unable to do so -- as you noted:
Quoting Luke
I agree! :D I suppose I think the correspondence theory sits on "this side" of language -- that it doesn't say anything about reality, but rather about how we think about reality, because I am completely unable to specify the difference between a fact and a true sentence in speech. But I don't deny reality: just this one way of talking about reality, through correspondence, since we are unable to specify the difference between true sentences and facts.
Sheet-as-sheet to me indicates naming and descriptive practices accompanying the seeing. This eliminates language less seeing of the sheet, which - of course - is a problem.
Is it?
If truth is linguistic, and animals don't speak, then those animal behaviors won't tell us about truth.
Perhaps a better tact, though: if truth is more general than linguistic -- say it is a correspondence between some animal belief and facts or reality, construing belief broadly to indicate that it could be linguistic or not so as to make explicit that we're interested in this -- then we are the types of creatures that rely upon linguistic truth, and only by understanding this kind of truth would we even be able to make statements more general about this bigger-picture truth.
Accidentally cut off the link to the post in my reply.
The problem with using the imagination as a basis for logic is that people have different capacities for imagining -- so a logic, then, would only be understandable insofar that we have the imaginative capacity. If our imaginations are a bit dim, then our logic will also be a bit dim, and if our imaginations are incredibly active, then our logic will be incredibly active.
But logics don't have that variability to them. That's precisely what's interesting -- we already know that more clever persons will be more clever. But logic, in general, is nothing more than how we make inferences whether we are clever or dim or not. All we need to do is check the validity of the argument using rules that can be taught. No need to rely upon our imaginative powers to define a logic.
After all, even though I think I have a notion of what it means to imagine possibilities, to take a similar tactic as I did with @creativesoul -- we'd have to understand linguistic truth first to be able to share those imagined possibilities.
Basically it's easier to talk about linguistic truth than it is to talk about the possible limits of our imaginations, especially since our imaginations seem to morph over time depending upon how much we might use them (or not).
Very interesting point there.
Quoting Moliere
I certainly don't advocate any form of idealism, and don't wish to be misunderstood as advocating that there are only propositions, with no world. I am advocating realism as the best way to talk about the stuff around us.
So it is incorrect to say that I have claimed "that true propositions are identical with the empirical facts of the world".
And this is an example of where the nuance found in logic is indispensable. There is a difference between material equivalence, "?", and identity, "=". Folk can use Google if they are unsure of this.
In a T-sentence the true proposition on the left is found to be equivalent to the fact on the right.
This does not mean that they are identical.
Nor does it imply that "language and the empirical facts of the world are distinct"; clearly that the kettle is boiling is not the same as "the kettle is boiling", The first is an empirical fact, the second a piece of language.
I think, Moliere, this is the point you are making. I'm wondering, @Luke, at the wisdom of trying to do philosophy without logic.
Poverty of correspondenceQuoting Luke
What's interesting is how this dissipates when examined. So on this account, say, the truth of the proposition "The kettle is boiling" is determined by whether or not "the kettle is boiling" corresponds to the empirical facts of the world. But when one asks what those empirical facts are, one is told that they are that the kettle is boiling...
Which is exactly to say that The kettle is boiling" is true only if the kettle is indeed boiling.
The salient point here is that this correspondence account says pretty much the same as the T-sentence.
But there are cases where the correspondence theory becomes opaque. It is not at all clear what the "empirical facts of the world" are that make the propositions "four is twice two", "no married men are bachelors " or "this note is worth ten dollars" true. Yet the appropriate T-sentence will still hold.
Yes, I know there are explanations for these issues in correspondence theory, but that ad hoc explanations are needed shows the poverty of correspondence.
It's not that correspondence is wrong, but that it does not work in all case, that leads to the need for a better theory of truth.
Yup!
So such sentences as "that the kettle is boiling corresponds to the facts" aren't wrong, but just an obtuse way of saying that "the kettle is boiling" is true. The deflationary view here unpacks "corresponds" as material equivalence between a fact and a true sentence.
This view would not be acceptable to those who see correspondence as an ontology; those who invoke the existence of a category of things called "facts", sitting somewhere between boiling kettles and the sentences about them.
That's not what I had in mind. No one can imagine a round square, or that something could be both red and green all over. In general, we are unable to imagine the actual existence of contradictory states of affairs, or, perhaps better, we are unable to imagine what a contradictory state of affairs could look like..
It isn't clear what this means. What's a material equivalence? Why not just an equivalence?
And why not call it an equivalence theory of truth if that's what you mean?
*despair*
The problem here of course is that this doesn't really give you the meaning of S. You might say that "S" is true iff p, and replicate "S" with p, but that is just to repeat S, not to give it's meaning. You might make up something else, like "S" is true if q, but that would just be a subjective opinion of the meaning of "S". Or you might propose a justified meaning of "S", but that would just give you a justified meaning of "S", not the true meaning of "S". So the T-sentence really gives you absolutely nothing.
I'd have said some things once unimaginable are imaginable to me now. For instance, I thought classical and quantum mechanics conflicted at one point. I couldn't imagine that these could both be true! It was impossible!
Now, I'd say, I can imagine that. And I can tell persons who can't imagine it what finally clicked for me.
So I'd say that what you're calling "logic", I'd call "giving reasons to appeal to reason", or something like that. These arguments are important. I still reference Kant and Aristotle and all them. But there are times when what appears to be contradictory states of affairs to our imagination turns out to be an inability to imagine the right way of connecting what at first appeared contradictory.
Hence why imagination, though it is the capacity we use in thinking about logic, isn't the same as logic.
Material equivalence is usually thought of as obtaining between two propositions, or not. If two propositions have the same truth values on every row of a truth tables. It's another way of saying "correspondence".
I think there are things which are simply unimaginable as I said, and it is those things I am referring to, not things which change; which we can come to imagine with more practice or whatever. Think of Kant's pure forms of intuition: we cannot imagine an object without spatial dimensions, or without persistence in time, or without form, or without constitution, and so on,
Your reference to QM is a good case in point: it seems contradictory to say that something could be both a wave and a particle simply because the way we imagine each of these to be seems to make them incompatible. I think it was Feynman who said "I think I can safely say that no one understands quantum mechanics". I think it's obvious he means that no one can imagine what is going on, not that no one can understand the maths.
Or take the idea in relativity theory that mass warps the fabric of spacetime: no one can imagine, in the sense of visualize, a three dimensional space warping (into a fourth dimension), so to get some visual purchase on the idea a model of a two dimensional surface warping (into the third dimension) is offered.
That's not truth deflation and most definitely not correspondence theory.
These supposed counterexamples were given:
"But there are cases where the correspondence theory becomes opaque. It is not at all clear what the "empirical facts of the world" are that make the propositions "four is twice two", "no married men are bachelors " or "this note is worth ten dollars" true. Yet the appropriate T-sentence will still hold."
I don't think the correspondence account (I dislike "theory") is opaque in these cases at all. "Four is twice two" can easily be demonstrated empirically with apples; in fact it is by using objects that children are taught to count. It is a fact of our world that married men are not counted as batchelors, and on investigation it would be found that bachelors do not possess valid marriage certificates, and have not participated in the ceremony of marriage. That a note is worth ten dollars is a fact easily verified in any store in the world. It just takes a little imagination to see that correspondence does hold, and that in fact we have no other viable account of truth.
There aren't actually two propositions there. It's one sentence. Have you modified the idea of material equivalence?
"As we saw in the last section, two different symbolic sentences can translate the same English sentence. In the last section I claimed that ~S ? R and S v R are equivalent. More precisely, they are equivalent ways of capturing the truth-functional relationship between propositions. Two propositions are materially equivalent if and only if they have the same truth value for every assignment of truth values to the atomic propositions. That is, they have the same truth values on every row of a truth table. The truth table below demonstrates that ~S ? R and S v R are materially equivalent."
From here
I didn't introduce the term into the discussion, but it seem to me that the term is to all intents synonymous with "correspondence", albeit without the metaphysical baggage that can accompany the latter term.
It appears to be the same proposition. If not, how are they different?
This isn't the T-schema, as I'm sure you're aware.
That's: "Snow is white" is true IFF snow is white.
You've got the proposition that snow is white being materially equivalent to the proposition that snow is white. ?
Well, sure it is! Some language less creatures can see a sheet. I would not say that they see a sheet-as-sheet. I don't think you would either.
Quoting Moliere
Not exactly the wording I would use, but I think I agree with the general thrust/idea. I would only note that we not only rely upon notions of truth(linguistic truth), but...
...we also rely upon correspondence long before being able to talk about it. <--------that last bit, of course, cannot be arrived at without complex language use capable of thinking about our own thought and belief as a subject matter in its own right; which is the point you're making if I understand you correctly. If I do, then we agree on that.
Nice comparison/contrast regarding correspondence and T sentences.
:point:
Quoting Tate
You can't do that.
I can't do what?
I suggest you and @Janus work out what you're doing between you and get back to me.
You said deflationary truth is where there's a material equivalence between a true sentence and a fact.
This is not the case. It says there's a material equivalence between "P" is true, and P.
You're just wrong.
Why not? Aren't we doing so right now, through the power of language?
Ok, then. Best if you don't pay any attention to my posts.
Oh dear.
Material equivalence is just for propositions.
Digging in...
There is no single referent for "linguistic truth". There are several. The only one applicable to language less creatures' belief is correspondence. My twenty-seven-month-old granddaughter knew that "there's nothing in there" was not true, despite her not having a linguistic notion of truth, because she knew what the utterance meant, and knew that there were things in there(the fridge).
That's correspondence understood long before ever learning to how to use the term "truth". Long before becoming aware of her own fallibility, long before skepticism and doubt have fertile enough ground to sprout, long before all that... she already knew when she heard a false claim about the contents of the fridge.
Language less creatures' belief is different though. They cannot know when some statement is false for they do not think, believe, or speak in statements. I'll leave it there for now...
Take it up with Banno; the term was not introduced by me.
No.
I don't agree with this supposed "fact". I was taught how to count by learning an order. We start with the word one, then two, then three, up to ten. A few repetitions and I had the order memorized. It was explained that each number represents a different quantity, but I was not shown those different quantities. I was shown some of the quantities, like one and two, to get the idea of what a quantity was, but that's not how I learned to count. I learned to count by learning the order.
I believe that this is why we readily accept Platonic realism, because when we learn to count in this way, by learning an order, the only objects counted are the numbers. But intuitively we believe that if we are counting, or if we are learning an order, then there must be something real which is counted, or ordered. That is, if one apprehends an order, there must be something which is ordered, and that something is the numbers. Therefore, numbers are real objects, which have an order, Platonic realism.
Now, these examples are close to home, so I feel a bit unfair criticizing them. But I'd say that there's a difference between knowing and being able to explicate a concept, and that twenty seven months is more than enough time to no longer count as "language-less" -- after all, she knew the words and what they meant and what truth and falsity were, what a participant in a conversation is, identities of participants including her own -- so much already there in the game of truth-telling, and --
"There's nothing in there" is true iff there's nothing in there.
Both are false, and so the "iff" is true. So the T-schema works for your example.
Maybe Kant was wrong? But, eh, like I said I'll have to read more before really pursuing this thought. I mostly just wanted to say that the relationship between time and logic isn't some kind of obvious done-deal -- it's not obvious that we should think of time and space as our imaginations depict them.
The granddaughter is not language less. Did you bother to read the entire post?
Quoting creativesoul
That your example was meant to convey something about someone without language using correspondence, so I thought it important to say that language is part of your example.
But I missed the last sentence. OK, this is a contrast case, not an example. My bad. I was reading it as the example.
Sure, I agree that with a language less creature that they do not speak about truth or falsity or anything like that. Say a wild bird -- they communicate, but it's not with language. Or, perhaps we could say, it's a proto-language, prior to having the ability to represent its own sentences.
I have said before that truth is a property of utterances, but I'm less certain of that now. If "facts" are suspect, then "properties" are too -- abstract place-holders without concrete predicates. But I still know what a true sentence is, and while I disagree with the assertion I believe I understand when people say "the Truth will set you free". The meaning is clear.
So there's small-t truth, as the truth of true sentences, and then there's the Truth, or The True. Often times we slip between both claims in talking about Truth, though if we focus we can realize there's a big difference between what Plato means by The True, and what I mean by "I'm telling the truth"
And when it comes to that kind of truth, I've been attempting to work out a reduction of Truth to fiction. Because if small-truth is embedded in language, as I still suspect, then there shouldn't even be any properties of Truth. It's a category for sentences, and "property" usually refers to some aspect of a real thing -- and truth doesn't appear to be real. Or, maybe, it's just as real as language, but that's the place where ontology gets funny (and "property" is probably a misleading term, at least)
Quoting Bartricks
"True" is what we call sentence tokens that bear repeating on their own terms, which is to say, without contextualising in the manner of "... is untrue because..." or "... would be the case if not for..." etc.
Such contexts are potential predators, and must be fought off and dominated.
Or we could do each other's views, but randomly selected, like a secret Santa. ;-)
Anyhow, I can try to summarize where I am at the moment, still in progress.
It seems plain to me that truth is not a property of a sentence, like being in English or in the passive voice or contradictory. It's at least a relation between a sentence and something else; that is, it's the status of that relation that makes a sentence true or false. We use "true" as a 1-place predicate only because the value of the other parameter (or parameters, if we need more) is held fixed, or assumed, or implicated, something like that.
Convention T and other versions of the equivalence thesis may count as adequate descriptions of how we use the word "true," or at least adequate descriptions of a way of using the word common among philosophers, but are only descriptive and offer no explanation for why the LHS tracks the truth-value of the RHS, where all the action is. It notes the material equivalence, and stops. As such, this equivalence should be a consequence of a genuine theory of truth, if such a thing is possible. It may well be that truth has to be taken as a primitive, but I don't think the equivalence thesis either shows that or blocks it.
As for what a theory of truth that goes beyond the equivalence should look like, and whether it's possible, I don't know. Material equivalence is a slightly odd, slightly old-fashioned mechanism to play such a central role in our understanding of the central concept of philosophy. What if, instead, we had all learned in school that if "The kettle is boiling" is true, it's true because the kettle is boiling, and if the kettle weren't boiling, it wouldn't be true. That's a whole different ballpark, logically speaking. I think the natural place to look for why a sentence is true or false is what the sentence is about, and maybe -- this is hard to say without circularity -- what's relevant to its truth or falsehood. The sort of thing you might push over to the epistemic side -- what would enable you to come to know something is the case -- what goes there is the sort of thing that makes the sentence true.
TLDR: if I go on with this, I'll probably be reading up on truth-makers.
It's too basic to analyze. Apparently we don't learn it, since it can't be taught. Maybe it's part of the structure of mind and thought.
Two or three paragraphs is not needed for me. To express your honest belief, to the best of your ability, is to tell the truth.
If you want to discuss what honest means, that would take more than two or three paragraphs.
Excellent proposal.
Truth is different to belief, justification, agreement, and so on, in being unary. Statements of truth have only one place, taken by a proposition, conceived broadly as statements, utterances, facts, and so on. Beliefs have two places, one propositional, the other nominating the believer.
Statements of truth have an illocutionary force that implies authority.
Statements of truth have minimal logical structure, presented in T-sentences. The T-sentence displays an equivalence between meaning and truth. T-sentences can be understood as either using truth to show meaning, or using meaning to show truth.
So if the t-sentence "S is true iff p" is true, then we can either see p as giving the meaning of S; or we can see S and p as giving the meaning of "...is true iff...".
This is a stark, minimal view of truth that does not seek to sort out which statements are true and which are false. I do not think that a general theory of that sort is possible; correspondence, coherence, fallibilism and so on each tell part of that story, but none are sufficient to tell the whole story. They are better thought of as theories about why we might accept or believe this or that statement, theories of justification. rather than theories about the nature of truth.
Leaving aside the possibility that our notions of particles and waves, derived as they are from our experience, are not applicable at all in the quantum context, in other words if that unimaginable synthesis of particle and wave is the actuality (whatever that might even mean), then it isn't logic at all, and it isn't something we can directly perceive or, hence, imagine. That's my take anyway.
The numbers are usually shown to correspond with objects, like five fingers, ten fingers, two eyes and so on.
Quoting Tate Que?
Fair. But who else are you waiting for replies from?
Mind if I invite @Janus, @creativesoul, @Michael, @Luke, @Pie, @Agent Smith, and @Isaac?
Folks,
Quoting Sam26
I'm a serial maker of muddy water, so I shall provide a perspective I don't believe anyone who has been tagged would provide, and perhaps would derail the thread if pursued.
There is an adage that truth is about the relationship of statements to the world. A statement will be true if its meaning is connected to the world in the right way; be that because what it means for a statement to be true is equivalent to a state of the world or alternatively a picture of it. Both of these set up a symbolic-linguistic relationship between language and world. Which is all well and good. But it isn't the start of the story. Why? It takes interpretation for granted.
In either case of construing truth as a symbolic-linguistic relationship of a statement to the world, there is a "word to world fit", how does it fit? Identity or a pictorial relationship. But what is it about statements that makes them able to have either an identity or pictorial relationship with states of affairs? Ultimately, a practical, perceptual engagement with the world which is reciprocal between utterer and world. Statements have a pictorial or identity relationship with states of affairs because they are designed to do so through how we inhabit our environments. That how is what embodies the fit of "word to world", and that how is us using our minds and bodies.
Ultimately then, what it means for a statement to be true is a derivative case of what it means for a relationship between a human and their environment to be in a certain way. Truth is produced through a way of engaging faithfully and perspicuously with the world and your own place in it, and in a reciprocal, adaptive and transformative manner. That production is also an interpretation of its environment; a symbolic-perceptual-linguistic one. It fits and makes fit language to world and world to language.
A statement will then count as true if its interpretation matches up with the world. Truth itself is in the non-linguistic (or only partially linguistic) relation of statement and world, not its relata. Thus it is something we do together.
Bloody typical eh. Another Wittgenstein-Heidegger correspondence. : D
What we mean by our concepts, in this case truth, is a function of how we use concepts in our forms of life, that is, it is a linguistic social construct. These linguistic social constructs are governed by implicit and explicit rules (rules of grammar and other socially contrived rules), but these rules are not always hard and fast, they allow for expansion and contraction. However, expand too much, or contract too much, and you are pushing the limits of what can be said, or constricting what can sensibly said.
Our use of the concept truth is a function of statements, more precisely propositions. Propositions are used to express ones belief or claim within a rule-governed social context. These propositions are for the most part binary in nature, that is, if the claim/belief is true, then the proposition aligns, corresponds, mirrors, correlates, pictures, a fact (state-of-affairs) in reality (reality being anything that can be said to exist, even the abstract, as well as the stories of fiction). If the proposition misses the mark, or does not accomplish its goal, as a picture or a correlate of reality, then it is false.
The ontology of facts is quite broad in its depth, as I have already hinted. We can speak of facts in objective reality, for example, The Earth has one moon. We can speak of the facts of logic and mathematics, which are governed by the rules of these particular languages. We can also speak of subjective facts, for example, Sam likes apples. There are even facts of fiction, which have no objective instance in reality, other than the story itself, and the expanded use of concepts within that story. The relation of our claims to truth (statements/propositional claims), or our denial of said claims, namely, our beliefs that such and such is the case, is a relation between our statements/propositions within our forms of life, and what we believe are the actual facts of reality.
We experience a constant succession of images and impressions that, due to repetition. similarity and invariance across time for the individual perceiver, and intersubjective agreement about what is experienced between individual perceivers, leads to a linguistically generated "shared" world of fixed objects and facts about those objects and this factual world is an inference to the best explanation for that commonality of experience, and is also pragmatically necessary for communication.
The actual is never contained in this perceptual/conceptual picture of a world of fixed entities and facts, and cannot be "captured" conceptually, even though we all, via our embodied experience, apprehend and understand it directly as a constantly changing heraclitean "flux".
So, in this sense that the world of objects and facts is a collective, pragmatic, conventional fiction; it becomes clear that it is only within this shared ambit that truth finds its meaning. On account of this I say that the logic of truth is simple correspondence between what is said and what is seen, or imagined to be.
It is just an extension of the necessary (to this social game of communication) general correspondence between what is experienced and what is said about that experience that we call 'meaning'. The mistakes in meaningful statements that render them false do not render them meaningless, which shows that interpretations of events must be accurate, in the sense of hitting the mark, in order to be true as distinct form being merely meaningful confabulations.
As poorly expressed as it is, that is my attempt to explain my understanding of truth.
In my experience, the numbers were shown to correspond with quantities, only after the numbers were learns. That's the point, we learn the numbers (words) first, then we learn the correspondence. We counted to ten, then twenty, then learned how to get to one hundred. Fingers were not involved. Learning the concept of "quantity" came after learning how to count. Maybe we should ask a grade school teacher about this, for confirmation. Or, try some Google research: [quote=https://makemathmoments.com/counting-principles/]
1. Stable Order
The first principle of counting involves the student using a list of words to count in a repeatable order. This ordered or stable list of counting words must be at least as long as the number of items to be counted.[/quote]
Two is after one, plain and simple, it's the number after one, that's the meaning we were taught. That's how we learned it, as an order, one, then two, then three, then four, ... "to infinity and beyond! ".
A few minutes in a classroom will quickly show that there is no one right way to teach counting. Its a far more complex task than it appears to a competent adult. It should be apparent that the background and capacity of each child must be accounted for.
It's not learning a language game, but a variety of games: counting, chanting, sharing, pattern recognition... Success is measured by the capacity to enter into existing and novel uses.
The temptation is always to oversimplify the task of teaching.
You haven't learned about "order" yet? Do you read left to right? Take a look at a number line. There's no quantities on that line.
What I said in the first post on this subject, is that what is said to be counted, is the number itself. That's why our methods of learning lend themselves very well to Platonic realism.
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8......at each point in that series represented by a different numeral, the number of numerals, including the one selected and all those to the left of the one selected, is equal to the number represented by the numeral at the point selected.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
I have no idea what that means.
It was embedded before humans started counting? That's interesting.
No, the numerals on a number line do not represent the number of numerals, because there is zero, and negatives.
Indeed.
Quoting Tate
That's not what was claimed.
It became embedded after they started counting? Also interesting.
That series of numerals I presented was not meant to represent anything other than the series of numerals that it is.
You could have a series of the numeral '1' like this: 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, ..... Select any point and the numeral equivalent to the '1' at that point can be found by counting all the way to the left. If you chose the last '1' on the right. then the numeral equivalent at that point in the series would be '11' because there are eleven '1's including the one selected and all those to the left of it. .
I don't see how that's relevant. it has nothing to do with how we count. That it takes a quantity of eleven things to establish an order consisting of eleven things, does not imply that a person needs to know the quantity in order to know the order.
I'm not talking about communication. I'm also not attributing communication to birds. I'm talking about belief, and how it pertains to and/or is germane to discourse about truth.
I can see how my example could have been taken the way you did. My bad, more than yours on that!
The example is one of an in between stage, meant to point out how we understand when some statements are false long before we have anything close to a linguistically informed notion of "truth".
Again, you really do not seem to have any understanding of the concept of "order". If you have no desire to consider such a concept, then go right ahead, and allow order to remain a meaningless regurgitation from your perspective.
At around the same age you learn your ABC's. That's pure sequence, no quantity.
The, you know, point of math is that things like sequence and quantity end up fitting together.
Learning to count, for instance, is not the same as learning to measure -- right up until it turns out it is.
From one time? No. (It takes kids more than a couple weeks to make it from kindergarten to 6th grade.)
I briefly taught math in a homeschool co-op, to a bunch of teenagers. My favorite exercise was asking them why the internal angles of a triangle add up to 180 degrees. They knew that they do, and with enough help they could prove it -- but why is it provable? Why is it true?
And now we're back on topic.
I have lived over a year - fact.
I have lived hundreds of years - lie.
I might live to a hundred - indirectly fact.
In thinking about how truth does seem comfortable playing with the other alethic modalities, and still in a possible worlds mood, I was thinking about how truth has to be about our world, about where we live, and is thereby also about us, every time, whether it seems to be or not, because every truth says something about what kind of world we live in and that says something about us as its residents, as part of it. (This is a sort of positive spin on Davidson's Big Fact argument.)
It has to be our kettle boiling, here in this world, for "The kettle is boiling" to be true. There is a sense in which, if our kettle is not boiling, even if it's boiling in many nearby worlds, the sentence "The kettle is boiling" doesn't belong here. (I was tempted to say that a falsehood is like taking a piece from a another puzzle and trying to force it in -- and it's true, falsehoods are an affront, but the puzzle thing ended up sounding more like coherentism, so I've let it go.)
Another way to put it is that truth is when what we say and where we live harmonize. Falsehoods are discordant. [hide="aside"](There's even a goofy technical way to take this: if the possible world we happen to inhabit were defined, model-theory style, by a quite long list of what sentences are true at this world, no falsehood would be a member of that set. It wouldn't belong here, isn't a part of what defines us.)[/hide]
I don't know what to do with any of that, but I do want to understand why truth matters. It does matter, and not only for practical reasons, and I think the answer might be around here. Somehow truth is the speech that is properly of here and properly of us.
Right, I agree one time would be too much to expect except in the case of genius perhaps, so it is probably by coming at it from a variety of examples and directions over time that kids do get it at some point, different for each kid I imagine.
Hypotheticals are also truth apt. "If the volcano blows, a cooling trend will begin.". This isn't specifically about us, and it isn't here.
Whether truth is about a particular relationship between us and the world falls to the point of the Tractacus.
Maybe, but even if you're not stating a fact ("The volcano is erupting") you're saying something about how our world works, aren't you? That our world is such that this event would lead to this other event. The place we belong works this way, not some other way, and surely that matters to who we are.
Anyway, this is more hunch than thought right now. Might be nothing to it.
Basic rudimentary thought and belief formation is the inevitable autonomous result and/or product of certain biological machinery just plain doing its job. It's nothing magical, god-given, or all that special. It's also not all that complicated to understand. We need not turn on our biological machinery in order for it to begin working. We cannot turn it off. It happens all by itself. Thought and belief just happens given the right sorts of circumstances.
The presupposition of correspondence to fact is inseparable from the attribution of meaning within rudimentary thought and belief formation. Indeed, the two remain forever entwined. Some language less creatures are equipped with biological machinery similar enough to our own to be capable of drawing correlations between directly perceptible things. That is how all belief systems begin, how correspondence to fact is first presupposed, and how all things meaningful become so. The cat can believe that a mouse is behind the tree and that belief is true if the mouse is behind the tree, and false if it is not. The cat can have true or false belief that is meaningful to the cat despite not having language.
"Truth" is a term borne of language. Meaningful correspondence to fact is not and needs none.
My views on truth
A proposition p says something of/about something. If what p says corresponds to how that something is, p is true; if not, p is false. For example take the word "to". If I say "t appears before o" then it is a true statement because t does appear before o. By the same token, "o appears before t" is false. I believe this is called the correspondence theory of truth.
I'm told there are some mathematical objects that don't correspond to anything in reality - this I suppose is one reason for the is math invented/discovered? controversy. Unfortunately, I can't think of an example off the top of my head but what about so-called imaginary numbers ([math]i = \sqrt -1[/math])? Plus how about the inconceivability of 4D space ([math]a \times b \times c \times d[/math] - what's that?). As far as I can tell this necessitates a different definition for (mathematical) truth: p is true iff p is provable (from the relevant axioms)? Your guess is as good as mine.
That's all I have so far. Should've worked harder in school & college. Oh well!
My view is probably a mix mainly of deflationism and the correspondence theory (but I also see some value in the coherence theory, too).
Correspondence is restricted only to the empirical, but there might be a way of viewing all propositions as "worldly" and contingent if their meaning depends on use. Even the truth of propositions concerning fictions find their origin in the books of the world or in the way our stories are taught and told. We can verify whether or not Peter Pan wears a green hat by checking the source work or checking what authoritative sources have to say about it.
With the meaning of a proposition being found in its use, this might signify that mine is a strongly deflationary view of truth. However, I have concerns that such a view is too self-contained and stagnant; an unchanging form of "community idealism", where truth is no more than what most experts would believe and say is true. If this were the case, then there would be little room for science to make any discoveries about the world, or for our worldviews to change. At the edges of our society's best understanding of the world must be some sort of contact or correspondence with the world. We must be able to propose and test theories and find results that conflict with our expectations; with our best theories.
Of course, we will remain within our self-contained bubble of endorsing best guesses even when we do make new discoveries; even when we find that the world conflicts with our best theories; and even when we come up with better theories to replace the old ones. But a reflection on human history indicates that we do have a better understanding of the world now than we did before; that our technology is better; that we can make better and more sophisticated use of the resources of the world than we did previously. Perhaps we understand ourselves a little better. We can recognise that some propositions that were once considered true no longer are, and that this will likely be the fate of at least some propositions that we call 'true' today. Of course, some who consider propositions to be timelessly true may find this comical. But that's simply not how we normally use the word.
What about counterfactuals? Are they false (or not truth-apt)?
But the thread is very uninteresting. As usual for a thread on "truth", pages and pages with nothing conclusive, not even any agreement as to which direction to go. I'll take the road to Damascus. No! Don't go that way, the sun's too bright, and you might see the Way out of Plato's cave. No one knows what truth is, so they just make things up, whatever seems reasonable from their world view. How could made up stuff be the truth?
No wonder Pilate would not wait around for an answer, that would be an extremely long wait. Instead, he threw Jesus to the Jews, to let them decide "the truth" about him. Saul figured it out, didn't he? No, he was dishonest, he did not really believe that Jesus was Son of God. But at least his dishonesty was designed for compromise, which produced a semblance of peace amongst fractured theists.
In addition to my reply to Tate above, counterfactuals also imply, right up front, something that is the case, and try to show how that matters, in this world, by imagining that it's not. Anyway, why would the counterfactual as a whole just be false? (Whether they're truth-apt at all has in the past been controversial but not so much anymore I think.)
And that's kin to the idea of truth as revelation. We start out not knowing which of all the possible worlds we're in. The evidence reveals this to us. What was hidden is unconcealed.
I do so love being invited. Its only later I sometimes regret it.
...The old question with which people sought to push logicians into a corner, so that they must either have recourse to pitiful sophisms or confess their ignorance, and consequently the vanity of their whole art, is this: What is truth? The definition of the word truth, to wit, the accordance of the cognition with its object, is presupposed in the question; but we desire to be told, in the answer to it, what is the universal and secure criterion of the truth of every cognition....
After all the analytical hoopla....there isnt one.
Yeah, I'm afraid so. I am thinking it all comes back to being, but I'm in no hurry to get there.
I would quibble a little with the word "evidence," which is appropriate for reasonable belief in the absence of knowledge.
For instance, much of a typical chess game can be played heuristically, with little calculation, but there are times when you need to know the truth of the position. When you see it, it's like finding a really good proof in mathematics (yes, there are good proofs and bad proofs); the whole position sort of lights up and you see the truth in perfect clarity, and everything else you were thinking about blows away like so much smoke. Secrets are revealed, indeed. I'm not saying truth is always like that, of course, but that kind of experience clarifies the distinction between your ignorance, before you had seen the truth, however much evidence you may have had for your beliefs, and your knowledge, once you had.
I agree with this. There's a reason the myth of the cave has appeal -- it captures the feeling of discovery very well.
At least we've drawn the scope of our analysis to our experience, as opposed to trying to tie it to something metaphysical.
I'm a bit confused. I just don't quite see the connection between "if Hitler had not committed suicide then he would have been executed by the Allies" being true (assuming for the sake of argument that it is) and the truth being "about our world, about where we live, and is thereby also about us, every time", as you say.
It seems to me that the counterfactual says something about some other possible world.
Although if you want to say that counterfactuals like the above are about our world (somehow) then I'm not entirely sure what significance there is in saying that the truth is "about our world". What would it mean for the truth to not be about our world? Are you just saying that "is true" means "is about our world"?
If that's what we've done, then I was way off. Wouldn't be the first time.
But my thought was exactly that they go together. The sort of thing you can come to know is the sort of thing that makes our sentences true. If the kettle is not boiling, I can't know that it is, and "The kettle is boiling" remains, let's say, unfulfilled.
:grin: I just meant we don't have to get our boxers in a bunch over the status of truthbearers, the content of truthmakers, and the mysterious correspondence relation that's supposed to hold between them.
And we definitely don't need Tarski.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Maybe. Or maybe it's more that we have a constant yearning for revelation, occasionally satisfied by various means, by evidence, by reason, by a moment of clarity where facts come together more comprehensively, or in a new way (if you're Isaac Newton or Einstein).
Is there something mysterious about correspondence?
We have a sentence "the cat is on the mat", we have the cat on the mat, and we say that the former is about or describes the latter. Is that mysterious? I don't really think so. So why would it be mysterious to say that the former corresponds to the latter?
Sentences are not favored as truthbearers outside artificial systems. Propositions work better for that purpose, although they're abstract objects. There's no 'aboutness' to a proposition. It's the content of an uttered sentence, which can take many forms: usually speech or writing.
How would you say a proposition corresponds to a truthmaker? Where do we look to see this relation?
Sure, by way of distinguishing it from ours. "If Hitler had not committed suicide, ..." says right up front that in fact he did. You can't be a counterfactual if you don't start with a fact you're countering. And I don't know how else to take "then he would have been executed by the Allies" except as a statement about what the Allies were like, what sort of action they were likely to take. How is any of this not also about our world?
Quoting Michael
That's a fair question. Some of this is a little odd. If the kettle here hasn't quite come to boil yet, but might have, there is a nearby world where it has. In our world, "The kettle is boiling" is a falsehood, but not so far away it is a truth. Because these come in pairs, you get to say that "The kettle is not boiling" is a truth here. Every falsehood is also "about" our world in this degenerate sense, that its negation is a truth about our world. But this pairing business has another consequence, that you aren't compelled to go theorizing about negative facts and absent truthmakers and such; you only need the positives, because across all possible worlds you have all the positives instantiated -- somewhere. The negatives only duplicate (and then some!) what we already have. Instead of saying there's no truthmaker here for some sentence, you get to say a given sentence does have a truthmaker, it's just that it's somewhere else.
And if you take this positives-only approach, then the question is precisely whether that truthmaker is here, whether it's ours, whether it belongs to this world or another, because it does belong to some world somewhere.
I think you're making things far too complicated. We use speech and writing to talk about/describe the world. If there's nothing mysterious about this then there's nothing mysterious about correspondence.
It's not me. This is a long standing objection to correspondence: that it lacks analytical clarity.
Quoting Michael
And yet, "It's fuzzy" isn't really truth apt until you know the context. At that point, you have an abstract object on your hands.
What abstract object? All I see there is a sentence with no explicit referent.
And that's not truth apt.
Me neither
So you're using "proposition" to mean something like, fully saturated -- I'm thinking of the way Frege calls predicates "incomplete symbols" or something. "... is red" is a function, and needs a name there or a bound variable to be complete. But it turns out completeness in that sense only works for formal languages, and in everyday usage of natural languages you might need to disambiguate, you might need a certain amount of context or background knowledge, all manner of things before your statement is, as I was putting it, "fully saturated" and ready to be true or false.
I find that general approach reasonable, but how do you deal with the circularity? What I mean is, if asked how much context we need to pull in before a statement is truth-apt, the answer is something like "enough for it to be truth-apt." The initial answer anyway. I guess I'm asking for reams a theory, because I have dim memories of work on this problem. Just wondering if you have any sense of how such a project is faring.
Right. We don't assign the truth predicate to strings of words, but to the content of an uttered sentence.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I didn't know anyone was researching that. :grin: I would guess you'd have to go in the direction of Chomsky and provide a theory of language acquisition. It appears that a fair portion of it is innate.
Enough for the proposition to be understood, I would think. It would be difficult to understand a proposition without any context.
"I think you're making things far too complicated. We use speech and writing to talk about/describe the world. If there's nothing mysterious about this then there's nothing mysterious about correspondence."
"It's not me. This is a long standing objection to correspondence: that it lacks analytical clarity."
"We use speech and writing to talk about/describe the world. If there's nothing mysterious about this then there's nothing mysterious about correspondence."
I think sometimes we expect more from certain concepts than they give us, or we over analyze certain concepts in search of a some phantom that will answer our intellectual itch. Philosophers have a tendency to take concepts out of their natural habitat, and place them in an unnatural one.
I think this is one of the things that Wittgenstein got right in the Philosophical Investigations. I'm not entirely convinced that meaning is as simple as use, but at the very least I think it's a good approach to dissolve some of the problems that philosophers effectively invent by injecting undue significance into a word (like "truth").
I was thinking back ages ago, Barwise and Perry, situation semantics.
Quoting Luke
Indeed, the point should have been made already that the only reason to go questing after non-circular criteria for the "saturation" of a statement is so you can formalize it properly. You have the option of fiddling with logic to do some of that, but if your target is classical logic, that's tenseless and contextless, which means all the statements have to be too.
A simplistic analogy for coders: if you write in a standard imperative style where there's state laying around all over the place, your functions may only need to take an argument or two and pull everything else they need from whatever's in scope; if you write in a functional style -- or, next door, Prolog -- then your functions might have to take a zillion arguments, or one or two plus a big fat one bundling a bunch of others together, because you have to carry the state around with you.
Real life is like the imperative example -- state is laying around and accessible, more state is implicated by your utterance, so you do understand things without maybe even knowing quite how you do, though you might be able to work out a lot of it. Logic isn't like that. Formal semantics isn't like that. If it's not explicit somewhere, it's no help at all.
So yeah in real life, it should be said again, we either don't face these problems or resolve them easily. Disambiguation, for instance, is the easiest thing in the world. This stuff is only challenging when you try to formalize it.
@Michael - isn't this reasonably straightforward? You can say a counterfactual is about world x if it is evaluated in world x. For example, so "Hitler would have been executed if he had not committed suicide" consists of a comparison of two worlds, this one (in which Hitler committed suicide) and a 'nearest possible' one y in which Hitler had not committed suicide. We find that "Hitler has been executed" is true in y, so the counterfactual evaluates as true in x.
Those have been the three arguments I've offered against correspondence so far.
Did you mean to quote stuff about Hitler instead of the kettle?
Quoting fdrake
This is more or less the standard view right? But I have to say, "We find that ..." sure looks odd to me.
I guess if I'm going to keep wading into these waters, I'll have to study up some. Presumably you can proceed by defining worlds in which the Allies did and worlds in which they didn't execute Hitler, and then you'll have to defend some way of determining how far each sort is from us, which might be closest, which is close enough, and so on. I'll do my homework.
draws attention to the distinction between Truth and truth. Well worth keeping at the back of one's mind, since there are folk who hold to there being a statable Truth, usually religious, but also often philosophical. I'll take here a Wittgensteinian approach, that such things are ineffable, or they achieve only for aporia; hence, silence.
And I agree with Moliere that the small-t truth is embedded in language, and add that the discussion of T-sentences gives us an outline of how that works, in terms of the relation between meaning and truth,
talks of sentences which prevail. His analysis is in terms only of the illocutionary force of true statements, which is only part of the story.
writes of truth as "at least a relation between a sentence and something else", a theme played with in our recent discussion of arrows and targets. It seems to me that the "something else" here is roughly meaning; or if you prefer, use. Meaning is "why the LHS tracks the truth-value of the RHS". The holism Srap hints at would then be the holism of meaning, in a way familiar from Davidson Rorty and others.
poses the truth is unanalysable, but what counts as a simple depends on what one is doing, hence what is analysable or not analysable is a question of choice. Tarski presents us with an analysis of truth in terms of meaning.
equates truth and honesty, which is to mistake the logic of truth for its illocutionary force.
talks of the relation between truth and meaning: "It fits and makes fit language to world and world to language." Interestingly he introduces interpretation, Of course the rhs of a true T-sentence is an interpretation of the sentence mentioned on the left, after Davidson. The holism is there, with the addition of an aspect of truth as public, shared or communal, somethign that might be worth further work.
repeats mention of the social aspect of language, combined with what looks like the picture theory of meaning. Truth is defined negatively, "If the proposition misses the mark, or does not accomplish its goal, as a picture or a correlate of reality, then it is false".
refuses to let truth get a grip on the world, restricting it to "what is perceived or conceived to be the case", and so is answering the question "what is belief" rather than "what is truth". The oblique references to the communal and utilitarian nature of language remain.
continues the rejection of truth in favour of belief. Something to do with a correspondence between a mouse going behind a tree and biological machinery. I had difficulty following the discussion.
points to the issue of the incompleteness of coherence theories of truth.
also sees this incompleteness, seeing correspondence as explaining only empirical truths, but thinks we might remedy this by treating all truths as empirical. He sees deflation as too conservative, for reasons I was unable to follow.
So a few folk continue to rely on correspondence to explain truth, while a few have come to see it as inadequate. A few folk point to the social nature of language, all good, but not helping with the specific issue of the nature of truth. It's apparent that all language is conventional, except when it isn't, that all language is public, that all language involves interactions with the world as part of a community. None of this helps to isolate what it is that is true of truth...
I'll note that the minimal logical structure of truth displayed in a T-sentence is compatible with almost all the views expressed here, and suggest it as a consensus.
Also, we might agree that there is a close relation between meaning and truth.
I'd imagined an interpretation as a relation, rather than as the RHS ralata. It's what maps the LHS to the RHS rather than the RHS; the arrow itself, not its point. To speak of 'an interpretation' and make it the RHS of a T-sentence very narrowly circumscribes the notion of interpretation and gets you in the wrong frame of mind for tackling interpretation as a topic close to truth IMO. Can elaborate more on the relationship of interpretation to truth from that perspective if required.
Edit: agree with the rest of what you said though.
I was trying to point out that deflationism is also incomplete. If deflationism is only consensus then what is the point of science and testing new theories? What prompts the consensus to change if not some lack of correspondence that we discover between that consensus and the world?
It's a commonplace that science avoids labelling its theories true.
But I'm not following what you mean by "deflationism is only consensus".
I think truth is the exception, per Frege's argument.
Quoting Banno
If it's an analysis, it's not a particularly informative one.
According to deflationism, truth is no more than an endorsement of what is commonly believed to be true. If meaning is use, as per deflationism, then what is true is whatever most people consider to be true at a particular time. But what most people consider to be true changes over time, and I dont think this can be accounted for by deflationism. The fact that we test new theories and observe the results of those tests and try and gain a better understanding is not a matter of endorsing what is commonly believed to be true. The inconsistency of some of those results with our current understanding indicates a correspondence and/or coherence element of truth.
There is no logic of truth, you ought to realize that by now. If there was a logic of truth, then truth would just be a form of justification.
And, the fact that we often cannot distinguish between when a person is being honest, and when the same person is being dishonest, is clear evidence that "illocutionary force" is irrelevant here. Telling a truth, or telling a lie may have the very same illocutionary force, so the difference between the two lies somewhere else.
Hey? What argument?
The connection between meaning and use is not central to deflation. But it is central to my approach.
And the connection between meaning and use is not just taking a popular vote for meanings.
Quoting SEP: Deflationism About Truth
Hence Tate is quite correct, where he talking about deflation:
Quoting Tate
There's much to like in it! It's very language and statement focussed though. I think we've been through this difference in intuitions regarding perceptual belief formation a lot of times over the years, don't think we have to go through it again here.
From the Heidegger angle I've been taking in this thread though, T-sentences, causal relatedness and belief networks are all methods of statement adequation, by which a statement is assigned a place in a web of other statements through causal relationships and conditions of satisfaction. That takes the web as a given. In the same way that I've been harping on about treating an interpretation as a statement being in the wrong frame of mind to get at truth, I'd say exactly the same thing about basing an account of truth of statements as if it could stand by itself. It needs a joint account of how meaning is tied up with a sense of connection to the world; some of that is perceptual, some of that is conceptual, and some of that is practical. You'd doubtless agree to those things regarding the use of language, Heidegger points out that it applies to the connections themselves between statements; they've got their sense fleshed out by something much different.
It reads like the philosopher of language trope where they talk about statements and truth as a way of getting at our connection to the world, without thinking about how the focus on statements and their truth is a distorted picture. What Wittgenstein criticised about the pictorial theory of meaning (statement -> logical facts) also applies to a sentential one (sentence -> world); making a model of the world and forgetting it's a model.
I think we've had that discussion before too though. The years are long.
Si, si señor!
I think my view is a bit more nuanced than your interpretation. I don't subscribe to any "picture theory of language." I don't like any of these theories. If I'm close to a theory, then it would be something close to a correspondence theory. I also said, "If the proposition misses the mark, or does not accomplish its goal, as a picture or a correlate of reality, then it is false." How you get from this remark to "truth is defined negatively" is beyond me. If this is defining anything negatively, it's a false proposition, which misses the mark. The goal of a truth claim is to hit the mark, namely, does it correspond with the facts of reality, which, if anything is a positive.
There is no one definition of truth that will satisfy every use in our language. I thought I made this clear in my opening statement. "What we mean by our concepts, in this case truth, is a function of how we use concepts in our forms of life, that is, it is a linguistic social construct." So, if you want to know what we mean by truth, then you look at how we use the concept in a variety of social settings. Any definition of truth, is going to be inadequate, like trying to define, as in W.'s example, a game.
Trouble with Headgear is that other folk have said much the same thing, yet expressed themselves with far greater clarity.
Davidson in particular, in this case, and leading to the quite different conclusion by ridding us of the model.
Yeah, we've been here.
You've misunderstood. Of course truth gets a grip on the world, but what is the world if not "what is perceived or conceived to be the case" or if you like Wittgenstein's "totality of facts..."
Your ability to misunderstand (whether deliberate or not) is remarkable.
I agree.
Of course.
Quoting Sam26
Simply that you define false, not true. We are left to infer the truth.
Quoting Sam26
On this we agree, so far as substantive definitions. The idea that there could be a single or algorithmic definition of truth is self-defeating. T-sentences just point to the relation between use and truth.
Good. I was worried about you.
Quoting Janus
The world is what is the case*. It's being perceived or conceived is irrelevant.
It seems yours is the only openly antirealist view. Kudos.
*also Wittgenstein.
T-sentences, in my view, do nothing to help people understand how truth is used in social settings. All it does is attempt to define truth in a setting that's so far removed from reality, one wonders if it has a use at all.
And yet, they are correct. I mean, you would not disagree that ('p' is true IFF p), would you?
So their use might be in providing some sort of grounding in relating meaning to truth.
Would be interested in seeing how you'd flesh out the model disappearing. Is it because sentential truth sets out meaning and is primitive + sentential truth says no more than to assert the statement? To me that looks like setting up a model, destroying it, then claiming there was never a model because you've put the toys back in the box.
Like with @Sam26 (I imagine), a theoretical emphasis on pragmatics and a central role for T-sentences in that theory are strange bedfellows.
Look, why don't I just solve the problem of what truth is?
Truth is a property of propositions. And there is debate over what exactly that property is. This can't reasonably be denied.
And we - we philosophers, that is - all know what would settle the matter: the matter will be settled when it is clear to us all that a particular view - theory x - is the one Reason asserts to be the true one. That can't reasonably be denied either. For what more can one do in the way of showing a theory to be true than to show that Reason asserts it to be?
So, the true theory of truth is the theory that Reason asserts to be true.
Well, then our working hypothesis should be that 'that' is what the property of truth amounts to. That is, for a proposition to be true, is for Reason to be asserting it.
I would disagree. I don't see that as helping people to understand the concept truth.
Yes, to say the least.
"What is the case" is meaningless beyond what is communally perceived and conceived to be the case. We can get no purchase on it, and so, to use one of your own locutions, it "drops out of the discussion" as anything other than a possibility that may or may not come to light.
That said, because of that lurking possibility what is communally perceived and conceived to be the case may change over time, which means that even the community as a whole may be mistaken. But this possibility offers no positive knowledge of what is the case, but merely a negative constraint upon what is perceived and conceived to be the case.
I don't think of myself as an anti-realist BTW.
Difficulty indeed. There's no rejection of truth there Banno. Not in the least. What I've done is begin to point out that of all the notions of "truth", there is only one that could be sensibly attributed to language less belief. There is no other notion of "truth" that makes any sense at all when and where language has never been. Of course, given that you hold to convention and only talk about belief in terms of propositional attitude, you cannot get to where you need to go to situate at least one notion of "truth"(correspondence) prior to language. So much the worse for convention and followers thereof.
I could have set out all the common language aspects, but you and I almost entirely agree upon those. That's boring. Instead, I offered how and when correspondence to fact and the presupposition thereof first emerges, as well as the origen of meaning(how meaning is first attributed), so as to offer segue to how it later becomes the case that "is true" is redundant and truth is presupposed within statements of belief. What I offered also makes sense of my grandaughters' ability to know when she heard a false statement despite barely being able to string two or three words together. Of course, I did not connect all those dots, only having written a few relatively short paragraphs. I did offer an exhaustive outline though, or at least the beginnings of one.
What else is the connection? Surely it has a lot to do with how most speakers of a language use the words of that language.
I tend to think of the different theories of truth in philosophy as being the different reasons for why a community considers a truth bearer to be true; the different reasons about how the word true is typically used; the different reasons for what makes a proposition true. For Correspondence it is the relationship between a proposition and reality - whether a proposition corresponds to reality. For Coherence it is a relationship between a proposition and other propositions - whether a proposition coheres with other propositions. For Deflationism it is the relationship between a proposition and a person - no more than demonstrating ones assent to a proposition.
I guess I was thinking about Deflationism at the level of community rather than at a personal level; more in terms of what most people believe, much like how most speakers of a language use the word true, or how most Correspondence advocates consider what is true to be a correspondence between a proposition and the world. Deflationism at a societal level is the relationship between a proposition and what most people (or most relevant experts) believe.
Janus, while that is true, it is also true that "cat" is meaningless beyond what is communally perceived and conceived to be a cat.
Cats, however, do not require linguistic meaning, communal perception, or communal conception to exist in their entirety in the complete absence of everything needed for the term "cats".
The cat can be hunting a mouse and that would be the case, even if there were no one around... ever. Focusing upon the words, their meaning, and what language takes misses the point here... completely.
On the very idea of a conceptual scheme, again. And that discussion earlier int his thread I had with @bongo fury about the difference between a quote and a use. That kettle is boiling isn't a model of how things are, but just how things are. "The kettle is boiling" might be considered a model.
But that will be misunderstood. Difficult stuff, it seems.
This is a very tricky thing to talk about. Of course I agree that there is a pre-linguistic. non-linguistic actuality, and we can intuitively, that is imaginatively, understand the being of that actuality perfectly well, even though we cannot get any conceptual purchase on it, because as soon as we begin to want to say anything about it it is brought into the linguistically mediated world of "what is communally perceived and conceived".
Yes, the concept cat is meaningless beyond our social linguistic uses.
Quoting creativesoul
I agree. The use of the concept fact goes beyond the linguistic.
Think it's Davidson rather than Tarski. Tarski's work came out of considerations for formal languages right, in that setting I'd guess they're okay (not a logician, don't know). That's a setting where the whole language turns on propositions with fixed and known rules of association, with an associated meta-language that models them. You conjure up a language and a meta-language and relate them. You can just do that in maths and logic.
That's never struck me as a good way of going about setting up a conception of meaning; in Tarski the metalanguage is a language, in Davidson the metalanguage is a (realist, radically interpreted) language which also stands in for states of affairs. It forces the world into a sentential form by having to flow through the convention. Nevertheless, the world isn't a language and doesn't behave like sentence entailments - instead it behaves like the meanings of sentence entailments sometimes. Davidson has an answer there, because the meaning of a sentence is just set out in its t-sentence; still circumscribing the nature of the world to the constraints of a sentential form, when we already know even most acts of language don't care about sentence structure or even just the words in them (like the famous possibly apocryphal example of someone flipping off Wittgenstein, "What is the logical structure of this gesture?").
You've also got the weirdness that comes from convention T working for factual, declarative language and using it to, generically, set out the meaning of non-factual, non-declarative language through how the sentence somehow 'pictures' the relevant state of affairs. EG, like you can elucidate the speech act of flipping someone off through ""fdrake flipped someone off" is true if and only if fdrake flipped someone off". It strikes me as a philosophical magic trick, you conjure up everything which a reader will be familiar with and throw it in their face with the different parts of the T sentence - nothing more needs to be said because of the sheer act of imagination needed to treat the T sentence sides as setting out the meaning embedding everything to someone who already knows the meaning, but nothing at all to those who don't.
I getcha. I was focussing too much on the theory terminating through deflation (no more needs be said), rather than (no more needs be said (because the language terminates in the world). See my response to @Sam26 above if you want to see why that rubs me wrong!
To be clear, you are saying that ('p' is true IFF p), where p sets out the meaning of "p", is false?
Why?
It's all about that which is existentially dependent upon language and that which is not. We need language to draw and maintain that distinction, so our knowledge of that which is not existentially dependent upon language is most certainly dependent upon language. However, the existence of those things is not. There are certainly limits to what we can know about that which is not existentially dependent upon language.
Meaningful correspondence to fact is not, and that is where convention has gone completely wrong. The reason:Not having gotten belief(or meaning) right to begin with. Stuck analyzing propositions and attitudes towards them. Vestiges from centuries old approaches replete with the fundamental mistakes therein.
Indeed. Logical notation takes account of common language use, or at least that's what it's supposed to be doing!
Rest easy Sam...
With any theory of truth, you look for certain criteria to determine truth or falsehood. For instance, with correspondence theory, you look for correspondence between an idea and reality. Specifically, you need to determine if it's true that correspondence exists.
This means that in order to make sense of correspondence theory, you'll need to already know what truth is.
* Frege uses the wording "idea" and "reality" in The Thought.
Now, if you folk could just agree as to where I am wrong...
There is, as a kind of ground to all our propositions, truths and facts, a pre-linguistic actuality to which they must submit. Analysis and conceptualization cannot gain purchase on that actuality, because to do so is to bring it into the linguistic domain, and there all we have purchase on is our communal perceptions and conceptions of what is the case,
So the necessary submission to pre-linguistic actuality is ever-present and ongoing, but cannot be analyzed in its own pre-linguistic "context": It was really Kant who first pointed this out. I guess this is why truth is unanalyzable, since any analysis presupposes the validity of what is purported to be analyzed.
It was Piero Sraffa, and it's almost certainly true. He was a very original thinker. (I read his book a lifetime ago.) They were friends at Cambridge.
This is very close to what makes the most sense to me regarding falsification/verification. If we nix "it's true that" and swap "idea" with meaningful thought and/or belief it would resemble something very close to what I would be willing to defend.
This presupposes that such an agreement is not already complete in the making aside from making it outwardly known.
:wink:
From where I sit Banno, you equivocate the term "fact" by virtue of vacillating between "fact" as propositions/states of affairs/the case at hand and "fact" as true statements. You also practice rendering all belief in terms of propositional attitudes which has the inevitable logical consequence - on pains of coherency alone - of limiting the very ability to acknowledge the brute fact that some meaningful true belief exists in its entirety prior to common language. You know the drill...
Meaningful true belief exists in its entirety prior to common language creation. Either both meaning and truth emerge prior to common language or meaningful true belief exists without meaning or truth.
That's our differences in a nutshell. Aside from that...
The large bulk of what you argue for, particularly the bits involving direct perception(although you never use those terms) is in perfect accord with my own position which, I believe, dovetails nicely not only with portions of your position, but also many other philosophers with whom you agree. I also nod towards the outright rejection of anything remotely resembling a category of stuff that is totally and completely unknowable but somehow the purveyor of such an approach want to then use this completely unknown empty category of things as a measuring device. In order to know that that is not a tree in and of itself, one must know what a tree in and of itself is. Such an approach is untenable. Things like that are also rejected by us both. Hell, even the rejection of private language is shared. The rejection of the conventional view on language that Davidson was arguing against using Mrs. Malaprop and other intuition pumps(thank you professor Dennett) is also a commonality between our respective viewpoints.
The main flaw I seem to see in your view could be roughly described as placing too much of the wrong kind of value upon language use.
You also seem to want to puke at the mention of anything remotely metaphysical, which is perhaps why you cannot even set aside your own current presuppositions in order to grasp how meaningful true thought and belief exists in its entirety prior to language.
Funny that almost a decade ago you and I participated in a much better debate than our recent one:Truth is prior to language. I argued in the affirmative. My view has evolved a bit since then as has your own.
Very cool. Thank you!
Submission of all our propositions to an unknowable actuality?
That pulls the rug out from under our own analysis, does it not?
Does (1) tell us the meaning of "X"? If not then the T-schema doesn't tell us the meaning of "true". It sets out the condition under which "p" is true, but nothing more.
This, perhaps, is the point @Sam26 makes when he says that the T-schema is irrelevant?
From what I've read, it's Tarski, in "On the Concept of Truth in Formal Languages" (1935), where he's trying to resolve the liar paradox. Also, in the course of his thinking he uses Godel's incompleteness theorem as a model for his theory. This includes a meta-language to talk about our everyday language, in terms of truth, that's my understanding.
My point was, that it doesn't help us understand the meaning of truth in the object language. The object language is fine without it. It just adds a layer of confusion to the nature or meaning of truth.
The object language is a formalized language, specifically the calculus of classes in his example.
Just a side note, but Convention T and the T schema are different things.
So Convention T is the claim that an adequate definition of "true" will entail the T-schema for all sentences.
And, as I've mention before, this highlights the fact that Tarski didn't offer the T-schema as a definition of truth, but as a consequence of a correct definition. As I mentioned here, we still need an actual definition of "true".
What would have been wrong with calling such an attitude a sentential attitude? And making it a mental state held by an agent toward a sentence?
A proposition would be no less such an attitude than belief, fear, assertion, doubt etc. The proposition that snow is white would be (e.g.) the proposal that "snow is white" be accepted, or that "snow is white" correspond to reality, or that "snow is white" be true etc.
Not solving much, of course, as such attitudes generally don't.
But folks might be less prone to confuse sentence with reality.
Makes sense! Thank you for the clarification.
Truth takes on a meaning, then, but only through our using a natural language to analyze itself -- through our shared, in this case English, language. (and the sentences we choose to compare)
EDIT: Iteration not in some abstract space of reasoning, but rather, the iteration takes place dialogically. Just to be clear on that.
I've already explained quite clearly why '"p' is true if p" says nothing about the meaning of truth, or even anything about the relationship between meaning and truth. To state it briefly, that is a simple repetition. Context is an essential aspect of meaning, and contexts are not repeated. They are each and every one of them, unique and particular. The expression you've given removes "p" from any and every context, so it effectively renders "p" as void of meaning.
What is important to note is that meaning is a feature of content. Content is material, in the sense of "subject matter", and it is dependent on interpretation. Formalizations (or formalisms) are intended to remove all content, to provide valid logic without the aspect of uncertainty inherent within content. But modern formalism attempts to apply formalizing tactics to content itself. This is a mistake, because we cannot remove the uncertainty from content, and the result is formalizations which are tainted with the uncertainty of the content which infiltrates. In other words, content, (which contains uncertainty), is imported into the formalization allowing uncertainty to contaminate the entire structure. The T-sentence proposed by Banno creates the illusion that we can have certainty with respect to meaning, or content, through exact repetition. But exact repetition is not a real aspect of meaning.
Quoting Banno
I think consensus has been reached. The T-sentence does not do what you say it does.
Quoting Michael
Quoting Michael
OK, so let's say that, where Banno is wrong, is with interpretation. The T-schema doesn't say anything about the meaning of "truth", as a definition would. Nor does it provide a relationship between truth and meaning, because it removes truth from the context of meaning, thereby denying any meaning for truth. That is Banno's faulty interpretation.
It may be worthwhile to consider the relationship between "the correct definition of truth", and the T-schema. We may be able to produce as a valid conclusion, that "the correct definition of truth" is not possible, due to the relationship between truth and the particulars of the circumstances.
Deflation implies that truth is relative, right?
Odd, since it's clear he explicitly deals with the liar by introducing levels of language. It's certainly not a premise in his argument, obviously.
I'm asking because there is a substantive body of work, by the strongest logicians of the last hundred years, that depends on t-sentences. It would be odd if that were irrelevant. Worse if they were wrong.
Sounds right. As mentioned, the substantive theories of truth try to tell us which sentences are true, and not what truth is.
And I agree with the sentiment of what you have said. ""fdrake flipped someone off" is true if and only if fdrake flipped someone off" looks like a trick. The action is taken and reduced to an extensional equivalence that sets out the time, place, and truth function of each element in the gesture; everythgn is in plain view, and yet something seems to be missing...
I get caught by a question from my old lecturer, something like "You are looking for the meaning of some utterance. If you have set out an extensional equivalence that shows exactly what is needed for the utterance to be true, what more could you need?"
It took me a while to realise that this was not a rhetorical question, but a challenge.
Because whatever you say in answer to this question can itself be incorporated into the T-sentence.
Hence I agree that the T-sentence "sets out everything to someone who already knows the meaning, but nothing at all to those who don't". Nicely phrased. The T-sentence presents an interpretation, if you prefer, and so already presumes that speaker and interpreter share both the world and their beliefs about it.
The result seems to be that whatever is missing from the analysis performed by the T-sentence is stuff that cannot be said.
Hence, in making use of T-sentence and the other components of Davidson's machine, we can explicate what is being said, what is meant. And in so doing we clarify what is not being said, what is ineffable. Like Wittgenstein's ladder, use the T-sentence to climb beyond language, then throw it away.
Knowing how to map the extensional equivalence itself to an intended interpretation. When a given person writes a correct extensional equivalence, they've provided evidence that they understand how to form them. An account which sets out how to form such equivalences; namely, which language elements are in which sets; would be an account which sets out the meaning of language items. What it's actually doing is leveraging already known language items to form extensional equivalences without telling you the mechanism that maps the already known language items to the extensional equivalence classes. Only fleshing out the latter is a theory of meaning of natural language sentences.
At best, then, the T-sentence construction places a constraint on the space of possible semantics for (declarative) sentences of natural language. Rather than any particular semantic account.
Quoting Banno
Lol. By the looks of it you've been inflicting that rhetorical gesture on people you've been debating with ever since! If you want to challenge it, recognise it for the rhetorical gesture that it is, and reframe the discussion. It's asking someone to go on a hunt for a "never before seen creature", whenever you come back with a creature, you just add it to the list of seen creatures and send them back out.
IE you challenge it by demanding a positive argument for why a theory which, it is imagined provides an extensional equivalence for every true statement specifies a pragmatic mechanism by which sentences obtain their meanings. What more could you want? A specification of the mapping of natural language statements to extensional equivalence classes; that would at least explain something.
Quoting Banno
On the assumption that the meaning of an arbitrary sentence can be set out by the collection of other sentences which are true when it is.
There is also an issue of natural language not consisting entirely, or even mostly, of declarative sentences. Like "Your partner's love" - a perfectly valid fragment of language, you know exactly what it means, it inspires feeling, memory etc.
"Your partner's love" is true if and only if... Not even the poets could answer that one.
Also thanks. Over the years we've read and annotated decent chunk of Davidson in threads like this one. Wouldn't've studied him if you weren't a fan!
Don't let my psychiatrist in on this conspiracy; if she finds out that my paranoia is warranted, she might stop giving me the drugs.
Quoting creativesoul
What's amusing is that from where I sit, that's exactly what I see others doing. That's the discussion that was had previously with @bongo fury.
Let's have a close look at the vacillation. I'm not sure if you read the discussion with Bong, so I will start with a bit of repetition.
Suppose we have a true sentence of the form
where S is some sentence and p gives the meaning of S.
What sort of thing is S? well, it's going to be a true proposition (here, continuing the convention adopted from the SEP article on truth of using "proposition" as a carry-all for sentence, statements, utterance, truth-bearer, or whatever one prefers).
And what sort of thing is p? Since the T-sentence is true, it is a state of affairs, a fact.
And the relation between them is good old plain material equivalence. If the one is true, so is the other; if the one is false, so is the other.
So what we have here is certainly not a vacillation, but an explication of the relation between a true proposition and a fact.
We might look at an example. I like the kettle.
I don't think this irrelevant, as @Sam26 suggests.
Let's take a look at the bolded bit. Some folk look at it and see it as representing or naming a fact. To them the fact is a seperate thing that is not a string of words, but a state of affairs in the world. For them the bit in bold models or represents or somehow stands for the fact. They insert an interpretive step between the bolded bit and the boiling kettle.
If you ask them what the fact is, the will say it is something like that the kettle is boiling, apparently oblivious to the redundancy of that expression: the bolded bit stands for the fact that the kettle is boiling...
I don't think that this conjured extra step is needed. Here's an alternate account.
The bolded thing is a duck-rabbit. It can be seen as a string of words, but to someone who understands the use, it is also the fact, the state of affairs that the kettle is boiling.
The bolded bit does not name or refer to a fact, as if facts are things in the world. It names or refers to the kettle and the boiling. The fact that the kettle is boiling is not distinct from the bolded bit.
Now I think this is what Davidson is getting at in the bit I seem to keep quoting:
The bolded bit is not a scheme that is seperate from the world.
Now I think this seperate form our previous discussions of truth. I insist that what you call prelinguistic truths or beliefs can be put into propositional form. But I'm tiered of that argument, and hope we might leave it as moot.
Same.
The process of radical interpretation that you describe here forms part of what I called the "mechanics" of Davidson's program. The question "what more could you need?" applies after the mechanism has done its work. You yourself set out how to turn a hand flipped under a chin into a statement by setting out a description of the event.
Perhaps we can be put in terms of translating a document from one language to another. Once you have a first translation, you can ask what is present in the original that is not found in the translation, and then add it to the translation. The process is iterative. And the language into which it is translated need not be a first order extensional logic in order for this process to occur. Two natural languages will do.
(I'm not exactly sure what Davidson's attitude was to his original project of translating English into a first order language, in his latter years. It certainly is not explicit in those writings, but i don't think he entirely gave it away.)
Quoting fdrake
Indeed. In other words, on the assumption that what can be said, can be said.
What more do you need? :wink:
No, that is the point; we know that all our identifications and definitions are static abstractions derived from, filtered from so to speak, our actual experience which is an evershifting succession of images and impressions. Our experience is the territory and the model we have evolved of the world of facts and things is our map, and as the old saw goes 'the map is not the territory'.
The map is tied to the territory by long consideration, historically speaking, of human experience, and conjecture about it, and its meaning, and so forth. But we cannot discursively set the map and territory side by side so to speak to examine the connections, whether purported to be rational or in some sense merely physical, between them.
But we don't need to do that anyway, since our experience generally makes sense to us, and we are able to cope more or less effectively in the world, which is shown by the fact that we would soon perish if we could not.
Quoting creativesoul
So, the rug is not pulled out from under our analysis, because our analysis is justified by its functionality, not by any ultimate rational ground; which would be impossible in any case, since our static identifications and descriptions cannot ever be anything more than approximations to a dynamic lived experience.
Our propositions cannot be seen to correspond to that dynamic lived actuality, but only to our perceptions and conceptions of what is the case that have been spun out of it. So if we are critiquing truth as correspondence insofar as it cannot achieve the former feat, then we are correct, but if we quell that expectation and, more modestly, understand truth as correspondence only to achieve the latter, then we can be well justified.
Could you explain how this is not correspondence?
Semantics for sentence fragments, imperatives, tones, wails, murmurs. SEP notes about formal approaches to semantics(specifically Montague's):
At most you get a construction which tells you lists of sentences equivalent to a given sentence. It will tell you nothing about the world or why things are in the place they are in. It will tell you nothing about why norms of language use imbue the use of language with expressive regularities, what it means for a statement describing an observation to be true in a social sense and true in a scientific one. That list is not exhaustive. If this doesn't already show you there's more to be said, I don't think you want to see it (for the purposes of the argument anyway).
Quoting Banno
Set out "Your partner's love"'s meaning with a t-sentence then! I've answered your challenge, only fair you do the same... Or explain coherently why you cannot.
The bolded bit doesn't correspond to a fact, it is a fact.
Quibbling on it, is it identical to a fact or is it equivalent to one? Given that we already know the RHS is not the world, it's a proposition.
Quoting fdrake
And the Lagomorpha Oryctolagus cuniculus is a Anatidae.
There's a whole theory about the relationship of the RHS to the world which needs to be exposited for that demonstration to go through!
Only if the most you get from an English translation of War and Peace is a lists of sentences equivalent to ????? ? ???.
Is there a difference between a proposition being identical to a fact and being equivalent to a fact?
:grin:
But you don't need an extensive theory to understand that the kettle is boiling. Making tea is a way of life.
I think so. Imagine that "x" is true iff P and "y" is true iff P, then "x" and "y" are truth functionally equivalent but not necessarily identical. Another analogy, if you relabelled all the integers by writing them upside down, but kept the laws of arithmetic the same, that structure would be equivalent to the standard integers with arithmetic, but not identical because the set of symbols differ. Equivalence is weaker than identity.
Another example, "corresponds to the same fact" would be an equivalence relation on statements which could correspond to facts, but they wouldn't have to be the same statement. Like "water is H2O" and "water is dihydrogen oxide". : D
To make a proposition identical to a worldly item or event is a much harder endeavour than to say it's somehow equivalent to one.
This describes is the relationship between the left- and right-hand sides of a T sentence, not the relationship between the right-hand side and the world.
Absolutely. And it's the identity of the right hand side and the world which is at stake.
I think there's a difference, or at least a reason to be suspicious of one. When you disquote a sentence, you still end up with a sentence. But when you go and do stuff, you can't grab a sentence. "fdrake boiled the kettle" is true iff fdrake boiled the kettle. Is the RHS identical with my boiling of the kettle or is it equivalent to it? To put it another way, is the RHS of the statement there ""fdrake boiled the kettle" is true iff fdrake boiled a kettle"" literally identical to my boiling of the kettle? And if it is, why haven't I made my bedtime tea yet?
Eh, an understanding that the RHS of the T-sentence is identical to the world is a metaphysical position, it would be demonstrated by an argument in philosophy. I'm fairly sure people have been quibbling about whether Davidson is an anti-realist or a realist or whether he breaks the distinction for years for this reason!
Then you agree that we aren't expecting to be able to define truth.
How would it imply relativism? I'm not seeing it.
Yes, I see. And that is the objection I've had to @Pie's position from the outset - that the truth bearer, P, is not identical to the fact that P describes. So P is not identical with the world, otherwise we are still talking about a sentence. But if we maintain the distinction between sentence and world, and if P is equivalent to the world, then I don't see how that's different to correspondence.
If the use of "is true" is equivalent to endorsing a statement, or if "p is true" is equivalent to the assertion of "p", then what is true is whatever statement someone asserts or endorses. No?
If someone endorses P, we know they would say P is true. P might subsequently be determined to be false. People would say it was always false.
Redundancy says the truth predicate plays a social role and nothing else.
I see what you mean I think! Would like to see a discussion on how the RHS relates to the world, and how it differs to correspondence.
As I've said already, I think the RHS relates to the world, but the world is a perceptually and conceptually evolved static collective representation, not a dynamic lived experience. I mean we can say the world is a dynamic lived experience, sure, but that saying is just another part of the common conception. All our discursive lives revolve in that static conception, except insofar as it it comes to life for each of us in the vividness of our lived experience, which can never be adequately conceptually explicated due to the loss of life such explication entails.
How?
Quoting Tate
Doesn't that make truth relative to a person or society?
The problem is that the RHS can be false. It's not the world in any sense.
Say a scientist asserts that T. Rex didn't have feathers. Later, it comes to light that they did.
Quoting Luke
I wouldn't use the word "relative" because that implies an inflated version of truth. There are different types of deflation, though.
Could you say more about "comes to light"? Is the falsity of T due to a lack of correspondence between T and the world, for example?
With redundancy, "truth" is just a social sign that generally means endorsement. Correspondence isn't involved. Redundancy is basically saying there's no such thing as truth as people usually conceive it.
Where correspondence is involved, that's not deflationary.
Can you rephrase that? I don't understand.
Right, but then for what reason would scientists - or anyone else - ever change their minds about anything? I don't believe that scientists just decide on a whim that T is false all of a sudden, for no reason.
We don't experience the world, we experience images and sensations, and due to pattern, repetition and recognition, and in conjunction with communication with others and received culture, we form a "picture" of the world with all its facts and relations. This static picture is not our lived experience but the idea of what exists in general and in common, and it is to this static factual picture: the world, that all our propositions correspond, or not.
They found evidence that supports the belief that they had feathers. But say the original scientist isn't buying it and now there's a conflict.
Opposing statements are being endorsed. We non scientists don't know who's right, so we'll have to suspend use of the truth predicate until it's settled.
In all of this, truth is just playing a social role. Nothing more.
I see what you're saying, though. I think there are other kinds of deflation that might be compatible with relativism.
You're saying the world is an idea. In what sense could it be false?
How else can you know that the one is not the other if not by performing a comparison/contrast between the two purportedly distinct things? In order to compare the two things, you have to know what they both are. The problem, of course, is that you've defined the one in such a way as to suggest that it is impossible to know what it is.
The position reminds me of Kant's Noumena, or any other position that denies direct perception.
Earlier you said it was difficult to talk about these things. I found it to be much easier after abandoning those kinds of frameworks.
If the truth or falsity of T is dependent on the evidence, then it would seem to me that evidence has everything to do with correspondence, because you are talking about a correspondence relationship between a proposition, T, and the way the world is. If a fossil, for example, shows that T Rex had feathers, then what makes the proposition false - the falsemaker - that "T Rex didn't have feathers" is the fossil evidence not corresponding to the proposition.
Quoting Tate
What would make any of them "right"? Presumably, that they correctly (correspondingly) describe how the world is, or was.
Quoting Tate
What kinds of deflation are incompatible with relativism?
Redundancy says truth or falseness is a sign of endorsement or rejection. Justification for endorsement is a different issue.
Therefore, evidence and being "right" are irrelevant to truth. So how can truth be anything but relative?
I'm not saying the world as a whole could be false, but that even some things which are taken to be facts might turn out to be inconsistent with subsequent experience.
Quoting creativesoul
How do I know the world is not my experience? It is self-evident. My experience is a constant succession of ideas, associations, images, sounds, feelings and impressions. The world is a static schema of the totality of facts, things and relations.
Facts give the meaning of true sentences?
I don't see the benefit in what you're doing. Maybe I do not understand.
Getting rid of the distinction between scheme and world sounds right to me, but I suspect for very different reasons than you hold. Belief consists of both external and internal elements. That cannot be made sense of if one divorces belief(scheme) from the world. Belief about trees includes trees. Divorcing the two leads to sense datum and all that sort of garbage instead of keeping us directly connected to the world.
How can you know that if you cannot access it, if your perception and conceptions cannot have purchase on it?
Our perceptions and conceptions evolve out of experience, individually and collectively. We know that we experience images, we never perceive whole things, and we never perceive the world at all, but just images of the objects we understand to constitute it. We have conceptual purchase on the world just because it is our idea, we certainly don't have experiential purchase on any such totality.
I do.
Here's a version of Banno's Davidson's Wittgenstein.
Let's say there's a (non-linguistic) state of affairs A that could obtain in the world, and a statement S that describes that state of affairs.
If you want to say that A obtains, how would you say that? You'd use S. Asserting S is exactly how you claim that A obtains in the world. And the statement S is true (asserted or not) if, and only if, the state of affairs A obtains.
What remains is to specify what this "S describes A" business amounts to, beyond saying "S describes what S describes."
Here things get Murky.
One element here is that we must be capable of recognizing that A obtains or doesn't, and, for many sorts of states of affairs, there's no reason to think we humans are uniquely capable of recognizing that such a state of affairs obtains. Lots of creatures know when it's raining; some are more finely attuned to shifts in the microclimate than we are. So this should be an uncontroversial freebie. (Of course it's not actually that simple, because of all the questions of how we conceptualize A, how we take A as something for which S might be appropriate, or the "always already interpreted" business that suggests our access to A is inherently mediated by S's and such. However that works out, you'll still get to say we recognize A's, so that's that.)
But when it comes to the other element, there will be a temptation to reverse the analysis above. Above I said that if we wish to inform someone that A obtains, we will reach for S because S describes A. But it is possible to say that what's really going on is that we reach for some S-like statement in A-like circumstances, period. We might call that S describing A, but if so, all we can mean by that is that when we want to draw attention to an A we utter an S. It's a parsimonious analysis because all you need is the ability to recognize A situations and to utter S's. We've got both of those, so -- done!
Putting all this together, we find that S is true iff we by and large say something S-like when we perceive ourselves to be in an A-like situation. This is why @Luke suspects that this sort of analysis is just relativism about truth. But that's only if you analyze "S describes A" as above.
It is possible there are alternatives to that analysis, besides of course to the other points sketched in above.
I'm not competent to speak to the program of Davidsonian semantics, but I'm not sure it's been much on display here (possibly anywhere, lately) anyway.
I'll throw in some non-analytic chit chat.
That sort of analysis ought to look familiar. It's in the shape of the cloud that hangs over pretty much all mid-20th century Anglo-American philosophy of language, the emblematic moment of which is Quine's remark that when it comes to linguistics, you have no choice but to be a behaviorist. The only sort of linguistic research he could imagine looks either like ethnography or like question and answer sessions, which only yield reports from language users.
As things turned out, cognitive science is quite real, and Quine could not have been more completely wrong.
But in the meantime, we have decades of carefully crafted language-centric philosophy that makes all sorts of quasi-behaviorist assumptions, if not always about the facts (about which you can claim to be agnostic), then certainly about methodology. Wittgenstein, Dummett, Quine, Sellars, Davidson, it's everyone. All that work is far from useless, but we have to make an effort to separate their presumptions about what could be said about language and language users from their putting those presumptions to work in creative and illuminating ways.
Is this according to deflationism?
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Maybe this, but also that deflationism does away with truthmakers. As I understand it, deflationism supposes that there is nothing that informs or justifies our claims to truth except for the claims themselves. And I dont believe thats how the word truth is typically used.
Nuh.
Starts out wrong with non-linguistic states of affairs and goes down hill from there.
Quoting Janus
You posited an actual world then clearly stipulated a forbidden access/purchase to/upon that actual world. You then posited your experience as another entity completely unto itself as distinct from the aforementioned 'prelinguistic actual world'. If we have no access to that world, if our words cannot gain purchase upon it, then we cannot possibly compare anything to it.
In order to know the difference between the two, we must have access to both. You've already said that we cannot. That is a problem called untenability.
Quoting Banno
Is an empirical fact a linguistic state of affairs?
In line with your earlier distinction here, I believe that what @Srap Tasmaner meant by a (non-linguistic) state of affairs is a state of affairs which is not a piece of language, but which is an empirical fact(s).
I agree that language less belief can be put into propositional form. That's how we present it to one another. Our ability to render language less belief into propositional form says nothing about the meaningful content of the language less belief aside from it is part of our shared world(clearly a plus), and thus we can talk about it. Trees and mice and spatiotemporal relationships are part of the world we share with Jack and Cookie, as are food bowls and food.
No problems with privacy or mental anything.
Looks a lot like a cool marble from a vantage point far enough away in space. We have pictures. I'm surprised you haven't seen one. Maybe you've forgot? Up close it looks like trees and mice and stuff. We have pictures of that too. Pretty unremarkable really when you think about it.
This a "No uninterpreted reality" thingybob?
From On the Very Idea of a Conceptual Scheme.
I posited an actuality we experience; i didn't say it is an actual world. I said that the world is a collective representation that we do have discursive, but not direct perceptual access, to. In other words the world is not an object of perception but a complex conceptual schema.
LOL, I wasnt talking about the Earth.
This approach has the advantage of at least spelling out correspondence, I'd say. The world is, indeed, English-shaped (or concept-shaped, I suspect) so matching is a matter of equality (or perhaps another specifiable relation?) between the concept believed and the world.
Then the world is something like a set rather than a place. It's the set of things that are taken to be facts?
The RHS is an element of this set?
Well said. The subtleties can be finessed.....but generally, well said.
Quoting fdrake
What exactly are you saying there, @Banno?
All I did was stipulate a name for something that may not have had a name.
Surely there are objects in the world besides words and sentences. That's as much as I meant by "non-linguistic". Your kettle is not identical to the phrase "Banno's kettle" and is not a token of the word "kettle", it's a kettle, a non-linguistic object. No?
Was it "state of affairs" that you objected to?
I think I probably gave mine earlier, but...
I don't see any mechanism by which we could possibly investigate (or draw conclusions about) what 'truth' is other than by looking at the ways the word is used.
Clearly, a pure redundancy is untenable. People use the word in some cases and not in others so unless they do so at random, we ought conclude that something separates the times when they do from the times when they don't.
When do people use 'true'?
To add emphasis to a statement of belief. To convey certainty. To convey trust. To add social weight to their opinion. As a stick to beat their opponents...
Therein, I'd say, are the meanings of 'true' and there's nothing more to truth than what the word means.
People are sensitive about 'truth' entirely because of that last use. They don't want their stick taken away.
Marvin tells the king the barbarians are within the walls.
The king asks Jack if that's true.
To me, the simplest way to understand that is that the king is asking, not about Marvin's words, but about what Marvin's words are about, the non-linguistic (gonna use this as often as possible now) barbarians inside our non-linguistic walls wielding genuine non-linguistic axes and other tools of mayhem.
You might prefer to say the king is asking Jack if he agrees. Or, asking if Jack's model agrees with Marvin's to the extent of making similar predictions. Sure. Jack is not a divine oracle, just a guy. But what are these predictions about? You'll want to say it's future states of the model -- that the king is at risk of expecting great loss of blood from the perceived axe in his face, and having that expectation confirmed, just as his model stops running and updating.
I don't really want to hop off @Banno's hobby horse just to hop onto yours, midstream no less, but to my mind that misses the whole point of the word "model," a thing that changes in a way appropriate to it when the thing it's a model of changes in the way appropriate to it. We don't have models, not in science, not in our heads, only to make predictions about what our models will do, but to make predictions about what what we're modeling will do.
Sorry -- I shouldn't be lecturing you right off the bat (maybe later) -- consider it an extended "hello".
But here's a question. is this adaptive-predictive-model sort of view (which is in a poor neighborhood of the city where your actual views live) automatically incompatible with the usual understanding of truth and knowledge, or must something be added to it?
Suppose I collect marbles in a big jar and have fashioned a clicker so that each time a marble is dropped in the jar a counter advances. I have a very simple model of my marble collection that captures only the total quantity. But it does actually capture that, doesn't it? So long as the clicker is properly designed and works as designed, and there are no confounding factors like a hole in the bottom of the jar, my model faithfully represents my collection with respect to quantity. That it is a model, that it substitutes one medium for another, that it is representational, doesn't automatically mean that words like "truth" and "knowledge" are only expressions of confidence does it?
So what gets you from, ahem, the model of predictive modeling to everything being a matter of confidence, narrative, and so on? I honestly don't know what you can say here except that it's your knowledge of how our clickers work, and that they're known to be less accurate and less precise than my marble counter.
Here are two versions of an argument that rather than undermining the traditional understanding of knowledge and truth, partial belief accounts rely on them.
If I'm presented with an urn containing 9 black marbles and 1 white, and asked to reach in and grab one, without looking, then, if I'm rational, my degree of confidence that the marble I pick will be black is 0.9. What is the content of the belief I hold with a confidence of 0.9? That the marble is, in fact, black. I don't know any other way of expressing partial belief except as partial belief about what is in fact the case. In this case, I hold that my confidence should be 0.9 because I know, for a fact, how many marbles are black and how many are white. If I don't know that, upon what would I base my partial belief? If I don't have knowledge but only estimates, those are estimates of how many there actually are, and estimates are better or worse depending on how close they are to being the actual number.
When Frank Ramsey ingeniously measures his confidence that he knows the way to town by wondering how far into a field he'd be willing to walk to ask for directions -- the mother of all "put a number on it"s --to make any use of that, he has to know the result of his imaginary experiment. How far, even roughly, would he walk? There has to be a truth of the matter, even if it comes with error bars, for him to refer back to, or the experiment is a waste of time. In addition to the issue of measuring, there's the issue, as above, of what he's measuring, his confidence that the town is this way; what he's uncertain about is whether he knows which way it is.
We can't conceivably begin to talk about theories or predictions or models if we're unwilling to call anything data.
My point is simply that he feels he needs to address the liar paradox, viz., that our everyday language is insufficient.
Quoting Banno
They're irrelevant to our social uses of propositions as they correspond to facts. We don't need to understand Tarski to understand the relationship between propositions and the world. It would be odd if we did. I can see the attraction to 'p' is true, IFF p, but, again, I don't see a need for it.
Although, I do feel the need for speed. :gasp:
...then why ask Marvin? Surely he knows that in doing so he can only be asking Marvin's opinion about the barbarians... which Marvin has already given. 'True' here might mean {'Are you sure?'}, or maybe to re-emphasise {'You're gonna get it in the neck if you're wrong!'}, or even {'You're joking, right?'}.
I don't see how anyone aware of how perception works could think that adding a word magically causes Marvin to directly relate the actual position of the actual barbarians in a way that just asking wouldn't have done.
I can see what you mean about the straightforward appeal of saying that when we ask 'Is it true?' we're asking if the world is indeed that way. But what then do we make of asking 'Is the cat on the mat?' Is that not asking how the world is? and if so, then what additionally is 'Is it true?' asking.
If anything, I can see more of a case for 'Is the cat on the mat?' being about the world and 'Is "the cat is on the mat" true?' being about confidence, certainty, or trust.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I agree. We model the world and the subject of our sentences is the world (not the model). So when I ask 'Is the cat on the mat?' I'm asking about both cat and mat in the actual world, the one which I'm modelling. But I'm not sure how this translates to asking 'Is "the cat is on the mat" true?
The question at hand is not, for me, 'is there an actual cat and an actual mat?' I'm quite sure there is an actual world we're modelling (though we may be wrong about it, of course), but the question is 'what does the word 'true' do in the sentences in which we use it?' Does it somehow tie the sentence to the world any more than the unadorned sentence? I don't think it does. Does it add emphasis? It seems to.
So yes, there's an actual world that is the object of our models, but is that what we mean by 'true' and 'truth'? I don't think so.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Well...depends how far you want to get into the constructed reality stuff. I'm not as far gone as some. But by and large, you have a model of how your clicker works. It coheres with your model of your marbles in their jar. In what way is the clicker (and your model of how it counts marbles) any better a measure than the other way round? If you were sure your jar contained 60 marbles, but your clicker has it at 59 is the model of the jar wrong, or the model of how the clicker works?
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Yes. If you and I, and a dozen others, were trying to 'mind-read' how many marbles there were in the jar in the next room, we don't need to actually know how many marbles there 'really' are to know that we cannot 'mind-read'. All we need is for you to say '59', me say '27', and everyone else some other number. It become apparent that we cannot mind-read the contents of the jar. We can know this without ever checking what's in the jar. [hide="Reveal"]With lots of caveats about our models of how jars can only contain one quantity of marbles at any one time - this is still all about coherence.[/hide]
So, likewise, we only need look at how perception works (specifically the differences between people) to have a good idea that the world we're trying to model is something other than we model it to be (unless by luck, one of us is spot on).
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
That proceeding under a policy of assuming it's black will yield fewer surprises.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Your prior model. You base your belief on your priors. So if your prior model had a 90% confidence that working under a policy of assuming the marble is black will yiedl fewest surprises, then, unless updated by some actual surprise, that's the policy you'll proceed under.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Yes, I think that's right. The constraints the world places on our options are revealed in the surprise (or lack of it) resulting from proceeding under a policy of assuming the world is that way.
One difference here from the direct realist is that the world only constrains our options. Nothing prevents two models from both being good if neither are constrained by the world such as to yield surprising outcomes when followed.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Does he? Or does he only need move on to the next experiment - an experiment about how confident he is regarding what the results of the previous experiment was.
I don't see any requirement fo this so terminate in anything more concrete than the beliefs are in the first place. Quinean webs of belief (as I'm sure you're familiar with). Why must one of them be the actual data?
Under a policy of assuming what? That it is black. You're saying the same thing I did but in language that sounds more scrupulous.
Quoting Isaac
FWIW, I had the king asking Jack if what Marvin said was true. I did not have the king thinking that
Quoting Isaac
Quoting Isaac
And here again, you have actual priors right? Was it really 90% or was it, like maybe any other number at all? And what is the content of that prior? That the actual marble is black. And your beliefs have to be updated by actual surprise? Or is that only what you, perhaps erroneously, modeled as surprise? Shouldn't you be consulting your model of your model? Is there ever any actual input? Or is it an infinite tower of models?
*
Honestly, though, I need to have a think about what this argument is even supposed to show. Is it the "conceptual priority" of knowledge to belief? Am I claiming that no position claiming to cash out everything in terms of beliefs, with no knowledge claims, is even intelligible? I'd really rather argue something else because we still seem to be locked in this bubble of arguing about concepts and assertibility. I'm pretty tired of those kinds of arguments.
Do you think the world that constrains our models is separable from the measurement apparatus we use to observe it, and the methods of interpreting those measurements, both of which are products of our models? Do we not erect structures of intelligibility we call the world , structures that give us specific ways of knowing our way around? Are cats and mats inside or outside the structures we erect? Does it makes any sense at all to talk about what is outside our structures of intelligibility, which , as contributions to the world , are themselves empirical entities and the only ones we are ever in contact with?
Can we say, then, that e correctness or incorrectness of the cat is on the mat only ever makes sense from within a structure of intelligibility rather than as a comparison of that structure with some constraint wholly outside of it?
Can't please anyone round here can I? Too idealist for the hard-nosed realists, too realist for the hard-nosed idealists...
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
You're giving it's being black a different status to the belief (or so it seemed). Something's 'being black' is just saying that we're proceeding under a policy of treating it as black. There's the policy (the assumption, the behaviour) and there's the cause of that policy. The cause is hidden (necessarily so, otherwise it would be part of 'us' and it's be something outside of that we'd be creating a model of). The policy is not.
We talk about the cause. 'A black marble' is my word for the thing I'm modelling as a black marble, it's not my word for the model. But epistemically, all I have is the model, not the black marble. I act according to the policy, not the actual marble. My actions are constrained by the actual marble, it limits what policy I can act under (regarding it), but being constrained by the marble and being caused by (or otherwise directly connected to) the marble are two different things.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
My bad. Same applies, he can only ever be asking for Jack's opinion. He's surely not thinking Jack can somehow provide him with unmediated contact with the location of the barbarians, it must be filtered through Jack's biases, errors, misrememberings... The King knows this. So when he asks 'Is that true?', either he's lost his mind, or he's asking if Jack agrees (with emphasis - he's not asking for a guess).
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Yes, basically.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I think here we can circumvent the usual stuff about models. Here I think the argument about truth stands only on the basis of what people can possibly be using the word for. If they're using the word to get at the 'real world', then why wasn't the original unadorned proposition about that in the first place?
If I ask "is 'the cat is on the mat' true?" why am I only now asking about correspondence in a way I apparently wasn't with "is the cat on the mat?"
Quoting Joshs
No, I don't. But I don't think a theory that the world constrains our models is itself constrained by our lack of ability to measure those constraints outside of our modelling assumptions.
Quoting Joshs
I think so, yes. 'cats' and 'mats' are just labels, words... we can label things which we can't directly perceive. I can label the planet orbiting Alpha Centuri 'Bob' and we can then talk about the atmosphere of 'Bob'. 'Bob' doesn't even need to exist for such a conversation to be functional. So the fact that I'm modelling a cat (and your model of it might be different), it doesn't prevent us from using a word to refer to {the thing you and I are modelling}, we don't even need to know we're both modelling the same hidden states. As long as the conversation works, that's all that it needs.
Quoting Joshs
Yes, absolutely. The whole game of 'correct' and 'incorrect' is a construction too.
And I'm saying that's incoherent. We can't treat things as black if we don't have the concept of something being black, so there's no way of explaining being as assuming ((clarifying edit)). This is Sellars's argument about "looks" from EPM, and I see no way around it.
That gets me conceptual priority, but I'm not sure that's what I want.
Quoting Isaac
The horror! The horror!
Quoting Isaac
Not me. I think that's a different subject, interesting in its own right, but not all questions are about how we use words. To hell with that.
By the way, I liked this:
Quoting Isaac
That's a really nice question. I'm trying to avoid knee-jerk responses to it, so no answer yet, but it's on my mind.
Really?
"If a thing is a 'jabberwocky', you ought throw jelly at it."
Don't you now know how to treat something as a jabberwocky? (Ie throw jelly at it)
At no point in that did you need a concept of what a jabberwocky actually is.
Treating something 'as being black'. Is like this. A set of behaviours (including mental ones) - reaching for the word 'black', recalling your recent space voyage, not giving it fair access to the justice system (political!). There's a cluster of behaviours we'd recognise in others as them 'acting as if x was black'. I'm suggesting there's nothing more to a thing being black than us being prepared to act that way, to adopt those policies.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Entirely appropriate response. Nonetheless...
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Thanks. Probably ought to take a leaf from your book regarding the jerking of the knee.
I look forward to your thoughts.
If that were the case, then there would be no substantive difference between illusions of trees and perception of trees.
Sam, do you think our everyday language is insufficient for explaining the Liar and/or all its permutations?
I don't think @Banno sees it like this, but I think Davidson is quite close to Kant on this 'access to exterior reality' point. Language plays a regulative and limiting role in what can be expressed, and it's also practical and publicly negotiated. It's sort of like a communally constituted, constantly evolving conceptual scheme that 'blocks' intelligible access to a presumably "non-linguistic" shared reality. There's a veil, but it's not a veil of perception on the nature of things, it's a veil shared conduct places on what is intelligible. It smells a lot like transcendental idealism. "There is no uninterpreted reality" is extremely close in spirit to "all experience is governed by a conceptual scheme". There's just one diffuse, distributed, constantly evolving regime of intelligibility which is equivalent to shared patterns of language, and it's linked to the world through truth.
I think this approach is in line with Kant, with Wittgenstein's "the world is the totality of facts..." and with Davidson's proposal to dissolve the distinction between schema and world. It's also always a matter of terminology though; I am not using 'world' to refer to any purported actuality beyond human experience, and I understand that some might use it that way. Using it that way creates the central problem for correspondence theory; if we understand the latter to consist in positing truth as accordance between word and world..
Quoting Tate
The world is understood to be the totality of facts, things and relations. It cannot be a place, because places have locations; where would the world be located? It is not merely a set, because it is understood to be infinitely complex, with parts interrelated. The RHS is a linguistic expression that can be in accordance with, correspond to, this collectively represented world or not.
Quoting Mww
Thanks Mww, I'm interested in any "finessing" you may care to offer.
Quoting creativesoul
Not so, if I see what I take to be a tree, all I have to do is go up to it to feel its bark and leaves, and if I have a pen knife carve my initials in its bark or if I have a saw, cut off a branch, or if I am feeling agile I can climb it. If none of these are possible then I know I am confronted with an illusion, not a tree. That said, such a thing has never happened to me, and I have taken plenty of psychedelics. So, this kind of supposed counterexample is really a red herring in my view.
I think the problem lies in the vagaries of language, and trying to fit language into a very precise medium, like mathematical logic. Logic is a guide for our reasoning, but it has it's limits. The two mediums of logic and ordinary language are very different, and it's this difference that may contribute to the problem.
Ick.
First, that's an argument that we don't need concepts at all. What kind of cognitive psychologist are you? Too much Quine and Wittgenstein in your diet.
Second, absent a concept of jabberwocky-hood, I can't treat anything as a jabberwocky, because for all I know it is a jabberwocky. I am, when it comes to jabberwockies, incapable of pretense.
But suppose, perhaps because I was told to, I throw jelly at something, and do so with the understanding that this is how you treat a jabberwocky. I'm still incapable of inferring that I should pelt something with jelly because I believe, even erroneously, that it is a jabberwocky. And I am incapable of having a disposition to treat anything this way, so you can't even say I'm treating the thing you told me to fling jelly at as I would treat a jabberwocky. And what's behaviorism without dispositions? (A new line for Q-Tip!)
Quoting Isaac
There ya go. This is really interesting. You're determined to sound like a behaviorist philosopher of fifty years ago or more, but you know that's a non-starter, so you push some of that style of analysis "inside." I'm sure there's a way of construing this that's uncontroversial -- neuroscientists are prone to talk about your brain telling you stories and so on, but of course that's largely picturesque; there's no cocoa or blankets involved. So did you mean the word "behaviour" as literally as I thought you might?
Sure. I threw your name in as bait. I wouldn't mind following through on our discussions of the relation between intentional language and neuroscience. One way that might look would be to look at our talk of things being true and the neuroscience of... and here I'm not even sure what to put.
We spoke at one stage of the difference between the sort of non-symbolic modelling that occurs in neural networks, and the ubiquitous, fraught, philosophical notion that our language models the world. The temptation is to simply equate the two, which I think we agree would be a gross oversimplification. I'm well pleased with the argument that when we talk about kettles boiling we are talking about kettles and not neural weightings, and I think you are, too.
Since this thread has frayed into divers and sundry arguments, it's probably not the place. If you are interested, let me know and I will make an attempt to articulate the topic more clearly in a new thread.
I agree, but I wonder about the above statement. It probably depends on how we're using the concepts approximation and exact, i.e., whether we are talking about a scientific measurement using lasers or a measurement using a ruler. However, even a scientific measurement that's considered exact in one setting, will only be an approximation in another setting.
Why not link the linguistic and the pre or non-linguistic, so that we can say it is not language per se that constrains and limits the intelligibility of the world, but each personss integrated history of understanding in general that blocks some ways of thinking while enabling others? I would argue that the most important superordinate aspects of our ways of understanding the world, those with the greatest potential to limit what is intelligible to us, is often too murky to be linguistically articulated by us, and yet it drives our greatest hopes and fears. I would also add that our discursive schemes are only partially shared, which means that they are contested between us in each usage. Linguistic interchange doesnt just assume what is at issue, it determines anew what is at issue in the interchange.
Hmm.
Wittgenstein, whom we both admire, took logic as having a crystal clarity, a precision of expression that was not found in ordinary language. Indeed one of the things that separates his approach from the Oxford scholars of the time is that they were more incline to give primacy to the way words are actually used, while Wittgenstein was more inclined to look but then use logic to display any errors in ordinary language. If logic and ordinary language were in conflict, Wittgenstein would presumably take the side of logic.
Of course there are for Wittgenstein truths that are unassailable, for which "if I assume they are false, I must mistrust all my judgements"(Remarks on colour). Their truths are the hinges on which hang our language games.
Now in that quote Wittgenstein is considering truth beyond "our social uses of propositions as they correspond to facts", as you put it.
You do not doubt the truth of T-sentences. I submit that they show the way in which one such hinge swings.
Go read "On the Very Idea of a Conceptual Scheme" to find out why not!
Interestingly, the use of a laser will carry with it more uncertainty because interpreting the results of a laser requires more theoretical baggage than a ruler. Frequently measurements taken by laser are reported in statistical terms, so that their exactness is specified in a mathematical way, but it's actually a measure of in-exactness.
Basically you'd have to accept a lot more scientific propositions for the laser to work as a tool for measuring than you do for the ruler, which pretty straightforwardly demonstrates length in relation to itself and our basic experience. I accept these propositions, but it's true that the ruler is in ways more exact than the laser because of this.
I read it and think Davidson misses the boat. Sentences dont link up with perceptual facts in the causal
way that he presumes. Perception is at its core already conceptual through and through , so the perceptual world doesnt verify word meaning in the grounding way that he thinks it does.
That's pretty plausible, but I wouldn't presume to say what Davidson has chosen not quite to say.
Makes sense! I took too many liberties there.
I'm not faulting you. Davidson is slippery, and it's hard not to think this is deliberate. Williamson refers to his "elliptical and somewhat evasive style." He's like the Steven Moffat or J. J. Abrams of philosophy, always hinting at a payoff that's never going to come. What we get instead, what you can actually get your hands on, I always end up finding pretty shallow. He's just not my guy, and I'm less happy every time I try going back to him, which I surely will again. Maybe next time I'll think he's brilliant.
If I were to talk instead, perhaps for @Sam26's sake, in terms of a form of life in which both kettles and "kettles" participate, the one making no sense without the other, would that help? Talk of kettles makes sense only in making tea, lighting fires, pouring water, seeing steam.
But if I say there are no "non-linguistic states of affairs" (your term, not mine) I'm apparently vacillating.
Yet it seems to me that Davidson, in talking about the "unmediated touch with the familiar objects whose antics make our sentences and opinions true or false" is not at all in disagreement with Wittgenstein here.
(And again, that is what @creativesoul misses in his account.)
So there are two questions remaining. Are truth sentences wrong? And if ordinary language were in disagreement with logic, with which would Wittgenstein side?
Quoting Sam26
I don't think it is explicitly used, not as it was in the Tractatus. Elsewise one would be accusing Wittgenstein of imprecision. :gasp:
All this to make the point that logic remained central to Wittgenstein's thinking.
It seems to me that perception must be conceptually mediated even for animals insofar as it seems that animals are capable of "seeing as". This ties in with Gibson's idea of "affordances"; that the environment provides animals with means of survival that must be recognized. To re-cognize would seem to mean seeing and responding to recurring perceptual patterns. Fully articulated this ability to recognize leads to generalities and categories.
I agree with you that the most basic (pre-linguistic) ways of understanding what is experienced (I won't say "the world") cannot be linguistically articulated, and that discursive schemes are only partially shared: each individual has their own unique set of of associations, images, impressions and feelings which make up their experience, and that these give rise to our primordial hopes and fears, which themselves are impossible to adequately articulate. The partially shared nature of our discursive schemes, what I would refer to as general vagueness and/ or ambiguity ensures that there is room for as much misunderstanding as there is understanding between us...a constant process of renegotiating ideas.
I was thinking of ambiguity, and the fuzziness of our categories. We generally get by, though.
You will take my point: logic remains primary in Wittgenstein.
There's nothing in reality that is internal nor external; there's just the stuff we talk about.
I'm going to give you a hard time about this, not because I care about you attributing agency to non-persons for purposes of rhetorical grace, but because I want to know what locution you avoided using there.
Quoting Banno
And now we're back to them being non-persons -- I think. But you could here mean, as you said, that they wouldn't make sense, or you could mean that their behavior wouldn't make sense. The difference matters because one of those things is a word and one of them isn't. If you want to erase the distinction, do that, but do it explicitly.
Quoting Banno
Okay now a kettle is something we talk about, and it's our talk that may or may not make sense. Above you included both kettles and "kettles" -- or they included themselves -- but here, even as you describe activities that involve kettles, you reach for "talk of kettles." Why? Following all those steps to make tea is not "talk of kettles." But somehow even that seems like "kettles" business to you. What happened to the kettles? Can't how someone uses a kettle also make sense or not? Is that the same kind of sense that talk of kettles makes?
No, I will not take your point in the way you seem to be making it. It depends on what Wittgenstein is talking about. You do not see the use of logic in the same way it's used in his early philosophy, where logic is primary. He's much more flexible in his later philosophy, not as dug in, in terms of using logic as a primary tool.
Though only a bit. One of the reasons I've adopted my stance on truth is because of stuff like that -- the things we usually take to be exact (sciences) are exact, but only in their own way and with qualifications and all that. Science produces truths -- but those truths are linguistic and embedded within a network of practices and beliefs. (and, given my usual feelings on science, that translates to other fact-invested ways of producing knowledge)
I definitely agree that truth is linguistic, and thus embedded in our forms of life.
Are you carving your initials into a tree or your perception, conception, and/or impressions?
I would agree.
It is all perception: I perceive trees, carving my initials, climbing and so on.
What kind of opposition is that?
You could have finished "there's just the stuff that is," or "there's just the stuff we say is inside or outside," but you end up here: x isn't internal or external; x is something we talk about. How is that not just a non sequitur?
Creativesoul asked:
Quoting creativesoul
What I meant is that seeing a tree, feeling its bark and leaves, carving your initials into it, climbing it and so on are all perceptual.
Cool. I guess my thought at the moment is with respect to this actuality stuff and its relationship to facts. Facts are the stuff of science. But they are created -- rather than lying there for us to discover, we invent a lot to make them useful for ourselves. Actuality doesn't change with the facts -- facts are generated by our interaction with actuality, though.
So it related to my notion that facts just are true sentences -- so maybe not a disagreement on truth, on our part, but maybe on facts? Though I could just be mixing up your and @Luke 's view too.
I choose not to talk about the stuff we can't talk about...
You may do as you will.
Ya, they're all sensory experiences. You're not saying it's all subjective are you?
I'm glad you knew what I meant!
Your notion of a fact is a bit different from mine. I talked about facts in my summary of truth a few pages back.
First, it must be acknowledged that truth is a continuum, it is non-binary (If you doubt this, consider the claim "X has $10000 in their bank account. This is true if X has $10000 or $9990, mostly true if X has $9500, not at all true if X has $50).
Every proposition P proposes not a possible world, but rather a ;large or infinite set of possible worlds. This is the only way language can work, since reality is very fine grained, whereas language is very coarse.
P is true if the actual world is one among that set of possible worlds P means, or if the distance between the actual world and the nearest possible world of P is negligible. The degree of truth declines as the actual world recedes from the cloud of possible worlds meant by P.
The same is true of the interpretation of P. An interpretation is valid if the possible world(s) the interpretation represents is contained by or closely matches the set of possible worlds which P means,, or if the distance is negligible. The correctness of the interpretation of P declines with it's distance from P.
Good for you. What does that have to do with whether anything is internal or external?
Are you saying that the terms "internal" and "external" make no sense? How can that be? These are common terms used to refer to things which are inside of, or outside a proposed boundary. Internal/external is actually a very useful distinction, in subjects like systems theory for example.
Suppose we do away with this distinction. to just talk about "stuff". How would we ever understand the physical reality of "stuff", and the forces which act on "stuff", if we had no way of distinguishing between what is within a particular piece of stuff that we are trying to understand, and what is outside of that piece of stuff?
Well, from the PI §90's to §136 he does talk quite explicitly about logic, making one of the points you make - that the crystal clarity of logic is put there by us, not discovered.
We are here comming from this:
Quoting fdrake
All the T-sentence does is set out the groundwork of propositions, against which we play as we will with them. As setting out that the king only moves on square at a time is part of the groundwork of chess. It's part of the description of all that pragmatics, not in contrast to it.
Quoting Sam26
The liar is like someone saying "but look, I can move the king more than one space!"
I've no idea - that's your phrasing.
Your asking me to explain your own terminology, a terminology I think doesn't work.
I definitely don't see the liar's paradox as the same as saying, "Look I can move the king more than one space." Although I do use this technique in chess when I'm losing.
That's a common scenario around here.
What?
The exchange is right there. None of this my phrasing.
Quoting Banno
@fdrake mentioned "'access to exterior reality'," and he put scare quotes on it.
I know roughly what he was trying to get at it, but I'm not pressing him for details because it was a broad, speculative post. You seemed to be making a specific point but I don't know what it is.
The criteria which we accept for fitting, being able to, understanding, are much more complicated than might appear at first sight. That is, the game with these words, their employment in the linguistic intercourse that is carried on by their means, is more involvedthe role of these words in our language otherthan we are tempted to think. (This role is what we need to understand in order to resolve philosophical paradoxes. And hence definitions usually fail to resolve them; and so, a fortiori does the assertion that a word is indefinable.) PI 182.
I don't much like the subjective/ objective framing. I was just pointing out that the absurdity of carving initials on a perception, which creative was attempting to use against what I had said, is inapt since the whole experience: carving, initials, tree and all the rest are all of the same perceptual fabric.
The point, a small one, is that in the Tractatus Witti aims to set ordinary language aright by building a perfect language, then came to see logic as ordinary language use. §131. "This sentence is false" is in English, after all.
It would be absurd to say Witti spurned logic.
I only asked about what you said. Thinking about it on the way home from work, I think I have some idea what you meant, but I'm not going to guess. If you don't want to clarify what you meant, I will live with the disappointment.
I'd still be happy to have some answers about talk of kettles.
Who would say the W. spurned logic? I surely never said such a thing.
It's well that you drew attention to this, since I missed it while out weeding.
But I'm not sure what to say in reply; a form of life involves both words and the stuff we do with them, doesn't it? The Kettle is a part of the form of life. Odd that you should think this as attributing agency to the kettle, but I guess it might work. That is, we don't just talk about kettles, but use them, buy them, plant flowers in them when they become holy.
So I don't understand the question.
Good. So logic is relevant to our discussion. I'm happy to leave this line there. Good night.
Generally, Srap, we seem to talk past each other. I'm not sure we are not saying the same thing, but arguing the expressions used.
:up:
I was just hoping you would be more precise. As it stands, your position is that everything we do and say kinda goes together, and I don't know what use that's supposed to be. Not that I would claim it doesn't all kinda go together, but maybe there is something specific we can say now & then.
Quoting Banno
I don't have any statistics on this, but I think a safer bet would be that I disagree with everything you say.
Well then, I must be wrong...
Heh. Saw what you did there.
I also like this theory of truth quite a lot. I think that it accurately describes how we use the word "true", and avoids distinguishing between "What I think is true" and "What IS true". I don't see how we can know objectively what IS true, and I'm not even convinced that we even want to know what IS true. I also think that mindfulness and meditation can contribute to our understanding of truth. I think that meditation offers me a chance to experience the fundamental building blocks that everything else derives from, and any theory of truth must start from the meditative state of mind.
That joke might serve as an example for the revision theory.
Srap says everything Banno says is wrong.
Banno says "I must be wrong".
First revision: suppose Srap is correct. Then everything Banno says is wrong. Banno said "I must be wrong". Hence Banno is correct.
Second revision: Banno is correct. Then "I must be wrong" is correct. Then Banno is wrong. Srap says Banno is wrong. Hence, Srap is correct.
Third revision: Srap is correct.... and we are back to the first revision...
You get the idea. The truth flip flops with each revision.
I think it's an argument about what concepts are, not whether we need them.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Ha! You'd have hated my theories of 20 years ago. I started out research in social psychology, only moving to cognitive science in the last few years of my academic career. I'm basically a behaviourist masquerading as cognitive scientist in order to get goes on their cooler kit...
Wittgenstein and Quine came even later.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Yeah, so treating something as a Jabberwocky is what something's being a Jabberwocky is. Jabberwockies (or kettles, or tables, or teacups...) are not ready-made items, we construct them enactively, we interact with those hidden states and by our interaction construct those boundaries (between kettle and not-kettle).
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I'm not seeing why. You'll have to join the dots. What actually is the concept of a jabberwocky, for you? What kind of thing is it? what properties does it have? You seem to want to invoke it as a necessary piece in the process, but I don't see it's role.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
In all likelihood, yes. I don't know about behaviourist philosophers, but behaviourist psychologists are still very much alive and kicking, there's a difference between Skinnerian behaviourism and methodological behaviourism. The former is (thankfully) dead, but the latter is still bread and butter to a considerable volume of research, my own included.
What we're talking about, at root, is what it is to be an entity at all. What distinguishes an entity from all that is not it. In order to carry out that trick an entity must push against the homogenising force of entropy, it must resist being scattered hither and thither, and maintain, against the odds, it's unity. Right there is behaviour. Not only are we nothing but soup without behaviour, but behaving (acting against the gradient of entropy) is what we are. We are units of anti-entropic behaviour.
In this sense, there's only two relevant questions of cognition - what behaviour is that preparing us for, and what anti-entropic outcome are we expecting from it? The first part is the behaviourism, the second the story-telling.
Yeah, sure. I fear we may well be on our own in such an interest, but I feel the same way from the other side (how the theories of cognitive sciences mesh with those of ordinary language philosophies and their descendants). There seems to be a trend, which I'm not at all on board with, to co-opt cognitive science's models into full blown idealism and/or relativism. It's a struggle, with our current tools, to find a route which keeps those insights that are important to my work (were important, I should say - mustn't pretend I'm not a corporate sell-out now!), yet doesn't fall into, what I see as a trap of assuming something like idealism.
The difference being that we can say what kettles, tables or teacups are, but not so Jabberwockies, it would seem.
This is why "truth" is best defined in terms of honesty. Except for a bunch of epistemologists, who are always looking for more, and are never satisfied, it's how the word is commonly used.
Quoting Banno
Hegelian dialectics? This is called "becoming" and it's like a circle, except it's not a true circle because it's not closed in the sense of the Aristotelian description of a circle. It's more like a spiral.
Then what's the LHS?
Quoting Janus
.....just like that. Such knowledge is given immediately from that which constitutes experience, pursuant to a epistemological theory that proves what experience is and thereby the constituency of it.
Claiming self-evidence is dangerous, though, for, with respect to human cognition, that which is irreducibly self-evident concerns itself with logical form a priori without regard to objects, whereas world is an empirical conception a posteriori representing a manifold of all possible objects. In effect, that which is known or knowable, re: a multiplicity/plurality of synthetically derived particulars, is put in conflict with that which is merely thought or conceivable, re: an analytically derived universal.
On the other hand, however, that knowledge, and consequently, experience, of a manifold of infinite possibilities is itself impossible is categorically presupposed, from which it follows that knowledge of the world cannot be experience is necessarily self-evident to pure reason, which is metaphysically transcendental, but not necessarily to judgement, which is cognitively relational.
Make no mistake about it: the notion of conceptual schema cannot be divorced from empirical states of affairs. Not for us as humans, operating under the auspices of an intellect that absolutely requires it. And from that necessity, the assertion, The limits of my language mean the limits of my world, taken at face value, is catastrophically false, in that language makes no appearance whatsoever in mere representations of conceptual schema, which in and of themselves alone, are limits of a world. I am limited by what I can think, and that, at least sufficiently, by the laws of rational thought, not by what I can express by symbolic device.
Yeahyeahyeah.....I know: one guys finessing is another guys nonsense. But, hey.....you asked for it, so, there ya go.
Nothing complicated or subtle. I assumed concepts include at the barest minimum class membership and exclusion: if I have a concept of jabberwocky, then I'm in a position to say, rightly or wrongly, something is or isn't a jabberwocky. Then I can behave toward it in the way I believe appropriate to jabberwockies. I have to have criteria I rely on to reach a decision regarding an entity about whether it's a jabberwocky or not. Those criteria might be characteristics of the thing, but might be as simple as me believing that you possess such criteria even though I don't, and just asking you and trusting your judgment. But that's pretty weak, and doesn't allow me to have my own jabberwocky-specific dispositions.
That all sounds very old-fashioned. I'm sure there are problems there that need fixing. But it's a starting point, and I think something a lot like that should be a consequence of a better theory of concepts.
So described, concepts sound like predicates, and for some cases that's right. But for a long time I've been uncomfortable with the way classical logic is constructed, which treats all sorts of classification as predication of a completely generic x. I think quantification in natural languages is almost always implicitly restricted, so the logical form of "My dog is barking" is not "There is something such that it is a dog and it is mine and it is barking," but, for a start at least, "There is a member of the class my dogs such that, it is barking." I think we handle sortals quite differently from predicates. An entity that is barking might not be. Some entities that are mine might not be. An entity that is a dog is always a dog, and couldn't be, for instance, a lamp of mine that is now on or off.
(Note that's not a defense of ordinary usage against logic, but a claim that classical logic worked fine for mathematics where quantification is usually restricted but has always been an uncomfortable fit for natural languages where the restrictions on quantification tend to be implicit. Modal logics might get me a lot of what I want, dunno.)
That's my beef with classical logic, and it turns out to be relevant here, not just because jabberwocky is a sortal rather than a predicate, but because you're also erasing all the different ways we might reach for to describe entities and calling them all behaviours, and then even identifying the entity itself as a bundle of behaviours. It's behaviours all the way down, with no agents anywhere.
Which means all we ever do now is describe behaviours, and bundles of behaviours, and that makes them the new entities of unrestricted quantification. Which, you know, fine, but I'm going to be uncomfortable.
Quoting Isaac
Well, it's not like philosophy has never been here before. I just find this
Quoting Isaac
a bit of an odd halfway house between ontology and physics. I can totally see the appeal, in a unity-of-science way, of something like this, but you're starting with a lot of conceptual apparatus about entropy and the laws of thermodynamics and all that, and then using that to explain the being of entities. Even @apokrisis (who has a related big story) doesn't try to do that, but starts from a more fundamental metaphysics and then gets the physics out of that, eventuating in the universe of medium sized dry goods.
This is the same conversation we were having about truth. In essence, my claim is that you're cheating, but you don't know it. I'm not convinced there is a coherent account of belief that doesn't rely on knowledge as a separate category, and that implies a genuine category of truth distinct from people's opinions. Since you want to deny just that, you have to smuggle it in. Same sort of thing here: you want to explain being in terms of physics, but that's backwards, so you'll have to smuggle in all sorts of stuff physics needs and not acknowledge it.
One issue that's come up recently in this thread is the extent to which we might project the structure of our thought, particularly its linguistic structure, onto reality. I don't want to get into that here, but note that this is an odd area for scientists, because in everyday work they take an instrumental view -- we've got our models, we don't pretend reality is actually like the model, that's not even the point, the only question is how well the model works, we're pragmatists, and if we think about it at all what we think is that we should be self-consciously agnostic about what's really out there, it doesn't change the work anyway. That position only becomes untenable when working in really fundamental areas. (There's a similar situation in mathematics, where people not working in fundamentals take a whole lot of stuff for granted. Fundamentals is almost a separate field.) It gets harder to take the instrumental view, model over here, thing modeled over there. It gets harder to know what even counts as justification or evidence anymore if you're not even sure what the nature of your model is. (There are physicists who believe fundamental physics has been wandering off course for a while now, but even if they're wrong, that's a genuine possibility.) ----- Point being, you come along, a methodological behaviourist, and tell me, in essence, that it turns out your methodology is literal fact, that it's not just a matter of modeling entities in terms of their behaviour, but that entities just literally are their behavior. Now maybe you're right, and you were terribly lucky to have chosen a methodology that turns out not to be a research strategy but a factual description of the universe -- or maybe, just maybe, you're projecting the structure of your thought onto reality.
Not necessarily use against what you said so much as attempting to makes sense of how the 'actual world' posited earlier fit into the carving. You've also said that we don't see the world, but rather our perceptions, conceptions, impressions, and things of a nature which sound like a denial of direct perception.
Here though, you've posited the tree, and not your conception or perception of the tree, so at least the tree is included. I've little interest in nailing down flaws in people's positions for the sake of exposing them alone, so I'm not going to push on this or make any charges. My replies are more for my own understanding.
Maybe. But I can say that Jabberwokies are tall hairy creatures with purple noses. I can instil in your mind the notion that one might reach for the word 'jabberwocky' on seeing such a thing. I can do all this without jabberwockies having to actually exist.
Your trigger and your response can both exist without the causal object existing.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
You seem happy to let factors other than properties of the putative object act as membership criteria - so why not "the thing I treat this way". If I feel inclined to treat it thus, then it's a jabberwocky. Does that not serve as sufficient criteria?
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Well, at least I'm only taking a pop at some form of naive realism, I think the target on your back is bigger than that on mine if you want to take down classical logic...
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Classic John Hegley monologue seems fitting here, I'll paraphrase for brevity...
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I'm not sure what you mean by 'unrestricted quantification'? All I'm saying is that it's difficult not to see us as a cluster of behaviours. It's simply that without behaving we'd decay, we resist the entropic gradient, that's we are a distinguishable something and not a sea of homogeneous soup.
You could have kettles and teapots as objects apart form our behaviour toward them, but what would that mean for them to be so? what would it mean for the boundary between teapot and ~teapot to be thus and not thus other than our treating it so? Even for you to declare it to be is some behaviour, no?
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Yeah. I think that's fair. But I don't see any grounds for a kind of 'order of events' with regards to lining up one's presuppositions. Is there a reason why metaphysics must proceed physics when ensuring one's presuppositions cohere?
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I don't see why. In order to think we have to have brains, but that doesn't mean we can't then revise our understanding of how we think with our empirical data about how brains work. Likewise, just because we must exist prior to learning about physics, I don't see why our knowledge of that physics shouldn't then form part of our narratives regarding what that existence is all about.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
But that's exactly what I'm doing. Exactly what everyone is doing. How are they not? How is anyone not constructing their reality from the priors their 'methodology' hands them? With what would one construct reality otherwise?
All we have, absent our methodological assumptions, is an unfiltered sea of raw data and noise.
I may or may not be one of those philosophers, but I do think common language is capable of being precise enough. Language can be honed.
For example, the terms/adjectives "linguistic" "non-linguistic" and "pre-linguistic" have been employed in this discussion by a variety of different individuals. Those uses were mainly talking about kinds of facts or something like that. For different reasons in the past, I used them myself, because they seemed like a commonsense easily understood distinction. I wanted to draw and maintain a meaningful distinction between language less creatures' belief and language users' belief. Naturally, I saw the difference to be language. So, I began by saying that language less animals have non-linguistic(or pre-linguistic) belief and language users have linguistic belief. Seems fairly straight forward. Makes perfect sense. I later found that that particular simplicity, which I always strive for, was deceptively so.
Turns out that that was a very useful distinction for me, but not for the reasons I initially began using it. I wanted to clearly demarcate two categories of belief as mentioned heretofore. I called them "linguistic belief", which was meant to pick out all belief that is existentially dependent upon language, and "pre-linguistic" or "non-linguistic" belief, which was meant to pick out all belief that was not existentially dependent upon language. Seems all well and good right up to the point when we want to set out cat's belief about bowls in terms of the content of the belief.
A non-linguistic belief cannot be existentially dependent upon language. If a bowl is existentially dependent upon language(and they are) and the content of the cat's belief includes the bowl(and it does) then that particular belief is existentially dependent upon language, and there's no way around it. All belief about bowls is existentially dependent upon bowls. Even illusions of bowls are not possible without bowls. So, I had arrived at incoherence and/or self-contradiction without being guilty of equivocating terms. This forced me to re-evaluate my position and what I was aiming to take proper account of. I want to offer a notion of belief that is philosophically and scientifically respectable. Such a notion ought be able to sensibly bridge the gap between language less belief and the belief of language users in a way that belief as propositional content has been found sorely lacking.
I had - and remain to have - no doubt whatsoever that some language less creatures have belief, but realized that we could not make sense of those sorts of belief by using the terms "linguistic" and "pre-linguistic" if I wanted to also hold that non-linguistic belief cannot be existentially dependent upon language. Some language less creatures' belief includes content that is itself existentially dependent upon language. Believing that a mouse is under the stove for example includes the stove. This makes perfect sense given that the overlap between their world and ours includes things that we created via language use; some of which are perfectly capable of being directly perceived by language less creatures and thus could be sensibly said to be part of the content of their belief.
So, I had no choice but to abandon the idea that a language less creature's belief could not be existentially dependent upon language, because some of them clearly are. This line of thought led me to realization that the difference between language less belief and the belief of language users could not be properly set out by using such terms. While language use is the difference, it was not whether or not the content of the belief was existentially dependent upon language use that determined the difference between language less creatures' belief and language users'. Rather, it was whether or not the content included language use.
Thus, we can make sense of the cat's belief that a mouse is behind the tree, or that a mouse is under the sofa, or that the food bowl is empty, or that a duck is under the car because none of those beliefs have language use as content. The correlations being drawn do not include language use. However, my cat also has some belief that includes language use as content, not because she asks, "you want some treats?" each and every time in the same tone prior to giving her treats, but because I do, and she has come to believe that she is about to get treats when I say that as a result of drawing correlations between my language use and what happens afterwards. She has attributed meaning to the language use by virtue of drawing correlations between it and eating treats. This points towards language acquisition and what it takes to go from language less creature to language user.
Now, if we go back to my granddaughter, we can also sensibly say that she believed stuff was in the fridge, and her belief was true because stuff was in the fridge. So, when she heard someone say otherwise, she knew that the claim was false on it's face, because she knew what was being claimed(she knew what it meant) and she had true belief to the contrary. The claim made no sense to her! Her belief included correlations between language use(which is directly perceptible, but includes things that are not - meaning) and other directly perceptible things like the fridge and its contents.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Are there beliefs that do not rely upon accounts(language use)?
I do not completely agree with Davidson or Witt. There are important differences at a fundamental level between their views and my own. My and your view differ in much the same respect, I think. Yours is more in line with theirs, whereas I disagree with all three of you on some basic tenets. It could be summed up with "truth and meaning are both prior to language".
:wink:
Like the shingles virus that I'm currently suffering from...
:yikes:
If there's confusion about what I meant with "exterior" in the scare quotes, what I meant was the usual 'things are they are in themselves' in contrast to 'things as they are for us'. This was intended to resonate with the non-linguistic ('things as they are in themselves') vs linguistic ('things as they are for us') distinction in context.
Indeed. Gives me time to do this though! lol. Cannot move around as usual, otherwise I would not be doing this. There are more real life results based things I would be doing if I could.
1. The kettle is boiling
2. "The kettle is boiling"
3. "The kettle is boiling" is true
4. '"The kettle is boiling" is true'
5. '"The kettle is boiling is true' is true
Previously I've felt obliged to explain that 1, 3 and 5 in this list are facts.
Arguably, since they are directly about sentences and not about kettles, 3 and 5 might be called linguistic facts. But on that criteria, 1 is directly about kettles, not sentences.
There are, it seems, folk who think that we need an item 0 in this list, a state of affairs or an exterior thing in itself, outside of language or perception or belief or some other; and that it is this item 0 that is the fact, which is represented (or some such...) in item 1.
And when you ask them what item 0 is, the answer is something like that it is the kettle boiling.
But that's item 1.
As if there were a boiling kettle that were not yet a boiling kettle without our intervention.
Nor am I, nor are they with each other, and often nor are any of us even in agreement with ourselves...
Understood. I do strive for agreement with myself though.
:wink:
Ya, I'm not saying language can't be precise, only that some concepts resist precision. So, we agree.
Quoting creativesoul
I agree, that a non-linguistic belief is not dependent on language. However, I would probably word the next statement a bit different. The concept bowl is dependent on language, but the fact that there is a bowl (the object referred to as bowl), this fact can be part of the of the cat's belief. In fact, many states-of-affairs can be part of the cat's belief. So, I'm separating the concept from the facts involved in the cat's belief.
Quoting creativesoul
Again, here, including the stove is just including a fact about reality, their belief doesn't include the concept stove. The object that the concept refers to is not dependent on language, just as many facts aren't dependent on language. So, the cat's belief, it seems to me, is not dependent on language, at least our language, but maybe dependent upon some fact that has obtained as a result of our interaction with the world. So, I don't see an overlap, i.e., if I'm interpreting you correctly.
I agree with your assessment of your granddaughter's belief. I think your other thoughts may need more refinement. That's my take, for what its worth.
Is it?
1. The kettle is boiling
(1) is a sentence but a boiling kettle isn't a sentence.
What sentence is it?
Why, it's (2)...
Hence (2) is the sentence...
You seem to be brewing some sort of circularity.
1. The kettle is boiling
2. "The kettle is boiling"
These are two different sentences.
Have you encountered the 'use/ mention' distinction? The LHS is the mention of the linguistic expression itself. Remember the RHS is not to be thought of in this context as a linguistic expression, but as the state of affairs it posits. So "snow is white" says that snow is white; it is not talking about itself but about the fact that snow is white.But ""snow is white"" is talking about "snow is white" the linguistic expression.
Thanks. I don't find anything to disagree with what you say there. What I meant by "self-evident", though, is something like "immediately apparent"; when I think about my experience taken as a whole it seems immediately apparent that it is not the world. perhaps I can say it is of the world, but then the world is not an object of any perception.
Even the empirical objects of the everyday are not (taken as wholes) objects of perception, because all I perceive are images or impressions (of them). I put "of them" in brackets because the idea that our images and impressions are of empirical objects is an inferentially derived collective representation, an inference to what certainly seems to be the best explanation, or so it seems to me, anyway.
Quoting creativesoul
Just to be clear, I haven't posited an "actual world"; I've talked about the distinction between experienced actuality, meaning actual experience, which I'm saying is of images, sensations, impressions, and the world, which I'm saying is the idea of the totality of things, facts and relations that we think gives rise to actual experience.
Of course actual experience also involves recognition of invariances or repetitions and patterns of image, sensation and impression, and I'm saying that it is both from these, and communication via language with others, that the idea of a world is constructed. So, I'm agreeing with Davidson, Wittgenstein and Kant that there is no substantive distinction between world and schema.
Quoting Isaac
Sure, but this is purely arbitrary confabulation as opposed to what we say about tables, kettles and cups, which is a conventional store of practical wisdom derived from actual invention and use.
Quoting creativesoul
I would put that differently: actuality and non-linguistic meaning are both prior to language. For me truth is linguistic correspondence with our ideas of the actual (ideas which are themselves not necessarily or wholly linguistic).
Here we are entering territory that is very tricky to speak about; in fact I would say impossible to speak about unambiguously, but we can and do get a sense of it. We understand it even if we cannot definitively enframe it. Discourse is by no means the "be all and end all".
Quoting creativesoul
There is, however, a clear distinction between the sense in which a belief might be thought to be existentially dependent on language because the believer is a language user, and the sense in which the believing or expectations of a non-language user might be thought to be existentially dependent on language because the object the belief is about would not exist had language not existed.
1. Boiling the kettle is
Is (1) a grammatically incorrect fact or a grammatically incorrect sentence?
2. "The kettle is boiling"
3. "'The kettle is boiling'"
4. ...
One of these things is not like the others...
1. The kettle is boiling
2. La bouilloire est en ébullition
(1) is an English sentence and (2) is a French sentence.
So, what do they say?
(1) says "The kettle is boiling" and (2) says "La bouilloire est en ébullition".
No, (1) is "The kettle is boiling" and (2) is "La bouilloire est en ébullition".
What do they say?
I'll answer for you. They both say that the kettle is boiling.
But that's (1), not (0)...
1. The kettle is boiling
(1) is an English sentence. You appear to have accepted this above. But the fact that the kettle is boiling isn't an English sentence. Therefore, (1) isn't the fact that the kettle is boiling. (1) refers to the fact that the kettle is boiling. (1) is about the fact that the kettle is boiling. (1) mentions the fact that the kettle is boiling. etc.
When and where there has never been language there could have never been stoves.
That sums up the difference between our views it seems. The object that "stove" refers to is existentially dependent upon language on my view, but not yours.
5. ......
4. "'"The kettle is boiling"'"
3. '"The kettle is boiling"'
2. "The kettle is boiling"
...and in each step the bit in bold just is the next item in the list; it's what each sentence points to. So what do we bold in:
1. The kettle is boiling
What does it point to?
And here some conclude that there must be a non-linguistic, unquoted, thing-in-itself to which (1) is pointing.
Or it points to a fact, which is a thing in the world, and when asked what that thing is, they say it is a boiling kettle - which is (1)
But (1) is pointing to the boiling kettle, if anything. If it points to anything, it points to itself. Here the sequence ends. Here you show your understanding not by pointing but by making tea.
Edit: does exactly this. I'd written this post before I read his.
Michael, what fact does (1) state? It states that the kettle is boiling - which is (1).
Quoting Janus
That's the bit directly above that seems to be untenable in the same way that Kant's Noumena is.
(1) refers to the fact that the kettle is boiling.
The kettle is boiling. (1) refers to that.
(1) is about the fact that the kettle is boiling.
The kettle is boiling. (1) is about that fact.
(1) mentions the fact that the kettle is boiling.
The kettle is boiling. (1) mentions that fact.
In each, (1) is that.
Somewhat circular, no? Is that OK? SO how can it be that: "(1) isn't the fact that the kettle is boiling".
The part following "that" is a proposition.
Quoting Janus
Quoting Janus
You can't seem to make up your mind.
Quoting myself.
One issue here is what a "linguistic fact" is, so that we can understand what a "nonlinguistic fact" is.
It seems to me that it doesn't make sense to say that (1) is a linguistic fact. If someone thingks it does, then it is up tot hem to provide some account.
I had no point other than that the part the follows "that" is a proposition.
You don't know what a proposition is?
So what does the proposition say? Why, it says that the kettle is boiling...
But that bit in bold is a proposition...
Because (1) is a sentence and the fact that the kettle is boiling isn't a sentence. Therefore, (1) isn't the fact that the kettle is boiling.
You seem to be unable to separate use from mention. Here's another example that should make it clearer:
1. The kettle is boiling
2. (1) is true
The correct translation of (2) is "the kettle is boiling" is true. The incorrect translation of (2) is the kettle is boiling is true.
On the contrary, that is exactly what I am pointing to.
Quoting Michael
Yes, that is what I have been at pains to point out.
And yet you are conflating them when you say that (1) is the fact that the kettle is boiling. It isn't. (1) is a sentence.
So, what is the fact to which your sentence "The kettle is boiling" points? In your own words. Take your time.
The fact that the kettle is boiling.
I don't have anything like Kant's noumena in mind, so it seems that you are not understanding what I;m saying. The "pre-linguistic actuality" I have in mind is our basic experience of images, smells, sensations and impressions as well as recognition of repetition and pattern. I'm saying we can gain no conceptual purchase on that basic experience because to do so would change it into something else; something schematic and conceptual. Nevertheless it is the primordial stuff out of which we have woven our ideas of a world of entities and relations and the totality of facts about them
Quoting Tate
I'd say it's more that you can't seem to get the distinction.
You start out by saying that the sentence is about the boiling kettle, but then end up saying that the sentence is the boiling kettle.
Pointing to a kettle doesnt make one a kettle.
Quoting Michael
Ah, that fact. The kettle is boiling.
But you said that was a sentence...
This bit:
Quoting Banno
Quoting Michael
Is it both a sentence and a fact?
Nuh.
Oh? Let me quote it again for you:
Quoting Banno
This says that Item 1 (a sentence) is the kettle boiling.
Sentences are not kettles.
Correct. It's content. That's just how English works.
Al said that he was tired.
We don't know exactly what words he uttered, but we know what he said, that is, we know the content: that he was tired.
If you tried making sense, maybe I'd understand you a little better.
What I said is in line with the well-worn use/ mention distinction which you apparently don't understand.
I'm quite familiar with use/mention. Your account of the t-sentence is garbled.
:up:
Quoting Banno
So we go down and down, diligently following all the little arrows pointing to our supposed destination, to arrive at the final arrow ... that points at itself.
No wonder folk feel short-changed by this kind of shenanigans.
Semiotics fixes that for you. It formalises the necessary connection between model and world by saying one eventually arrives at a mechanical switch. You have a bit that can be physically flipped. You have some informational state that also does some useful real world work.
Logic can be treated as some kind of Platonic abstraction. But that is why it encounters its Godelian limits. Pointers that don't point at anything but themselves.
Logic makes better sense when it is seen as an exercise in semiotics an organism's efforts to gain regulatory control over its entropic environment.
Truth is pragmatic. It is all about a bunch of switches being flipped in a manner that itself sustains the whole enterprise that is about intelligent habits or routines of switch flipping.
So logic is the construction of a selfhood that can live in its world. It is not about mathematical abstraction, except in the service of entropy regulation. And so it is pointers all the way down to the pointer that must be physically flipped in a way that then recursively sustains the entire edifice of pointing.
See kettle. Want boil. Flip switch. Make tea. Realise this is useful. Repeat ad infinitum until the pragmatic connection between the model and the world between the rate independent information and rate dependent dynamics, as Pattee puts its breaks in some way.
But there really are the two different worlds on either side of the same "ultimate pointer" the mechanical switch that mediates semiotically between the information and the dynamics.
So the kettle is either on or off. Boiling or not boiling. Human intelligence has contrived a world where life has the purest semiotic logic. We can regulate the flow of entropy at the press of a button. The pointer at the end of the line is the pointer that points the material world in the way that best fits our desires.
And in enforcing that system of mechanism on the world, we in fact create a world that is now inanimate over-ruled in terms of having is own desires along with the inner self that is now defined in terms of all the power it has accumulated in its button-pressing fingertips.
No wonder the situation seems a little Cartesian, setting up the eternal duel between baffled idealist and naive realist.
But semiotics is the theory of truth that properly connects the self and its world by understanding there has to be the "epistemic cut" in the form of the canonical switch the "sign" or "pointer" that is the bridge because it is equally much part of the ideal realm as the material realm. It stands with its feet in both camps in being the intentional opening and shutting of the unintentioned entropic flows which pass through it.
This is all a lot easier to understand when dealing with biosemiosis the action down at the level of enzymes and other molecular machinery.
But even at the level of linguistic and logical semiosis, it is easy to see that utterances are meant to regulate habits of action. Words and numbers are used by the human social organism as a system of switches to keep folk collective pointed in an entropically self-sustaining state of organisation.
The laws of thought only ever arose in the search to view nature as "switchable". And we by consequence became creatures who were all about the act of hitting those damn switches.
A system of logical switches became all that we could see. But does it actually make sense that following the hierarchy of pointing down to its roots and you should expect the final pointer to point to itself?
Nope. The job of the pointer is to point at its intended real effect. And at the level of some actual switch, it gets to produce that effect as a direction physically imposed on an entropic flow.
That the kettle is boiling is a statement about the world being neutered of its intentionality and it having been pointed physically in the direction we desired.
This would be why Kant talked about the thing-in-itself as if nature might have its own intentions in play. Idealism then says these desires must be properly organismic. Realists reply instead that facts are facts entirely inanimate.
Pragmatism and semiotics then slips in between these two eternally raging camps to point out that nature's "desires" are fairly minimal and not organismic. But start sticking in the right regulatory machinery the semiosis of codes or informational switches and you do get the new thing of the organism. You get dissipative structure that has innate intelligence and self-organisation.
The "price" is that its truths are pragmatic. They are neither subjective, nor objective. Instead this distinction between a self and its world is what emerges from the useful action of seeking to make the world as one would wish it to be. Truth is an effective setting of the switches. The construction of an Umwelt, or a view of the world as it is with ourselves fully embedded in its reality.
So, tell us what your understanding is and just how you think my account is garbled, just what errors you think I have made in that account. If you can't do that your unargued comments are pointless.
You made the mistake of asserting that the world can somehow be false. By definition, it can't.
It went down hill from there.
No I never asserted that the world can be false. Perhaps you could quote where I've said that. The RHS expresses a state of affairs, which may or may not obtain; if it fails to obtain the the LHS is false.
I'll comment further on this:
Quoting Tate
I'll try one more time, since I can see the possibility of perceived ambiguity lurking in the quoted statements above. The RHS is a linguistic statement describing some state of affairs, could be real or imagined. It is a linguistic usage. The LHS is a quotation (mention) of that linguistic statement, which refers to the statement itself, rather than the state of affairs the statement refers to. This stuff is not easy to talk about to be sure, but I think we all know every well what "X is y" is true iff X is y, since it just shows the logic of correspondence which is common in everyday use. We understand ourselves to be able to talk about a shared world and say things both true and false about it.
Quoting Janus
This, my friend, is garbled. I think we're done here.
Quoting Tate
The second statement quoted there explains the first. So, why bring it up again? In ancient times the collective representation of the world said the Earth was flat; this turned out to be inconsistent with subsequent experience.
Leaving aside that I may have expressed myself poorly or ambiguously, what is it exactly you want to disagree with? On the other hand if you're done you're done, and I don't care; but in that case you have shown yourself to be uncharitable and unwilling to address what I am actually trying to say.
See the post below, which is saying the same as I have been, probably more clearly than I have been,
Per the RHS sentence, we can either use it (to express something about the world) or mention it (in order to express something about the sentence itself). The following passage explains Tarski's view on this (bold mine).
Quoting Truth, The Liar, and Tarski's Semantics - Gila Sher (from Blackwell's A Companion to Philosophical Logic)
Hey Sam, sorry about the delay. Doctor visit.
I think we agree much more than the above seems to suggest. Could you re-read that post and tell me at what point exactly you begin to disagree?
Makes sense to me thus far...
The tree is outside of language, perception, and belief is it not?
A kettle? Not so much.
The tree we are talking about is outside of language?
I don't understand that.
Things such as the tree being, say, 11m tall, will be true regardless of their being stated.
I'm not defending that use of "linguistic fact" or "non-linguistic" fact.
All kettles were, are, and will forever remain to be, existentially dependent upon language. If they were planned originals, then all meaningful marks involving kettles emerged in the planning and fabrication of the first kettles, as well as accounting practices of kettles thereafter. If they were accidental originals having resulted from ingenious on the spot novelty of use, then all meaningful marks involving kettles emerged after the original kettle.
Statements involving kettles. Situations involving kettles. Circumstances involving kettles. Belief involving kettles. Knowledge involving kettles. Everything involving kettles came immediately prior to, during, and/or after the first kettle emerged into the world.
All facts involving kettles are existentially dependent upon language.
We may be talking about different trees. The one in my front yard is most certainly outside of language.
The term "tree" consists of meaningful marks. The term "tree" is not outside of language. What I'm picking out of the world to the exclusion of all else by using that term most certainly is.
Some facts involving trees are existentially dependent upon language. All statements about trees are.
Only after we first stipulated what counted as eleven meters. Not before. The fact that the tree is eleven meters tall is existentially dependent upon language. The fact that the mouse is behind the tree is not.
Quoting Janus
In the bottom quote above you are doing what you said we could not do in the top quote. In addition, we've also arrived at incoherency/self-contradiction by virtue of equivocating the notion of "pre-linguistic actuality". The top quote sets it out one way. The bottom another.
It is very hard to talk about the subject matter at hand when we do not avoid such results and/or situations. I think we can nix the notion of "pre-linguistic actuality" altogether and by doing so, increase clarity while losing nothing. While "pre-linguistic" seems potentially useful, "actuality" does not.
I think we agree that a cat's belief that a mouse is under the sofa includes a mouse, the sofa, and a spatiotemporal relationship between the two from the cat's vantage point... right?
One consideration worth mentioning...
An overlap happens between language less creatures' belief and belief of language users. The overlap could be rendered as a Venn diagram with the commonalities being directly perceptible things. Trees, sofas, stoves, fridges, mice, and spatiotemporal relationships, for instance, are directly perceptible things within the aforementioned overlap. This overlap could be talked about in terms of the world shared between cats, mice, and humans.
No, I'm not; I'm just saying what we all know; that we know, in the most basic sense, pre-linguistic sensory experience, which our language cannot capture without losing its living quality and distorting it into a world of fixed entities and facts; which, in other words our language cannot adequately capture even though it can express linguistic truths and falsities which pertain to that collective representational schema we call the world.
To say otherwise would be to claim that animals do not experience anything at all.
1. Joe Biden
(1) isn't the President. (1) is a name. Joe Biden is the President.
Again, this is the use-mention distinction.
Remember this?
So:
1. The kettle is boiling
2. (1) is the fact that the kettle is boiling
The correct translation of (2) is "the kettle is boiling" is the fact that the kettle is boiling. This is false. Just as "Joe Biden" is the President is false.
That the kettle is boiling is the fact that the kettle is boiling.
I don't know if Blackwell got this right. In Truth and Proof (1969) Tarski said this:
So he seems quite opposed to the redundancy view.
But you said that was a sentence...
What is so hard to understand about this?
1. Joe Biden
(1) is a name and Joe Biden is a man.
Use-mention. It's really simple.
Sure. Quite agree.
1. The kettle is boiling
(1) is a sentence and that the kettle is boiling is a fact.
1'. "The kettle is boiling"
(1') is a sentence.
1. The kettle is boiling
2. "The kettle is boiling"
(1) is a sentence, (2) is a quote.
1. Joe Biden
2. The kettle is boiling
(1) is a name and (2) is a sentence. (1) isn't Joe Biden and (2) isn't the fact that the kettle is boiling.
This thread keeps circling back because Banno's dishonesty drags it down. And so it never gets anywhere. We can never progress in a discussion about truth when dishonesty interferes.
You seem to be suggesting that you can't create a bowl without a language. I'm sure that pre-linguistic man created bowls of some sort, or maybe you're referring to a particular kind of bowl, say plastic bowls. Even if you're right, it seems like a stretch to the conclude that because a thing (maybe stove is more appropriate), is created by language users, that the cat's belief is dependent upon language. When I use the phrase "dependent upon language," I'm referring to the use of concepts as part of a statement of belief. So, the cat is not dependent upon language in this sense. You're adding another sense of "dependent upon language" that doesn't involve the direct use of concepts, which seems to be an indirect dependence. Am I understanding your point, or not? Mostly I'm talking about concepts, in particular the concept truth. The difference maybe in our focus.
Makes sense, cheers. Question though. The source uses the word "correspondence" in the context of mapping expressions of language and concerned objects, is that meant as fleshing out a correspondence theory, or is it meant in an informal sense of "an explanatory relation of equivalence"
I'm not sure about that. There is the fact that snow is white and there is the proposition that snow is white. Are these the same thing? I'm inclined to say that the proposition is the truth-bearer and the fact the truth-maker.
You just need to stipulate what you want the terms to mean. There's too much controversy surrounding it to assume your audience will know what you mean.
"What might a fact be? Three popular views about the nature of facts can be distinguished:
"A fact is just a true truth-bearer,
A fact is just an obtaining state of affairs,
A fact is just a sui generis type of entity in which objects exemplify properties or stand in relations.
In order to understand these claims and the relations between them it is necessary to appeal to some accounts of truth, truth-bearers, states of affairs, obtaining, objects, properties, relations and exemplification. Propositions are a popular candidate for the role of what is true or false. One view of propositions has it that these are composed exclusively of concepts, individual concepts (for example, the concept associated with the proper name Sam), general concepts (the concept expressed by the predicates is sad and est triste) and formal concepts (for example, the concept expressed by or). Concepts so understood are things we can understand. Properties and relations, we may then say, are not concepts, for they are not the sort of thing we understand. Properties are exemplified by objects and objects fall under concepts. Similarly, objects stand in relations but fall under relational concepts.". -SEP article on facts
The article goes into the meaning of "obtains" which is also controversial.
Objects can have names. The name of an object is a linguistic object, which can be used as a representative, a stand-in, for the object (which may or may not be itself linguistic) in linguistic contexts. If you build a small model of your neighborhood, the model of the house in which you live is not a name for your house, though it functions in this context similarly to how a name functions in a linguistic context.
To say something of the state or circumstances of an object, we need more than just names of objects in our language, just as to show the color of your house, you paint the model the same color, to show its doors and windows, you make small versions of those in the, ahem, corresponding places on the model, and to show where your house is in relation to streets, trees, and other houses, you place models of those in the appropriate places.
How we do that in language is controversial. We could say -- in some sense, following Plato -- that there are also objects that are properties of objects, and these sorts of objects can also have names, and so we can conjoin the name of an object and the name of a property, perhaps in a special way, to show that the object has that property, to say that it does. You paint the model of your house blue to show that your house is blue; you say "My house is blue" to show, in language, that it is blue, to model in language its state of possessing the property of being blue.
There are objections to treating properties as themselves objects, objections very important to some philosophers. Does it make any difference? You could still model your house in language by saying things like "My house is blue" even without considering "blue" a name of anything. But what justifies the "is blue" part of the sentence? The presence of "my house" is justified by being a name for my house. If "blue" is not a name for anything, what justifies including it in a sentence which is part of a linguistic model of your house? If your house possesses a certain property, and a name for that property is "blue", we are justified; but if not?
At this point, for some philosophers, suspicion begins to fall on the dominant role of naming here: what we are about here is modeling things in language, and naming is a part of that, but only a part; it's not "in charge", and perhaps shouldn't even be treated as the paradigmatic case of linguistic modeling. The first question, they say, should be whether "My house is blue" is part of a linguistic model of my house, not whether "blue" is a name of anything, not even whether "my house" is a name of anything.
But what would make "My house is blue" part of a model of my house? How can we decide that? Is "My house is green" also part of such a model? Why not? What about "Joe's house is blue"? Is that also part of a model of my house? What about "Joe's car is green"?
[ Off to work. ]
For whole sentences, yes, a bit.
Quoting Michael
Yes, a bit, as soon as we notice that parts of the sentence taken separately are about or describe the cat on the mat.
"the cat" is about or describes the cat.
"the mat" is about or describes the mat.
"is on" is about or describes the notorious pair of objects.
Does it, or perhaps the whole sentence, be about or describe a relation? That could be mysterious and controversial. My objection to it, and to any supposed truth-making correlate of a whole sentence, even e.g. of (non-relational) "snow is white", is that it misunderstands how declarative sentences work, and further obscures the matter.
Declarative sentences work by pointing a component word or word-string at one or more objects. (Picture 2.) Thinking that the whole device points at a fact or state of affairs obscures the matter by suggesting that the fact has a similar structure to a sentence, or even a similar function. Perhaps we think the sentence is pointing at a pointing. Who knows what half-baked notions fly around, infecting believers and skeptics of correspondence alike.
There are two natural options here.
One is a matter of agreement, among the users of the linguistic model, to say "Pat's house is blue" is part of our shared model of Pat's house, or to say it isn't. But we've slipped in new problems and possibly new assumptions: what is "Pat's house is blue"? Is it an object? Does it have, or lack, the property of being part of our model of Pat's house? We can attempt to go around these questions by saying that the users of the model simply agree to say, or not say, the sentence "Pat's house is blue," without talking about the model at all. By saying or not saying a given sentence, users of a model show that the sentence is, or is not, part of their linguistic model, without actually saying that. The latter is still implied, though, and this fact makes certain sorts of sentences ridiculous or puzzling.
The other option is to focus on the model, rather than our use of the model, to devise a systematic way of relating sentences like "Pat's house is blue" and "Joe's car is green." We want to have the kind of model that, by including a sentence like "Pat's house is blue," excludes sentences like "Pat's house is green," "Pat's house is chartreuse," and so on. We also haven't given up entirely on properties, but we want to put aside the question of whether they are objects with names. We still want to say that "Pat's house is blue" means that Pat's house has the property of being blue, and that "Joe's house is blue" means it has that same property, in some sense or other.
There is some motivation for using both approaches. We would like the users of a model, who have agreed to say "Pat's house is blue," also to agree not to say "Pat's house is vermilion," but agreement by itself provides no obvious guarantee that they will do so. On the other hand, the only account we have so far of whether "Pat's house is blue" is part of the model, is precisely the users of the model agreeing to say it. The model can allow only one of "Pat's house is blue" and "Pat's house is cornflower," without telling you which one.
Which raises new questions.
(1) Are we really either entitled or required to say there is a model here at all, or are we really only talking about what people agree to say and not say?
If you argue first that being a user of a model just is saying certain things not others, and nothing else, you can quickly reach the conclusion that the model itself is unnecessary.
(2) So what does being a user of the model amount to? If I say "Pat's house is green," and you say, "Pat's house is aqua," can we still be considered users of the same model? Do we have different models, or do we disagree about which sentence is part of the model?
The no-models account seems to have nothing to say here at all: we just say different things; if there are reasons for that, they will come from elsewhere (perhaps even a causal account).
Why is this at all un-obvious?
I suppose, because why would we need a sentence to point "white" at snow and not need another sentence to point "snow" at snow?
And, because perhaps we don't need a sentence to point "white" at snow. "White" already applies to what it applies to, and that happens to include snow. Otherwise the sentence wouldn't be true.
But we need a sentence to point out, highlight, the pointing or application of "white" to snow in particular, out of all the other things it applies to.
I thought something like a simple model of language would be more useful than going round and round about what existing idioms mean. It was intended to be uncontroversial, which turns out to be as much as is uncontroversial of something you might call a kind of functionalism. I'm letting the word "model" do a lot of the work, which some people may not like. I haven't, for instance, tied linguistic behavior to anything more, occasions of utterance, what utterance might imply, anything like that.
Any strenuous objections so far?
That first sentence is very long, but the more I read it over, the more it looks like a partially formed incomplete thought. Be that as it may, I've thought long and hard about what you've been saying and I think, but I'm not at all certain of it, that you seem to be claiming - roughly mind you - that language doesn't do any justice(so to speak) to language less creatures experiences. You seem to also want to say that it cannot, despite our being able to use it to make true claims about our shared world, which you call "that collective representational schema".
The last sentence clearly suggests that we only have two choices when it comes to talking about the thought, belief, and/or meaningful experience of language less creatures. We can either hold the view that you hold or claim that language less creatures do not have any experience at all.
That's not true.
The approach one takes towards setting out the meaningful experience of language less creatures is pivotal to one's understanding, assuming one maintains coherency by avoiding self-contradiction and/or equivocation. Different approaches often lead to different consequences. Our respective approaches are remarkably different. Being a charitable reader, the one you've employed/adopted leads you to believe that language cannot capture the meaningful experience of language less creatures.
Whereas my approach leads me to first question what it takes to 'capture' the meaningful experience of language less creatures. What are we expecting to be able to do with language? Language cannot reproduce meaningful experience. We're just offering reports and/or accounts of meaningful experience. We're not attempting to accurately reproduce each and every aspect of meaningful experience in our report/account of it.
Perhaps you would find it helpful to adjust your expectations regarding what we can do with language.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I appreciate that the attempt to begin an analysis of something like truth with words and sentences taken as grounding categorical objects can be quite useful in building and improving on computational machines , but it seems to me to be utterly sterile and un-insightful in grappling with why and how humans actually use language. There are no words or sentences outside o f their actual context use, and in their use a word does not point at an object, it creates the object in that it produces a new sense of meaning.
If one doesn't ground the meaning of words and sentences in purpose-driven contextual senses arising out of actual, always unique situations of uses , and instead tries to lift out features of words and sentences
that can act as self-identically persisting meanings whose stable relations we can study via determinations of truth, we have perhaps contributed to our ability to build better machines. But we have not understood why truth is an unstable notion derived from more fundamental concepts liken intelligibility and relevance. It is the latter which are fundamental to actual language use. Every use of a word or sentence opens up a new way in which that utterance is intelligible and relevant.
Most definitions of truth conceal this by treating these features as if they can be cut away from what we are doing when we understand or misunderstand each other.
Seems like a good angle of approach to me. I think it's a good way into the role truth - or like concepts such as accuracy and felicity - might play in explaining how language touches the world.
It's all about the content of the belief Sam. I think you would agree that believing a mouse is under the stove depends upon the prior existence of a mouse, a stove, and the spatiotemporal relationship between the two from the vantage point of the believing creature(regardless of whether or not the creature has language). There may be other elements as well, but for simplicity's sake alone, we can just focus upon those main elements of this particular belief. The belief is existentially dependent upon all of those elements. All stoves are existentially dependent upon language. All belief involving stoves must be as well.
The cat is not dependent upon language. We certainly agree there. I completely agree that cats do not use linguistic concepts. However, they can and do directly perceive some things that emerged into the world by virtue of our use of linguistic concepts; stoves and sofas are precisely such things. All belief about such things is existentially dependent upon those things. Those things are existentially dependent upon language. All belief about those things is existentially dependent upon language.
I do not think that I'm adding another sense of "dependent upon language" - as in a completely different sense - so much as expanding the sense you've put to use here in such a way that it includes spatiotemporal considerations pertaining to the direct dependence upon language use that some things require for their initial emergence. I mentioned earlier to someone here how I thought that logic's lack of spatiotemporal consideration was a fundamental flaw. The approach I use includes keeping spatiotemporal considerations in mind. I see no other way to arrive at a scientifically and philosophically respectable position regarding how belief emerges and subsequently evolves given time and mutation. This ties into truth and meaning both, because it is via thought and belief formation that both truth and meaning first emerge onto the world stage(that's a topic in it's own right).
That being said, you're right to take note of the difference, because to the best of my knowledge, it is unique.
This ought help you to understand my use of "existential dependency".
Probably. The principal assumption here (since we're headed for truth) is that language can be used as a medium for making models of the world; if model making is interesting, that would make language interesting.
Quoting Joshs
That's literally false, for obvious reasons.
Quoting Joshs
Not sure how producing a sense creates an object, but whatever that means it is far more controversial than I was going for.
If you think there is no sense whatsoever in which language can be used as a medium for modeling the world, I won't be saying much that makes sense to you.
Quoting Moliere
What me? I just assumed someone else would pick it up from here...
Quoting fdrake
Yeah that's all I'm going for. Language is other things too, but I'm waiting to see if anything else makes a difference to this discussion.
Back in a little while.
How do we demonstrate the existence of these alleged words and sentences that nobody is actually using? By pointing to a dictionary or other book? What you have in mind is not some actual realm with any coherent reality apart from immediate context, but how we make use of memory and history in actual situations of sense-making.
James Conant writes:
the meaning of an expression (if by this we mean the meaning that the expression has when employed in a context of significant use) is not something which an expression possesses already on its own and which is subsequently imported into a context of use:
You say to me: You understand this expression, dont you? Well then I am using it in the sense you are familiar with. As if the sense were an atmosphere accompanying the word, which is carried into every kind of application.(PI)
What we are tempted to call the meaning of the sentence is not a property the sentence already has in abstraction from any possibility of use and which it then carries with it like an atmosphere accompanying it into each specific occasion of use. It is, as Wittgenstein
keeps saying, in the circumstances in which it is actually used that the sentence has sense. This is why Wittgenstein says in On Certainty, §348: the words I am here have a meaning only in certain contexts that is, it is a mistake to think that the words themselves possess a meaning apart from their capacity to have a meaning when called upon in various contexts of use.
The philosopher takes there to be something which is the thought which the sentence itself expresses. The only questions considerations of use will raise for such a philosopher (in an account of what we mean by our words) will be questions concerning the relationship
between the meaning of the sentence which we grasp independently of its contexts of use and the various contexts of use into which the sentence can be imported. Questions can be raised about why what is said is being said and what the point is of its being said
on a particular occasion of use. But the very possibility of asking such questions presupposes that it is already reasonably clear what thought is expressed, and thus what it would be for truth to have been spoken on this occasion of speaking.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
All of our experiences model a world in the sense
that in order to have even the most minimal
perception is to connect an event with a rich, integrated network of constuals that anticipates into , and thus, interprets experience. Everything we recognize as intelligible is a product of the way we organize what appears to us on the basis of its role in a web of relations.
In doing so, we dont simply force appear xes i to our pre-existing schemes but also adapt those schemes to the appearances. Using a word is the application of a scheme In its use , the sense of meaning of the word changes in accord with the novelty of the context. Prior rules and conventions of word meaning will not help us here since they also alter themselves in the context of actual word use.
Scientific models function the same way.They are not backward looking templates designed to
simply represent by forcing novelty into a pre-existing framework. Our models are projective, anticipatory. Models change our interactions with our world and thus are thus reciprocally changed by the world they modify.
I think disagreement is a natural way into the question of truth; maybe neither of us is right but at least one of us is wrong. (Those colors don't contrast so clearly as I wanted, sorry.)
Is that enough, to get at what being wrong is, and being right is not that? We're accustomed to doing this the other way because of the asymmetry: there's one way to be right but an infinite number of ways to be wrong.
This is an odd case, because it's clearly true (if I had picked better colors) that we can't both be right, even before we give any more substance to what being right is. Without disagreement, you're forced to give an account of being right directly, I think.
Do we need an account of how disagreement is possible? I'd like to assume, to begin with, that we don't, and that even a very minimal sort of disagreement, like one of us misspeaking, will be good enough. We'll find out.
So I'm going to proceed from a scenario like this, to start with, and nothing else, however this situation arose. The question stays, what is the nature of such a disagreement? About what do these two people disagree?
I get that you would prefer another approach. Maybe I would too -- I'm undecided.
But this thread has overwhelmingly been about redundancy and T-sentences. All I've done is provide a sort of test-bed that I hope will clarify that conversation. I have already indirectly described both, and I believe most readers here recognize that.
I get that you think this entire approach, and most of this thread is wrong-headed. I hoped one of the virtues of my presentation would be that it is explicit enough, without becoming pedantic, that disagreement with the model could be tied to something I said explicitly. Not just, "here you shouldn't do that but this other thing," but "if you do that, here's the problem you won't be able to solve."
Can you point to something like that? These posts have a very specific purpose, and it's not to provide evidence of whether I think something you approve of.
Paraphrasing: "You think of the model of the house as the same kind of thing as the house, though also different from the house, here the model, there the house. the money and the cow you can buy with it."
Language, of course, is far more complex and varied than this, Stick with the model and we end up with the simplistic notion of language as no more than reference espoused by @Harry Hindu.
When I (or anyone here) writes critically, the result is of course that folk get their backs up and double down. So I'm wondering if instead you might address the limits of the notion of language as a model.
One of the issues is the object of agreement. Propositions work for that role, but some reject the existence of such things.
I think their only recourse is something like behaviorism. Agreements are nothing more than a certain kind of behavior.
Actually thinking now I shouldn't have thrown in the second question. We don't absolutely need it yet -- that is, we don't need to pose this as a question these two people might be expected to answer. This way of posing the question is ambiguous between our description of what's going on and what they might think is going on. The latter is interesting, but I think we can wait.
We have one person saying "Pat's house is white," and the other saying, "Pat's house is black." (Definitive colors.) What are we to make of that?
I said we know immediately that at least one of them is wrong. Why? Presumably because we have accepted the limitation on models that they be consistent, which here means that there can be no model they might rely on that includes both "Pat's house is white" and "Pat's house is black."
Is that reasonable? If it is, we may have no choice but to give an account of how (a) the model I use, (b) the sentences I utter, and (c) the occasions upon which I utter them, are related. There are multiple possible explanations for the utterance of a sentence not in the model.
The issue here is not, how do we flesh out our account of language, because this isn't intended to be a complete account. It's that the only definite path toward truth we have found so far is an account of being wrong (which we hope will be useful). So far we've only established that one of these guys is wrong, but we don't know what that really means. For instance, it needn't mean diverging from the previously accepted model; it could be the divergent sentence is a correction, and wrong is staying with the given model.
Ah, I see you have already done some critique. Excellent. Here you move towards my view; that there is no model.
But I'll let you continue, at least for a bit. Good stuff.
But roughly, I'd use something like Davidson's argument in On the very idea... to show that there cannot be multiple models; and hence that the notion of a model is superfluous. But that might be where you are going...
There's no model? Or just one model? Which is it?
Read "model" for "conceptual scheme".
We use models all the time. Physicists regularly compare models, so it doesn't seem to be superfluous.
Yes and no.
No, in the sense that I'm not trying to build a complete model of language use, just enough to clarify questions about truth.
Yes, in that, if there are problems with such a partial model of language, we should land clearly and unambiguously right on top of them.
I might hold off on interjections and objections as you write, and await the conclusion.
I'm not suggesting that we can say nothing at all about our pre-linguistic experience; after all it is our experience. I believe we can understand it very well, but that when we attempt to articulate it in a precise way we are left with static representations that don't do justice to the dynamic actuality of experience..In the poetic vein we can also talk about how we imagine different animals might experience.
It is the languages of art, music and literature, particularly poetry, and not discursive analysis, which best evoke the living experience, in my view.
Oh good lord no!
I mean, suit yourself, if you just want to see how it plays out.
But I wasn't planning on doing it all myself. I'm not dribbling out something I've already got all of. I just wanted to do some setup people might agree to so disagreements could be clearer and a way to resolve them might be possible. Was hoping others would be pitching in once I got that out of the way.
How do we(or you) avoid anthropomorphism?
I can be more specific.
Can you offer a no-models account of disagreement, while I'm working (you know, for money) and mulling over what to say next, and others are thinking about -- and maybe even posting! -- their own accounts of disagreement?
Since it is always we who imagine or posit this or that about what we think or imagine animals might experience, can we avoid anthropomorphism?
Suppose they have radically, incommensurably, different models of the same thing.
How could we tell? What basis could we have for saying they were both models of the neighbourhood, if they had nothing in common?
It seems, then, that the models must have something in common if they are to be considered models of the neighbourhood. We must be able to say that this house, in one model, is the same as that house, in the other. There must be some basis for our being able to translate between the models, if we are to say they model the neighbourhood.
And inversely, if we can translate from one model to the other, then the models are in a sense the same.
Suppose instead that there are some small differences between the models, along the lines of the colour of the various houses Srap describes. In order to recognise that the colour of this or that house differs between models, we must be able to recognise that they represent the same house. To do this we perhaps recognise the streets, and the other buildings thereabouts. Overall, if we are going to recognise a difference between the models, we must be able to see the overall similarity.
We must conclude that the models cannot be so different that we cannot see the same things in both. We will make the most of the models if we interpret them in ways that maximise their agreement.
I'll pause there for a bit of ruminating.
Quoting Banno
Quoting Tate
For Davidson there is just one model (conceptual scheme), which he calls empiricism, the data of sense, although he doesn't realize that this supposed common coordinate system is one among many possible conceptual schemes, thinking instead that it is the way the empirical world speaks to all of us, regardless of our language. Contrary to Davidson, there are many conceptual schemes-models , not because of a presumed split between language and empirical world as he claims all conceptual relativists believe , but because the inseparability of model and world means that there are as many empirical worlds as there are models.
But how do we know any of this? What's our vantage point? Why not be satisfied with phenomenology?
I've managed to fall into a place where I get money enough for tea and biscuits while doing whatever I want. What's curious, in such circumstances, is how this alters what one wants.
So a slight sidestep.
Consider neighbourhood relativism. Suppose we do not have access to the neighbourhood, but instead only to the models of the neighbourhood.
In such a case, the difference between colours for a particular house cannot be held up against some common standard - the house - in order to decide which is preferred. Any differences become differences of opinion.
The argument above for substantial, indeed overwhelming, agreement, still holds. If you say the fence between our properties is brick, and I say it is wood, our models agree on things such as property and fences. We might proceed by comparing such inconsistencies as whether the fence was made of the same material as your house, but again this process assumes overwhelming agreement*.
Indeed, the agreement must be such that we might talk as if we access the same model, with some small differences.
Now the assumption was, in this post, that we do not have access to the neighbourhood. And our conclusion is that the models to which we each have access must be overwhelmingly the same.
And the final step, back in line, is to point out that the shared model we each access just is the neighbourhood.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
That's it.
Again, this is a child's version of the argument in On the very idea..., and while I am confident that Srap will recognise the parallels, if others do not follow the argument here, they ought take their differences up with the actual article rather than this post.
Time for more ruminating.
Edit: I might also simply decide that you use the word "brick" in the way I use the word "wood", that they have the same use.
Quoting Tate
Im very satisfied with phenomenology( of the Husserlian sort). For Husserl the vantage point is always subjective.
...one of the main tasks of pure intentional psychology is to make understandable, by way of the progressive reduction of world-validity, the subjective and pure function through which the world as the "world for us all" is a world for all from mythe ego'svantage point, with whatever particular content it may have. ...(Crisis, p.256)
Banno would argue that a vantage point implies a common coordinate system, but common is not the same thing as identical.
That's right, there is no model. Even I might agree with you on this. But this is because each particular instance of use is unique to itself. Adhering to this principle leaves what is in the mind as very difficult to understand. However, the solution is not to deny that there is anything in the mind.
Quoting Banno
I thought you were rejecting this talk about models. What giives?
Quoting Banno
Big mistake here. I thought you were rejecting models. But you just couldn't, you had to allow the model back in. Now, since you booted it out of the mind, it must be in the neighbourhood. What kind of nonsense is this? A model is artificial, constructed, fabricated, what do you make of all those parts of the neighbourhood which are natural?
Cool. That ego's vantage point won't allow you to say that model and world are one, will it?
Not the way I read it.
It looks like you're going beyond phenomenology to system building.
So, the big question. Isn't this Platonism, plain and simple? The entire universe is just a a model, a collection of ideas.
Something like that. And Banno would agree that common is not the same as identical. We agree more than we differ.
What does it mean to agree? What is the object of agreement? A sentence?
I don't really have an account of disagreement. Just some remarks. Probably somewhat close to @Joshs here.
If people can disagree on whether something is true or false, they've already gone most of the way toward agreement. The majority of disagreements are not quibbles about the facts, they are quibbles about the lenses through which we view the world. The majority of those quibbles about the lenses through which we view the world are also not about whether their constituents are true, or more often true, the majority of the time they are instead about whether they are appropriate, relevant, fit for task, permissible, understandable, intelligible, aesthetically pleasing, shite, exemplary or worth noting at all.
Some of those differences are much more fundamental than the others; disagreeing on whether something is permissible is quite different from disagreeing on whether something is intelligible. The former is a case like truth, in which most things are already fixed, the latter is not. So there are at least two types.
As a rough guide, it might be worthwhile partitioning disagreements into quibbles of fact, quibbles of relevance and quibbles of intelligibility. A quibble of fact will be when two people disagree on the truth of a claim, the accuracy of an approach, or whether something is fit for purpose. The distinguishing feature of a quibble of fact is that all quibbling parties are highly attuned to the same context, have the same vantage point on that context, and disagree about which one of a series of options obtains within that vantage. Black or white or blue, right or wrong, accurate or inaccurate.
Two paradigmatic example of a quibble of fact may be when a couple is having an earnest dispute over whether they can afford to eat at a restaurant one evening. Another example would be whether it's right to eat meat. The defining feature of the quibble isn't whether it's to do with truth or falsity or norms, it's about the background of the disagreement being fixed and two people having contrary takes on the same matter; fact value + subjective objective distinctions be damned.
A quibble of relevance is when two parties disagree more fundamentally than a quibble of fact, as they bring different vantage points to an issue which is the root of the conflict. A quibble of relevance is a conflict of broader conceptual frameworks and patterns of association that link individuals' worldviews together. The conflict arises from people systematising the world sufficiently differently in a scenario that they no longer can come to a quibble of fact about related issues without substantial exploratory work and the willingness to foster mutual understanding. A sign of a quibble of relevance is when quibblers bring much different facts, with much different styles of linkage between them, yet each appears to be directed towards the same issue. This is a disagreement within the same context.
Two paradigmatic examples of a quibble of relevance may be when a couple are having what feels like an earnest dispute over whether they can afford eating at a restaurant one evening; in this case however, this is really a dispute arising from one quibbler's simultaneous inability to be arsed to go out that evening and dislike of disappointing their partner through such a request; it must then be articulated through an impersonal, objective standard. Another example of this would be whether culturing individual and communal conduct is an essential part of the rules of ethical decision making; you will see it as necessarily relevant if you're into virtue ethics, but contingently so if you're a hedonist.
People will often behave as if they are in a quibble of fact, whereas they are actually in a quibble of relevance. It can be difficult to tell as misfiring connections between ideas, which people treat as if they are shared, tend to resist probing as they form part of the vantage by which probing is done. This is a disagreement on which context people operate within.
The final and most fundamental type of disagreement is a quibble of intelligibility. This is a case where two people's views on a scenario diverge so much that it would be almost impossible for one to understand the other. At least without living differently, or having had a different set of experiences. A common source of quibbles of intelligibility is when quibblers have much different embodied standpoints or life experiences. For example, a doting single parent of 5 and a widower antinatalist in a discussion of love for their children. While work can be done to commensurate their experiences, little can be done to address the fundamental difference in generative+maintenance mechanisms for quibblers' perspectives once one has developed. It takes work to establish any momentary bridge between these quibblers in any scenario related to their quibbling. A philosophical example may be (hopefully it doesn't derail the thread) those who easily intuit their experiences as qualia and those who do not. This is less of an individual disagreement, and more a fundamental difference in quibblers which tends to make them assign different contexts to the same information.
These types of quibbles form a hierarchy of constraints. Quibbles of intelligibility > quibble of relevance > quibble of fact. Currently having one in the list prevents the quibblers from having the quibbles higher up.
I believe any theory about recognising whether something is wrong from a disagreement could be done in one of two ways; you build up or you build down. Building up from fact to relevance to intelligibility, or going down from intelligibility to fact.
To my understanding, Davidson's procedure is bottom up; building the world iteratively through expressions linking to truth conditions through their meaning, and meaning (of sentences) being the agent of truth. The idea is to show that there are stable networks of facts, which allow productive disagreements and evaluation of relevance, that block the most severe quibbles of intelligibility from happening.
Building down is a more Heideggerian angle on it; quibbles of intelligibility happen, if they didn't there'd be no chance of having quibbles of relevance, quibbles of relevance happen, if they didn't there'd be no chance of having quibbles of fact, facts happen, so we can quibble about them. Intelligibility and perspective holding are also highlighted in this account.
A "model" in each case is a context of interpretation. Quibbles of fact have the same model shared between involved parties, quibbles of relevance have different models between involved parties, quibbles of intelligibility have different model generating mechanisms as well as different models between involved parties.[hide=*] (though quibbles of intelligibility are so confusing two people might "resolve" one through a quibble of fact but still not understand the other's viewpoint. I suspect this is quite common in politics, philosophy and moral values)[/hide]
We make the most of one another's posts by interpreting them in ways which maximise agreement...
Yes, and often the best way to maximise agreement is to gently focus on vital contrasts.
Like relevance and intelligibility being cognitive, conceptual, bodily and perceptual categories which impact interpretation of scenarios, whereas quibbles of fact tend to concern things which are easy to model as attitudes towards statements. Relevance impacts the assignment pattern of attitudes to statements of an individual or group, intelligibility impacts the assignment of an interpretive context itself to the scenario in which patterns of attitudes and fact like beliefs are formed.
I think @apokrisis is decently close to this as well - if you focus on what makes a context able to express stuff, you end up studying how lifeworlds/forms of life end up with stable patterns in them... Like norms of language itself. In some respect relevance and intelligibility are broader semiotic categories than those involved in the semantics of sentences.
Also, thanks for the "nice". : D
Im agreeing with you that the ego's vantage point won't allow one to say that model and world are one.
If the shared model we each access just is the neighbourhood, then how does this account for the disagreement over the fence being brick or wood?
Is there any way this disagreement can be settled according to the no models view, without (re)introducing a model/neighbourhood distinction?
Not my forte, unfortunately.
The man's a philostudpher.
Yes, that's it precisely!
Quoting Banno
We have experiential access to what gives rise to the models we call "the neighbourhood"; the neighbourhood itself is never an object of perception, but only ever concept or model. That experiential access allows us to check if details of any model accord with what is to be seen.
Oh. :up:
Quoting Luke
Are you asking how to solve disagreements, or whence disagreement?
If solve, then rationality and force both will work, or even
Quoting Banno
If you are asking how they arise, the sources of disagreement are many and various.
I fail to see how any disagreement is possible regarding the material of the fence if we all share the same model, which just is the neighbourhood. And, on that basis, how can any disagreement be resolved?
Doesnt this imply that we have different models, instead of sharing the same model which just is the neighbourhood?
Better still, doesnt this imply that there is something independent of our models by which it doesnt matter what it is called according to either model, it is the same thing?
Thanks. :up:
My point is all about bringing logic back into the real world by showing how it is in fact grounded in the brute reality of a pragmatic modelling relation.
The mystery of logic, truth, intentionality, etc, are that they are clearly in one sense free inventions of the human mind. They transcend the physical reality they then control. This is a puzzle that leads to idealism - including the idealising of logic as "just a free mathematical construction, which also seems to have a Platonic necessity about its axiomatic basis".
But semiotics makes it clear that this idealistic freedom is the result of the "epistemic cut" in which a code some vocabulary of symbols that can be ordered by syntatic rules is then able to "speak about reality" from outside that reality.
The word "possum" could mean anything. As physics a sound wave, a reverberation, emitted by a vocal tract it is just a meaningless noise. And a noise that is costless to produce. Or at least the metabolic cost is the same as what any other noise of a few syllables might cost us.
The physics of the world thus does not constrain the noises we make in any way. And that is why these noises can come to have their own idealistic world of meaning attached to them. We are free to do what the heck we like with these noises. We can create systems of rules grammars and syntax that formalise them into structures that bear meaning only for "us".
So idealism is made to be something that actually exists in the physical world because this world can't prevent costless noise patterns being assigned reality-independent meaning. Noise can be turned into information and there ain't a damn thing the world can do about that transcendent act of rebellion against its relentless entropy.
But then humans have to still live in the world and do enough to cover the actual small cost of speaking about the world in the free way that they do.
So the freedom of truth-making is in fact yoked to the profit that can be turned on being a speaking creature. It all has to reconnect to the physics. And of course, as human history shows, being speaking creatures living in shared communities of thought, in fact can repay an enormous negentropic dividend.
To the extent our model of the world is "true" pragmatically useful we gain power over the entropy flows of our environments and can bend them to our collective will.
The problem in the discussions here are that logic gets treated as something actually transcendent of this rooted, enactive, organismic reality of ours. But even logic and information in general is finding itself becoming properly reconnected in physics.
Turing invents universal computation? Computer science eventually matches that by showing reality has its fundamental computational limits. The holographic principle tells us any computation does have some Planck scale cost a cost which is small, but not actually zero. And so try to build a computer with enough complexity to tackle really intensive problems and it would shrivel up into a black hole under its own gravity.
Information theory puts computing back firmly in the world it thought it had transcended.
And the same ought to be happening for logic.
Which is where semiotics comes in. It defines the line between rate independent information and rate dependent dynamics in a way that is biological rather than merely computational.
Logic as maths led to computers as logic engines. Blind hardware enslaved by blind software, with the human element the intentionality and truth-making once more floating off above the heads of all the physical action in some idealist heaven.
Semiotic approaches to truth-making discovers logic to lie in the way that the connection between models and their realities is reliant on the device of the mechanical switch. This is the fundamental grain of action because it is where the effort of executing an intent becomes symmetric with halting that intent. And so that intent becomes a free choice.
You can flick the light on or off. You can push the nuclear doomsday button or leave it alone. The greatest asymmetry between a choice and its result can be imposed on nature by making the metabolic cost of choosing option A over option B as entropically symmetric as possible.
To me, putting this modelling relation front and centre of the philosophy of logic would clear up the old truth-maker chestnuts forever. We could move on to more interesting things.
Mechanistic logic has confused people's metaphysics for quite a long time now. Roll on organismic logic. Let's reconnect to the systems view of reality that has been chuntering along in the background ever since Anaximander. Let's finally understand what Peirce was on about as he laid its general foundation.
On your first post, the first part of an argument against people who disagree each having their own model:
Before we get to that, I want to fill out this:
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
What I had in mind was this: it is plausible that any individual has only imperfect access to the model of the world they've been working on, and they only imperfectly "translate" it into an utterance. In the case at hand, there are at least these possiblities:
In addition, if we presume the two speakers share a model, it's reasonable to expect they would actually only be familiar with non-identical proper subsets of the community-wide model. I may know that Pat's house is white, and that his front door is white, and assume that the back door is likewise white, while those that have seen it know it to be grey; I possess slightly less knowledge of Pat's house than some do, but I can readily extend my acquaintance with the shared model by being informed or seeing the back door for myself.
That should add at least one more possibility for those who have a single model disagreeing, that one of them knows and the other assumed or guessed or made a valid but unsound inference, etc., because he wasn't familiar with a part of their model that the other is. (Or maybe neither of them actually know and they're both bullshitting.)
On your account, what people say is presented as a perfect reflection of the model they are using, and that's tantamount to simply identifying the model with what they say.
On my account, differences in what we say are inconclusive evidence that we have different models. There may be other reasons (as above) why on this occasion we didn't end up saying the same thing. And this is so because, differences aside, what any one person says is an imperfect reflection of the model they use.
If that's so, it's hard right off to say whether an occasion of disagreement indicates two models or one in use. You've presented -- at least, along the way somewhere else -- the argument for there being one. That was also more or less @fdrake's reading of Davidson, in part. I'll have to think a while about what, in my test-bed here, multiple models would look like and whether we can tell the difference between that and a single one. --- Should probably say here more clearly: above I suggested there is community-constructed model that it is something like the union of all the models actually in use by individuals, each of whom is familiar with only a proper subset of that union; I'm inclined to consider that another access issue and say individuals familiar with different subsets of a single model share just one, but I'd be open to arguments that these should be considered different, if consistent, models. I'm not sure it much matters what you say here.
And then there's your main point, that the argument for no models runs through a single shared model just being unnecessary, that the only conceivable use for the model talk in the first place was if competing models were in the offing. If we all have the same one, we don't need that one and can just all have the same nothing.
I'm inclined to pause here and wonder whether the model, even if singular, is doing work that just the raw corpus of utterances can't. For instance, I can say that I deviated in speech from my model because of a priming effect, or misremembering, or misunderstanding the context. ("Oh Pat's house. Yeah, it's white.") What does the no-models account say? Most of the time I say one thing, but on this occasion I say something else, and --- and what? Why did I deviate? It seems to me the idea of a model gives you at least a start on dispositions to speak in certain ways, dispositions that are not absolute guarantees. But on the no-models view, I just say stuff, and what I "believe" is represented by whatever I said most recently or whatever I say most commonly, or who knows what.
And perhaps now that I've dropped the B-word, we should look a little again at what the word "model" was doing for me. It is frankly representational -- I don't know how else to take "model." If we do develop such models of the world, and happen to use language as a medium for doing so -- no doubt necause of its considerable efficiency and portability compared to other media -- then, while language is the medium of the model, I need not use it only for producing speech. It can be simply how I store a considerable portion of my knowledge, and my knowledge I can rely on in doing many more things than speaking. I can also use it to store hypotheses, possible but uncertain extensions of my knowledge, which I can act on to confirm or disconfirm, and so on.
If there is no model, but only my speech behavior, then to do any of these things in which I rely on my linguistic knowledge, I must, presumably, speak to myself about them. Now I talk to myself a lot, but I don't have to form the sentence "Cheyenne is the capital of Wyoming," much less speak it, even sotto voce, to remember that it is. Do we perhaps engage in silent and unconscious speech in order to retrieve the facts we know?
That begins to look a bit like a "language of thought," which, oddly, is where my use of language as model medium seems to be headed. It's natural to talk about at least some of our knowledge being stored linguistically only because so much of it is acquired linguistically or is intrinsically linguistic. "Cheyenne" and "Wyoming" are after all names, related in certain ways, which, in this case, are in part purely matters of convention and thus linguistic. My knowledge that Cheyenne is the capital of Wyoming has no option but to be a bit of linguistic knowledge.
But the issue that arises next is obvious: I have considerable knowledge of my native language which I rely on in order to speak it. If that knowledge is not stored linguistically, how can I possibly speak my native language? How could I ever "whisper" to myself, even unconsciously, that Cheyenne is the capital of Wyoming, if I cannot call on my knowledge of English to do that, because I cannot conceivably remind myself linguistically how to speak?
Some of those arguments may not be very good, I dunno. I'm not sure where we are, now, but at least there's now something in the neighborhood of an argument for my initial assumption, that we use language as a medium with which to build a model of the world, which was unargued for to start with.
I hope we're not quite there yet, but if we are at the point where none of the not-really-disagreeing explanations work, then we may be forced to say that one of our two speakers has said something false, although at the moment we don't know which one. There are worse solutions than, as both @Banno and Herodotus said, going and looking for yourself. As things are in my little test-bed, the model is in part a matter of convenience, and I'm still in a position to compare it directly to what it is a model of -- I can test at least some of it in the most direct way imaginable.
This is already covering a lot of ground, so I'll stop, but there ought to be more on what's happened here, whether I had an idiosyncratic and inaccurate model, and so on. But it looks like it's getting much harder here, so I wonder if we can take a step back and simplify things again.
Quickly, this is probably right, but for my purpose here it's facts that matter, if facts are going to be how we talk about truth. As I understand your hierarchy, differences at any of the three levels may present as a disagreement over facts or truth, but the disagreement must be resolved at the level at which it originates, so only disagreements that are simply about facts are resolvable at the level of facts.
That's also plausible, but at this point, I don't even know how best to characterize what a disagreement over facts is, much less resolve it, much less discern its origin. I want to try to stick to my little model a bit longer to force myself to say exactly what's going on if I can, rather than take anything for granted.
The sentences are equivalent in the sense that they are satisfied by the same object(s). Whereas redundancy is a philosophical view about usage.
Quoting Michael
Yes, Tarski endorsed the correspondence theory of truth. Sher notes this at the beginning of the chapter where she says:
Quoting Truth, The Liar, and Tarski's Semantics - Gila Sher (from Blackwell's A Companion to Philosophical Logic)
--
Quoting fdrake
Yes, it's meant as fleshing out a correspondence theory - see the above quote. But that wasn't Tarski's only goal. As Sher goes on to say:
Quoting Truth, The Liar, and Tarski's Semantics - Gila Sher (from Blackwell's A Companion to Philosophical Logic)
I believe there isn't much agreement amongst philosophers on that. Tarski himself says in The Semantic Conception of Truth:
So it seems to me at least that he doesn't endorse the correspondence theory but does endorse the Aristotelian theory, which he thinks of as different.
Snow is white iff snow appears white, or
Snow is white iff snow reflects all wavelengths of light, or
Snow is white iff snow has a mind-independent sui generis property of whiteness, etc.
We can then bring this back to truth-predication by understanding that if "p" is true iff p and if p iff q then "p" is true iff q.
"Snow is white" is true iff snow appears white, or
"Snow is white" is true iff snow reflects all wavelengths of light, or
"Snow is white" is true iff snow has a mind-independent sui generis property of whiteness, etc.
How isn't it just a more substantial account of p?
Because "p" is true iff p. Therefore a substantial account of p is a substantial account of "p" is true.
Deflation, or inflation?
Oh my God! "True" is being defined as "pragmatically useful" now. This gives free reign to dishonesty, sophistry, and deception, because when these intentions are the prevailing interest (Trumpism for example), they rule as the truth under this definition.
Quoting Michael
This description of the Aristotelian theory of truth does not delve deep enough to reveal the serious problem which Aristotle exposed.
"Truth" speaks of "states of affairs", as you say, "what is", and "what is not", being and not being. But reality has many examples of becoming, change. And what Aristotle demonstrated is that becoming is fundamentally incompatible with the descriptive principles of "what is", and "what is not". This results in the need to relinquish the law of excluded middle, allowing change, or "becoming" to occupy that place where this law is violated, the place of "neither is nor is not". The inclination to enforce the law of excluded middle, without exception, allows sophists to produce all sorts of absurd conclusions about what is real.
The demonstration provided by Aristotle goes something like this. If state of affairs A changes, and becomes state of affairs B, then we need to propose something intermediate between A and B which would refer to the change itself. If this were another state of affairs, we could describe it as C. And C would be the state which exists between A and B as the change from one to the other. But then we would need to propose states between A and C, and between C and B, to account for the change from state A to state C, and from state C to state B. Then we'd need to place other states between A and C, etc.. As you can see, this need to place another state between the two described states, to account for the change from one state to another, would proceed infinitely, and we would never actually be describing "the change" from one state to another, we'd only be describing a progression of states.
The conclusion is that change, or becoming, is fundamentally different from "states of affairs" and cannot be properly described in terms of "what is", and "what is not". This exposes the need for a dualism, and Aristotle's proposal of hylomorphism, in which "form" is the category for states of affairs, and "matter" is the category for becoming, or change.
Quoting Michael
Sure, but if we remove "true" from the equation, then we are off topic of the thread, which is a discussion of truth.
Refresh the page, Ive made an edit.
Right, but q could become an endless string of proposals for the necessary conditions of "truth", as we're already experiencing in this thread anyway.
Makes sense. I think that's a worthwhile thing to do Srap. I wanted to put that there largely to muddy the waters, so we don't lose track entirely of the shape of things while pulling on the thread. The "secret motivation" I have for that is I'm suspicious that a sentence+truth based account would break when it starts needing ideas about the other levels.
Well that's true of any "X is Y iff Z" so I don't understand that objection.
I just think saying something like "Snow is white" is true iff snow reflects all wavelengths of light is more meaningful than saying something like "Snow is white" is true iff snow is white and so might help us better understand the concept of truth.
Or maybe it will lead us to the redundancy view that truth-predication is vacuous, even if a grammatically useful tool (e.g. so that we can say such things as "what you say is true").
We were warned, not to extend logic so far it needs bringing back:
....Because, however, the mere form of a cognition, accurately as it may accord with logical laws, is insufficient to supply us with material (objective) truth, no one, by means of logic alone, can venture to predicate anything of or decide concerning objects, unless he has obtained, independently of logic, well-grounded information about them, in order afterwards to examine, according to logical laws, into the use and connection, in a cohering whole, of that information, or, what is still better, merely to test it by them.
Now it may be taken as a safe and useful warning, that general logic, (...) teaches us nothing whatever respecting the content of our cognitions, but merely the formal conditions of their accordance with the understanding, (conditions) which do not relate to and are quite indifferent in respect of objects; any attempt to employ it as an instrument in order to extend and enlarge the range of our knowledge must end in mere prating; any one being able to maintain or oppose, with some appearance of truth, any single assertion whatever.... (CPR A61,2/B85,6)
...
Quoting Banno
There's much at issue here, but this first. You've gone from what ought to be the case, to what is the case.
Your claim (correct me if I'm wrong) is that we cannot justifiably claim that the two models are of the same house without there being a completely commensurate 'house'. I don't object to that.
Then you say that because we can't claim this justifiably, there must actually be a shared, or commensurate 'house'.
But why must there? Why not the other option - that we, in fact, cannot justifiably claim both models are of the same house, but that we just do so anyway...justification go hang!
And the problem with that would be...?
Yes, that seems to be the case. They are based on fairly technical discussions of what constitutes correspondence, with a good review here (Truth, Correspondence, Models, and Tarski - Panu Raatikainen, 2007).
Quoting Michael
Tarski was certainly critical of modern correspondence formulations, but also said that "One speaks sometimes of the correspondence theory of truth as the theory based on the classical conception.":
Quoting Truth and Proof - Tarski, 1969
He also says, preceding that, "Nonetheless, it is my feeling that the new formulations,
when analyzed more closely, prove to be less clear and unequivocal than the one put forward by Aristotle."
I guess this is why nobody can agree on whether he was a correspondence theorist or not. Ironically he's less clear and unequivocal than we'd like.
The objective seems unclear here. What would a model of language be outside of discussion about what idioms (among other expressions) mean?
Earlier you said...
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
...You seem to take 'language' and 'what expressions mean' to be two different matters and yet I can't see what you could mean by the former other than the latter.
I wonder if this helps us address the redundancy view.
1. "'Snow is white' is true" means "snow is white"
2. "Snow is white" means "snow reflects all wavelengths of light"[sup]1[/sup]
3. Therefore, "'snow is white' is true" means "snow reflects all wavelengths of light"[sup]1[/sup]
If (2) is true but (3) is false then (1) is false, and the redundancy view refuted.
Or perhaps (2) is false, and that even if snow is white iff snow reflects all wavelengths of light, "snow is white" doesn't mean "snow reflects all wavelengths of light", in which case there is still the issue of explaining what "is white" means. Although perhaps that's a topic for another discussion.
[sup]1[/sup] Replace with whichever "snow is white" means "q" is correct
At the very beginning, I compared linguistic models to other sorts. If Pat's house is white, when you build a scale model of Pat's neighborhood, you paint Pat's house white ((that is, the model of Pat's house!)); when you build a linguistic model of Pat's neighborhood, you include in that model the sentence "Pat's house is white."
There, we're talking about decisions the model-builder makes. If you apply a particular color to your scale-model of Pat's house, what justifies your choice is that you know what color Pat's house is; it's the same with including "Pat's house is white" in your linguistic model. If you're not sure, when it comes time to paint or to pick your predicate, you can go and look, or ask someone you believe knows.
If your model, scale or linguistic, is faithful, someone who doesn't know can learn from it. You could show someone your scale model of Pat's neighborhood and point out Pat's house, and they might say, "Oh, I didn't know Pat's house was white." You can infer the state of Pat's house from a faithful model of it. If the model is very accurate, you can infer from it the exact shade of white that Pat's house is. There are probably some natural limits there; I might tell you it's not exactly the shade I used in my model, but it's close, that I couldn't exactly match the shade or didn't even try.
A static model like this is clearly a way of storing knowledge. If I need to know the layout of Pat's neighborhood for some reason, but have trouble remembering it all, I can make a model of it, encoding my knowledge to make it more accessible. I could walk around the neighborhood with pencil and paper and make myself a map, Pat's house there, left of him is so-and-so, and who's up on the corner? is that Joe's house? You needn't, at this point, write "Joe's house" on the map, but can go and check. (No, this is Miriam's house (write it down), so where's Joe's house?) You can, in this way, assemble acquirable-sized chunks of knowledge into a whole that you could not acquire in one go.
It is perhaps notable that even the process of model building is subject to failures of execution. People mistype numbers into spreadsheets with alarming regularity. I might have specifically checked the color of Pat's house, but then painted it the wrong color because the lighting in my model room is weird, or I let too much time pass before painting and got confused about what color I determined on my field trip, and so on. Someone could point out my error to me ("Hey, I thought Pat's house is white") and I could even agree with them before they point out that I painted it light blue. ("Grabbed the wrong bottle, I guess.")
The question would be whether this sort of thing really extends to linguistic models: is it really possible that you could know Cheyenne is the capital of Wyoming but store "Casper is the capital of Wyoming," not just mistakenly retrieve "Casper" or misspeak for some other reason, but store the wrong thing mistakenly. That looks really dubious to me. If your knowledge here is in linguistic form, knowing is exactly a matter of storing the right sentence; you cannot store the wrong one and still be said to know the right one.
Unless it is possible to store both, even though they're inconsistent. And that certainly happens. It's why teachers used to talk about the rule, never write the wrong answer on the blackboard -- students will sometimes remember what they saw on the board but forget that it was an example of what not to do.
So it could be that "Cheyenne is the capital of Wyoming" is what I know, and is stored as such, but "Casper is the capital of Wyoming" is something I heard someone mistakenly say once, and it's also stored as a memory, or maybe I just know that Casper is another town in Wyoming beginning with "C". I can't have stored anything about Casper if I don't know anything about Casper, even if that's only what someone said.
The whole point of a model is that it represents my knowledge; if it doesn't at least do that -- and sometimes models don't -- that's a particular sort of failing. But if your knowledge is linguistic, and your model is linguistic, there is no step of "translation" to screw up; the linguistic object you store is exactly the thing you know. (I'm a little leery of this argument, strong as it is, because we have no grounds to assume further that all knowledge is linguistic and stored in a linguistic model. That's clearly false, since we also know, remember, and recognize images, scents, textures, and so on.)
That may provide support to the no-models view, but as I noted above, we are likely also to have stored or otherwise be able to produce sentences that are inconsistent with our knowledge. And that forces us to confront issues the no-models view wanted to sidestep:
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
The question is whether a sentence I am familiar with represents something I know -- and that's precisely this second-order issue of whether it's part of my model of the world or not. It is of value to me to be able to store and produce sentences that are not representations of my knowledge: it is how I know what someone else mistakenly believes; it is how I hypothesize in the absence of knowledge, and so on. But that means I may not always be certain whether a sentence I have to hand is part of my total knowledge or not.
I think we can in both principle and practice.
It takes knowledge of what the difference is between language less creatures' belief and language users'. We need a standard for what language less animals can and/or cannot think and/ believe. One thing is certain; language use is the key for establishing what they cannot.
Just joining in this new trend of quoting one's self rather than one's actual interlocutors.
Quite satisfying.
I think the psychological reality of belief undermines notions of "storage" -- a computer can store information and retrieve it, and we can store ledgers within book cases, but a mind doesn't store memories or models. Memories are re-creations, and they change with the context we find ourselves in, which itself changes drastically from time to time, but is always a re-enactment rather than a retrieval. We inhabit similar patterns, patterns feed into other patterns, and so over time it seems our life can take on a sort of form-through-time. But it moves and changes unexpectedly and even subtly at times, the habits of our life and the environment which influences those habits -- and I'd say belief is nothing more than a habit.
Which means there is no place we hold our models, except perhaps in books -- such as text books that we refer to and utilize pedagogically. We might keep a journal or more formal writings, like philosophers and scientists tend to, but we don't refer to the journal in making decisions or recalling beliefs or in following through on our patterns except in limited circumstances that are related (such as philosophical or scientific circumstances). And so, at least for creatures like ourselves in the day-to-day, there simply is no model of the world. We can repeat to ourselves what the world is like -- such as at a church with fellow believers -- to make it seem like there's something stable there, however I'd contend these are rituals and habits we perform in order to re-conjure feelings. That is, the notion of a "model" is parasitic upon our language-use, and hence, the kind of truth that we utilize when not referring to text books and such -- the kind of truth that's embedded within language, as I've been contending.
I think that the correspondence theorists would have us tell what's on the other side of language, but that's just it -- there's nothing there that's linguistic, therefore nothing there that deals with truth. The reason we say the things we say are bounded to the contexts we're speaking within, and the habit-pattern we re-conjure when talking about truth is the game of truth-telling.
In the game of truth-telling truth and falsity are already understood as linked together as one. In fact, the game relies upon truth before truth-telling. But there's still the speaker (whose statement is to be evaluated), the listener (who has an interest in the truth-value of the speaker's sentence), and a notion of a judge (as a child it was the father/mother, but as we grow up there's usually some judge we can appeal to if we aren't satisfied with the original outcome of the game, except in the horrible circumstances of marriage ;))
I think it's the judge that "grounds" the game -- and the judge can just as easily be a "judge", a knowledge of what your interlocutor would like to hear and what you'd like to get out of the game of truth-telling rather than an actual person in the flesh. What counts as true is what the judge would count as true -- so there are certain things a judge might like to see to evaluate some sentence.And that's where correspondence comes into the game of truth telling, as the abstract story of "going to take a look for oneself" as an impartial judge might.
But sometimes consistency will play a role rather than correspondence ("I have been a life long union member, and you think I would cross a picket line?"), or pragmatics ("I may not know exactly why you need to shake this for 20 seconds before adding, but it works!"). In the case of the game of truth-telling, however, I think the T-sentence lets on what each of these has in common -- that it is an utterance in a context that bears the truth predicate. And, even more, that you can remove the truth-predicate when an utterance is being used rather than evaluated.
Correspondence is a generalized story of one of the instances for evaluating an utterance. It removes the characters and describes the action of going to take a look in an abstract story. So it fits the stories of the form "going to take a look", but it doesn't fit the other stories (and methodologies for justification)
Now, in the sciences especially, we keep a store of propositions which have gone through a more sophisticated version of the game of truth-telling. But I think that truth itself, and knowledge for that matter, has to be simpler than science. The notion of a model fits an institutionalized knowledge-production factory, ala the academies. It doesn't fit "Today is Tuesday" (which I regularly must check my storage devices to get right, and never do I ever keep a belief of which day it is constantly in mind) -- and on the whole I think our psychologies are such that we don't hold onto beliefs. We don't check them and put them into our box of knowledge. We let go of beliefs as fast as we hold onto them and upon needing them again we re-create them, and they are re-created in light of us speaking to someone.
Which, I think for me, gets at why I don't like the talk of models. Models make sense for a community-wide group of scholars who write down and argue over the truth of propositions and have a place where they store true propositions, but not so much for minds and beliefs and such.
Already objecting to my thoughts here, but I'm going to let them sit to see if there's progress here: Though, perhaps, if truth is embedded in language, and meaning "ain't in the head", the psychological reality is off-topic? On the whole I tend to think of knowledge as a social product, so I'm not opposed to that (and "to know", in that case, is to believe the communally baptized set of propositions, separating knowledge from knowing) -- but it'd be important to make explicit that truth and knowledge are not mental, in that case.
Don't be so snooty. I did it to show the links between posts that were always intended to be linked.
Wonderful!
I have lots to say about the lots you said, but it'll be a little while.
Hey, you've no need to explain yourself to me. You crack on in whatever way you see fit. It was a post for my own amusement.
Why do I feel like you may have argued somewhere that all off our posts are for our own respective amusement...
Maybe you're about to, and I've time-slipped again. Hmmmm.
Something like that, I expect. It sounds like the sort of thing I'm prone to saying. I shan't bore everyone with a repeat in that case...
I might start just posting...
"Narratives"
...in response to everything and let people fill in the rest as they see fit.
Guy gets sent to prison and his first night inside he hears guys up and down the cell-block calling out a number now and then, followed by scattered chuckling from the other cons. He asks his cellmate what's going on.
"Well, some of us have been in here so long, we've heard all of each other's jokes, so we numbered 'em. That's what you're hearing."
Guy says, "That's pretty interesting. Can I try it?" When his cellmate nods, he calls out "47."
Crickets.
"Geez, am I in trouble? Are new guys not allowed?"
"Nah, you told it wrong."
Ha! Not heard that one.
I'd be lucky, though, if '47' were one of my options... Might make it to 4.
I'd be surprised if this wasn't the case for all of us.
I think this is exactly where I disagree.
It's become clear to me that the key ingredient in the model is knowledge. Step 1 in building a model is, what do we know?
Knowledge is precisely that belief-like state that persists over time without being recreated, reimagined, or re-experienced. We have imperfect access to the knowledge we possess, and we can lose knowledge, but the knowledge we possess we possess continuously.
Quoting Moliere
Yeah that's exactly the issue between us. Truth is slightly to one side here, but yes indeed knowledge is a mental state.
That's a big discussion, but I'm happy that we've landed on a very specific point of disagreement. That's just the sort of thing I was hoping for.
Against my model (of truth), I'd say that knowledge which is not based on correspondence -- the sort of knowledge which uses the cabinet or box metaphor for beliefs -- could very well be mental. There's an interaction between the mental and the material social product I call knowledge (basing it on science), and folk-knowledge is not stored in a filing cabinet anywher. Folk-knowledge is more akin to communal habits and cues and scripts. Collective memory, by my model of memory at least, would require rituals and repetitions and such and would count as mental -- but there'd be no correspondence in this case.
But that would mean we still disagree on psychologies, even when we are talking about the mental -- where basically I think of memory and beliefs-held as a creative process that is re-enacted, you'd say that we can recall the real knowledge we have and that that at least is not a re-creation, but a has-been-created.
Do I have that right?
Quoting Moliere
That's an interesting contrast. It looks to me like @Moliere is construing a belief as an ephemeral mental state, whereas @Srap Tasmaner is construing belief as a continual behavioural disposition. It strikes me that these ideas are not in direct conflict. This is because it could be the case that a continual behavioural disposition comes equipped with the ability to recreate the state of mind and action to exhibit what is believed as a transitory state.
I have some hesitations about calling some items of knowledge purely mental, and some items of knowledge purely behavioural. EG, I can't seem to find the thought of where my e key is when I'm typing, but when I'm programming recreating enough of the state of a script to 'put it in mind' seems to happen when debugging or adding something.
Even if you want to say, as I've been inclined to lately, that knowledge is not a kind of belief but a "first class" mental state in its own right, distinct from belief -- which is enough to keep our positions from conflicting -- we may still want to say that knowledge entails belief. (I'm undecided, but I see the appeal.) If S knows p, then S believes p -- and that can be true even if you don't analyze knowledge as belief + some other stuff.
Which in terms of psychology might come out as you describe -- and we might experience knowledge roughly this way.
Not that I'm ready to plump for knowledge as a disposition to entertain particular beliefs, but that might be the psychology.
I am mindful that we are talking about ideas in the form of words when we talk about belief or knowledge. We have common usage, to be sure, but just what that is is not so easy to establish. We have all heard these words used many times in many different situations and contexts, and I think we probably all form our own idiosyncratic senses of what they denote.
For me, then, to know is to be certain. I have come to think that knowledge cannot be fallible; if something we think is knowledge turns out to be mistaken, then it either never was knowledge or the conditions have changed such that it no longer qualifies as knowledge. We can feel certain that we know this or that, but can we ever be certain? What could being certain mean? So, if all we can manage is feeling certain, can we ever be said to know anything? I'm inclined to say that all we can be certain of is that what seems to be present right now seems to be present right now. This is not to say anything at all about what that which seems to be present "really" is.
So, our experience moment to moment is absolutely certain; not in the sense that it is definitely this or that, but just in the sense that it is our present awareness or lack of awareness. For the rest we move among our collective representations, claiming this or claiming that, as if anything could ever be definitively established. At least our discourse hangs there long enough for us to be able to play these assertoric and possibilistic games.
Though he was, at least, clear and unequivocal that the sentence, "Tarski is a correspondence theorist" is true iff Tarski is a correspondence theorist. :wink:
Hang your head in shame, Andrew.
I've just never found this compelling. I always immediately think of cases where people are as confident as they can imagine being, what they would naturally describe as "certain," and they're wrong, or cases where someone nurses unwarranted doubts about knowing what they do indeed know.
It always seems to me that certainty is just a different thing that may or may not accompany knowledge. I suppose we might say that if you know that p, you're entitled to be certain that p, and probably even certain that you know that p, but being entitled to judge or to feel (whichever version we're using) is just not the same as in fact judging or feeling.
I think there are straightforward, persuasive counterexamples to the idea that you can't be certain of anything, but the first ones that leap to mind are backwards. Do you know the population of the county where you live? I don't know mine. In fact, I'm absolutely certain I don't know mine.
You see no problem in allowing deception to be truth? Personally, I like to keep my truths free from deception. That is my preference, and I think it's because I have a will of my own. And, I do not like to be taken advantage of. For me, that's where the problem is, if we allow deception to reign as truth, it provides the means for others to take advantage of me.
But if you don't mind your honest beliefs being the product of deception, I really don't mind that. Do you have a free will?
I think I misread @Moliere actually, am I right in thinking that your account places less stress on beliefs being mental states, and more on the process of recreating a competence? It doesn't matter so much if beliefs are "mental furniture", it just matters that some process recreates them. If someone has the capacity to recreate a competence, or a tendency to behave/process as if a given thing is true, then they can be said to believe it. Does that sound about right?
I would say that in the former kinds of cases, they don't know, but merely believe that they know. Remember that saying certainty is necessary for knowledge does not entail it is sufficient, and that feeling certain does not equate to justifiably being certain.
In the latter kinds of cases I would say the information is there, but access to it is not, and I would not count such a condition as knowing. To count as knowing, I would say it is necessary to have the appropriate information; in other words to know that you know.
The question I would ask you is whether you can think of any examples where someone could be said to know something without feeling certain, as well as justifiably being certain, about it. Also I want to remind you that I acknowledge that any knowledge is relative to contexts, so I am not wanting to bring the possibility of radical skepticism to bear on the issue, because that would be to demand of all knowledge that it somehow be absolute, independent of all context, which I think is obviously absurd.
It wasn't a rhetorical question.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
How so?
I find this exchange baffling and I wonder if you'd each indulge me in explaining a couple of the presuppositions you're working from.
You seem to be working from the principle that there's a right answer to the question of 'how the mind works' in this regard - I gather that from the fact that you're critiquing each others' models, not just curating them.
You seem to be working with a presumption that how your mind works is not radically different from how my mind works or each other's minds work - I'm getting this, again from the fact that you're critiquing rather than curating, so each of you is capable of making a wrong statement about how minds work.
Then you seem to be working toward this shared notion of how minds work by thinking about it, not by examining some quantity of actual minds, removing variables, examining differences etc.
I can't seem to reconcile the two sides.
Surely if two of you (assuming even one of you is right) can be wrong about how minds work as a result of their introspection of their own mind, then introspection delivers both wrong as well as right impressions of how your own mind works, about two thirds of the time, at least? (the only other options being 'everyone's mind works differently', or 'there's no right answer to how the mind works')
So if introspection delivers both correct and incorrect answers as to how the mind works, what motivates the methodology here? By what means do you propose the results of introspection are tested to see which are right and which are wrong? More introspection? That's just going to deliver about the same proportions of right and wrong answers.
I guess what I'm missing, fascinating though your personal accounts are, is what you're each looking for in the others' accounts to say "that doesn't sound right". All you seem to have is three conflicting accounts (which together tell us nothing other than that introspection is not a reliable means of determining how minds work, at least 2 out of 3 times it's wrong), and no means of choosing between them.
I want a definition of truth but for that I must already posses a definition of truth!
Oh, and one last thing. About the status of 'the mind' in the world. Real entity or not?
Because each of you seem quite strongly realist about worldly objects, no enacted constructions for you guys, if you want to know what colour the house is, you just look. Anyone saying it's blue is wrong because it's white, etc.
So am I right in assuming that for you, 'the mind' is not a real entity? After all, none of you are proposing we 'just look' to find out how it works (unless you think your sample of three is statistically significant, or, as ruled out before, you think everyone's mind works differently and there's no right or wrong answer)
I think going into this would derail the thread. If you want an answer to it, I'd gesture towards that analysing concepts and comparing intuitions doesn't need you to do experiments. If you genuinely are confused by it, you seemed to understand the methodology behind some Dennett vs Chalmers arguments people've had on the forum. It's the same thing, only we're worse at it.
If you want more of a theoretical gloss on it, I think discussions like this are useful from the perspective of building a bridge between manifest and scientific images. Will quote at length from SEP below, from the article on Sellars. tl;dr for the quote, it's still worthwhile examining concepts and intuitions because doing so also influences how folk metaphysics places constraints on experiments you'd do later - the metaphysical imagination suffusing folk and non-folk theories alike.
[hide="Quote"]
[/hide]
Then we'll leave it there. Thanks anyway for the reply.
No worries, if you feel like making a thread about it, it would be a good discussion. Isaac vs the very idea of analysing concepts in philosophy!
At bottom I've said belief is a habit -- so it could be a mental habit, it could be a physical habit -- so yes I think that sounds right. Though I don't know if I'd say competence as much as pattern or habit. We have cues and scripts which we've memorized through repetition, so they take on a kind of form (seem like we have a cabinet we put our knowledge into and pull it out), but the form isn't like a storage device where the model sits and we can pull it out at some other time. The script can be rewritten when we're not looking, and even improvised when we are looking.
I think primarily I'm pushing against the metaphysics of memory as a model which we update. In an institution I think you can get something like that. But for our beliefs that aren't put through an institutional system of scrutiny? Those just don't have that same stability, in my experience. "Today is Tuesday" is already a belief I've let go of several times yesterday, and now let go of entirely. I didn't put that belief in my modular closet or a book or a paper or something.
I'd say most of our beliefs fall into that class. The beliefs that appear like correspondence are the sorts we find in academies and such -- but that process of knowledge is too high a standard for our everyday. It would be impossible to function like that.
:D
I'd say that all methodologies give both right and wrong answers -- what makes them methodologies is that they resolve disputes, not that they deliver right or wrong answer.
Here we're at an interesting intersection because of how little we share, in terms of a background of beliefs. There's no methodology in place. It's anarchy. Even our basic beliefs about how minds work can be at odds with one another. (in fact, one might say that if we fail here, it's due to a difference in conceptual schemes about conceptual schemes, thereby undermining Davidson. the anti-realist's best move is quietism, because then Davidson has nothing to point to to say we have a shared scheme -- nothing to radically interpret back to himself)
I agree with @fdrake that we're not necessarily at odds -- but by stating our positions and starting to pick at them, that's how one begins to build a network of background beliefs from which one can then create methodologies. So obviously, yes, I have an opinion here, but I'm attempting to maneuver in such a way that leaves it open to be added to or changed or taken away as seen fit by those so interested. And my main point of contention here is with the notion of a model that we update within our memory -- so it's more how we're picturing memory here than how The Mind works, if that makes sense.
Thanks. I know people are concerned about this derailing the thread, so I'll be brief, but wanted to at least respond.
The question I really wanted answered (which I maintain is pertinent to the question about truth, but if not could hopefully be answered very briefly to assist my following your process here) was... What kind of entity do you see the mind being such that it is
a) real
...but...
b) possessed of properties which are determinable by agreement among introspecting parties.
If I looked at my duck pond and said "ducks are white", we have two approaches to critiquing the claim.
We could take a radically relativist approach and say, "yeah, ducks are white, for you, that's part of what the word 'duck' means in your language game and if it functions, then OK"
Or we could say "ducks are part of the world and they're either white or not, we'd have to check"
The latter I take to be the realist case you seem to espouse.
Yet such a check cannot then consist of one looking at one's own duck pond and saying "nah, ducks are black". That's just exactly the same type of claim we just rejected as ignoring the shared world of ducks.
Replace duck pond with mind. You get the picture.
@Srap Tasmaner has Pat's house as white. Let's say it seems green to me, and it seems grey to you. No amount of agreement between us regarding what colour Pat's house seems to us to be is capable (under a hard realist assumption) of yielding facts about what colour Pat's house actually is. It's immune to our agreement about the colour it seems to us to be.
Yet you're treating the mind as both real, but unlike Pat's house, with properties that are discernible (or at least investigable) by agreement between parties as to the way it merely seems to them to be.
I'm just wondering what kind of entity this is, for you. What sort of thing it is you're speculating about the function of.
I think you're construing the discussion as introspecting about the nature of mental states, whereas (if I'm following), when it relies on introspection about mental states or behaviours, it's relies on them as observations in a context. It isn't as if we're doing the whole Cartesian thing of solipsistically examining the preconditions of our thoughts, it's that we've got a partially shared but conflicted mutual understanding of an issue. Is this the kind of issue which even is amenable to direct answer by experiment? I doubt it, in the same manner that "cognition" and "aroused state" have observable analogues but there's a whole, underdetermined, theory linking physiological and behavioural observations to those constructs. If you wanted to critique an experiment into cognition or aroused states, one way of showing a flaw in it would be a tenuous relationship of the theorised construct to the observations; and that's a matter of relevance and interpretation as well as observation.
Would you be similarly baffled by people talking about a society and saying it works partly through norms of conduct? "But the norms are observable", "Yes, and you need to tell me what kind of entity they are before any of this makes any sense whatsoever!"
It wasn't a rhetorical answer either.
Quoting Isaac
But I do not believe that you don't already grasp the answer to this question yourself, so I can't help but think that you are being dishonest here. Anyway, I'll answer it for you, and you can tell me if it's consistent with what you believe.
Through deception a person can make me think that they are helping me to achieve my goals, and get me to do things I wouldn't otherwise do. Then it will turn out that the person had no real intention of helping me achieve any of my goals, and those things I have done for that person will prove to have been a waste of time and money, and this is actually detrimental to achieving my own goals, counterproductive. That's how deception provides the means for one to take advantage of me.
Quoting Isaac
You should acknowledge that this is extremely faulty logic. Two out of three people being wrong once, out of an unspecified number of judgements, does not produce the conclusion of being wrong two thirds of the time. The number of judgements could be millions, with only two instances of them being wrong.
In other words, you completely misrepresent introspection, as producing a one time judgement, when in reality it is an ongoing process with multitudes of judgements.
Quoting Isaac
The methodology can be described as faith in logic. We take simple principles of logic, and apply them with faith in them, without the need to test the conclusions. We have faith in the logic so we accept the conclusions without testing. These are simple principles like the law of non-contradiction. Through introspection a person can determine whether one holds contradictory beliefs, such as when one applies one principle in some situations, and a contradicting principle in other situations. Introspection is the only way that we reveal these internal contradictions to ourselves. Then we proceed with faith in the law of non-contradiction, to rectify the internal contradiction, which can be called an instance of self-deception.
Quoting fdrake
Not necessarily, introspection is very important to truth as honesty, which is what I've been arguing. Introspection is the means by which we determine consistency and inconsistency within our own beliefs. We must continuously apply principles of logic to the beliefs which we have developed over the years, to compare old beliefs with new beliefs, and rid ourselves of inconsistency.
This is also the means by which we determine potential deception from others. We have to compare what the person has said in the past, with what the person is saying now. However, unless we search for written material, we only have our own minds (memory), as the means to access what the person has said in the past. So the process whereby we apply logic to determine inconsistency in others is simply a form of introspection, except we must necessarily distinguish the beliefs of another from one's own beliefs.
Jesus said "I am Son of man". Others said "he is Son of God". To claim "I am Son of God" was blasphemy, a punishable offence. The Jews wanted Pilate to judge Jesus as guilty of that offence, and apply punishment. Jesus said I am here to witness the truth. Pilate said what is truth. Then Pilate said he found no basis for a charge against Jesus, expressing his honest opinion, and turned Jesus over to the Jews, washing his hands of the matter. The Jews afflicted punishment.
I'm going to be real and say I have no idea what kind of entity the mind is. Is it even an entity at all? We have brains, sure. But the mind isn't something I feel confident in saying I know what the entity is. The mind is not exactly like ducks, as in your example. There's no method attached to resolving disputes about it, whereas with ducks you have "go take a look" -- and indeed if you saw black ducks you'd be justified in responding "the ducks are black", or in re-interpreting your partner as meaning the ducks are black. That is, the method could break down, depending upon the parties involved.
For now I'm just expressing discomfort, at least, with the notion of a modular memory akin to a hard drive or a book case -- which I believe is leading to support the notion of the correspondence theory of truth, something I've been arguing against.
Would you feel the same, or naw?
It's that last bit that's the most important to my general approach.
(as for whether I'm a realist or anti-realist, I find myself flipping back and forth on that all the time. I just try not to pre-figure the answer, given that's a normal point of dispute. i.e. it's thought-terminating, given there being no method for determining what one ought to believe there)
I understand that, but why would mere observations even need to cohere? There's no less a gap between, say, my experience of time passing and the actual time passing. The former we might discuss as you are here, the latter we measure with a clock. But there's be no purpose to trying to resolve the difference between a day that I thought dragged on a bit and a day that you thought went by in a flash. You and I can experience different, observational accounts of how quickly time seemed to pass. talking about then would be nothing more than curation ("Oh, that's interesting"), there's be no purpose, nor logic behind reconciling the two accounts, the actual amount of time that passed was measured by the clock and that's our only shared account.
So whilst I completely agree about the gap between phenomena and recorded mental events, I can't see that it explains the analysis of phenomena as if it were amenable to rational argument. Is there a reason your lived experience ought to cohere rationally with Srap's and Moliere's? Is it a puzzle to be resolved if it doesn't?
Quoting fdrake
Yes.
If I were to wonder about how a car worked, my first port of call would be Wikipedia. I wouldn't speculate about how I thought a car might work and then compare notes with others similarly speculating. A car (and its workings) are just not that kind of thing.
Likewise with society. A little more complicated, but if I really was wondering if society worked partly through norms of conduct, I'd hop straight onto Wikipedia and look up what people who'd had a chance to really dig into societies have found. Again, like the car, I believe 'societies' are just that kind of entity. The sort that there are facts of the matter about and those facts amenable to investigation.
So with something like...
Quoting fdrake
Seems to me, like the car, like 'societies', to be best answered by hopping on to Wikipedia and seeing if anyone has checked. I mean, it's quite a simple experiment, we have markers of behavioural preparation, markers of conceptual imaging, we even (with a little trial and error) could probably find the 'e key' neuron (see https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grandmother_cell)! Then we'd know if you do or don't use your mental map of where the e key is every time, or not.
If we're talking about your experience of what it feels like to seek the e key, then that's not amenable to hopping on to Wikipedia. But then it's not amenable to gradual correction by rational enquiry either.
Ooooo....you sneaky devil, you. I see what you did right there. Everyone has his own presuppositions, and your chosen field of expertise aims to reduce them all to something by which they are all explained.
Even if youre right, and all presuppositions can be explained, were still left with the horse....water conundrum. Which is fine, were already in one anyway, presented by reason itself.
Same as it ever was.....
Uh huh. The question was why associating the meaning of the word 'truth' with a pragmatic concept of utility caused this increase in deception. What difference does the meaning of the word make. Are people more able to deceive you because they can use the word 'truth' to describe their most pragmatic models. If we banned them from using the word that way, would they somehow be shackled in their deception?
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
How?
...seems at odds with...
Quoting Moliere
Is it that you are a little sure of what kind of entity the mind is? Something in the ballpark of the sort of thing unlike ducks, but perhaps no more specific than that?
Quoting Moliere
I would, but I'm more interested in why you feel that discomfort. Is it, like @fdrake, that it's not how it feels to you? If so, then why would you be uncomfortable with other people describing it that way. Is there something pushing you to think that we ought not have differences in how we feel our mind works (or our brain, if you want a more concrete entity). If we're talking about how the memory actually, works, then we'd need a textbook summarising the hundreds of experiments which have sought to discover just that. If, on the other hand, we're talking about how it seems to us our memories work, then would we expect any coherence? Is there some reason we'd be uncomfortable with completely inconsistent models?
I'm saying I don't even know if the mind is an entity. Whether the mind is a real thing or not isn't determined by myself.
Quoting Isaac
I'd say that the reason for the discomfort isn't so thorough or rationalistic as what you're proposing. I've read some books -- indeed, I've even browsed Wikipedia on my time on the internets :D -- and gone through some classes. I've talked with some people who I respect and follow their lead.
I trust others. It's not a belief derived from rationalistic impulses to prove myself the one who knew about the mind.
Hence the importance of my approach. If you agree with me, then that's enough. After all, you know more about the studies on memory, right? So in our little discussion group, if others see that as relevant, then we could move forward with that belief regardless of its truth-value.
Aren't I just.
Quoting Mww
There's more to an explanation than a kind of sub-level of more foundational grounds.
I agree with your complaint about reducing presuppositions, and would rebuke any colleagues in my field to no less a degree than you are here.
But, as I say, more foundational grounds doesn't exhaust the sort of thing an 'explanation' might be.
"It just feels that way" is such an answer, for example.
"Where's Tim?" "Dunno. Wait --- he said he was going over to Josh's."
Did I switch from knowing Tim was going to Josh's, maybe for a few hours, to not knowing for a moment or two, and then to knowing it again? I don't think so.
Knowledge you have no access to whatsoever sounds sketchy, I agree, but according to the movies there's hypnosis and therapy. Not the most important case. Knowledge you have imperfect access to is so common, the examples pile up easily. Keeping a grocery list in your head, you might easily recall all but one of the items you intended to buy, and you have to really think to get the last. Again, I can't see describing that as knowing, then not knowing, and then knowing again. You know the whole time, but have trouble remembering, simple as that. And we do, a great deal of the time, readily recall what we know, as needed.
For real arguments against the requirement that to know you must also know you know, see Williamson, Knowledge and Its Limits (which I've only just started reading).
Okay, now, that's an appalling mischaracterization of what's going on here.
I'm responsible for this current round of the discussion going in the direction it has, and from the beginning I left open the possibility that the explanation for "Pat's house is white" counting as true is just that this is what people by and large say, that there is an implicit convention, no more. "Just look" was offered, by @Banno if memory serves, as another thing people do that has bearing on the question. It hasn't been accepted as some official argument settler, certainly not by me. I have in fact tried to bring the discussion right up to the point where there is such direct disagreement over a purported fact, and I have been reluctant to describe this simplistically as one person saying something true and the other false. I have tried to be scrupulous about this, while still pushing the conversation toward such questions being unavoidable. (If you've given 1000 4-year-olds the wug test, how many of them answered "wugs"? Don't know? Why not? Oh yeah -- the only way to know is to actually go and look at the data.)
I have also described the process of model building as beginning with collecting some data, going and checking the layout of Pat's neighborhood, but only because I don't know how else model building might be done. I have noted that the procedures I described do not guarantee fidelity in the model, and that this could matter when it is put to use. I tried to lay this all out in just enough detail that anyone could find something to criticize. I've been trying not to hide my assumptions, but point them out, even where I can find no option but to rely on them. We are capable of collecting data aren't we? Or should we quit bothering since it's all enactively constructed anyway...
Quoting Isaac
Gee, this sounds rather like the scenario I was asking for input about. And you seem to be providing some sort of account here, of roughly the sort I asked for. And you know all this how exactly? Have you done research to determine whether this is so? Did you check wikipedia? Or did you sit in your armchair and reason your way to these conclusions?
Usually, conventionally, yes, but does not remain that case, in which an explanation serves as a proof? Granted, a highly restricted explanatory domain, to be sure, but cant it be said that proofs are explanations given from the most foundational ground relative to that which is explained?
Quoting Isaac
.....to which I would argue that it just feels that way, while indeed a foundational ground and may be an answer, it is difficult to suppose as an explanation. Here I would agree that there is more to an explanation than this kind of foundational ground.
We can leave it here, if you like. Youve got a lot of answering to do otherwise, so...thanks for taking the time.
This is interesting, and getting closer to our disagreement. I think I could go along with this and your grocery list example with the understanding that the "objects" (the list, the propositions, the beliefs) can change when we're not authoring them, and we are free from following them when they are cued (but generally it's habit which forces us to continue using the script -- it's just easier than to continually scrutinize every belief I might have).
Yes, I'd say I think that we still know that Tim was going to Josh, and we know our list. Our immediate expressions or experiences of ourselves aren't the arbiter of our habits. Perhaps, depending upon how we want to construe belief, we could say that we stopped believing Tim was going to Josh's because we couldn't remember, but upon remembering (recalling the script, the line, due to whatever it is that made us believe that) we do believe that -- while we knew it the entire time (there has to be some way we have a memory, after all -- I don't want to deny memory, only modify the picture we're using a bit).
I think that with our respective metaphors, the thing I'd modify in using yours is that there are Gremlins in our library of knowledge which rewrite our scripts from time to time when we're not looking, or burn them, or whatever it is that makes them change. Also, I'd say there's some kind of veil involved -- we don't always immediately know what we know, we aren't transparent to ourselves. We have to figure it out along the way (and re-figure it out along the way). And, for some of us, the Gremlins do more than rewrite or blot out scripts -- some of them rebuild the entire house that is our metaphor for our mind.
***
Another way to think of this -- I have a handful of books that I've read more than once. They are the sort of books which retain their value regardless of my current circumstances. When I read them it's as if there's more or something else there than was there the first time about, though the strings certainly haven't changed. It's like every reading is itself a writing, is how I've explained that before. Though perhaps we could say that the words simply faded and I'm putting the words back into my box of propositions I call "the world" or "the book", a copy of the book. (going back to Galileo's metaphor for the mind here :D )
I'm not sure if this is all making sense or not -- it seems to me that the one thing I'd find difficult to let go of, in our conversation, is that our memories, our beliefs, morph or dissipate. And that our environments change so much that we really do have to be able to let go of beliefs, even if there are a handful of beliefs we repeat to ourselves and keep.
So, at least, we agree with these sorts of phenomena. Our general pictures we're using wouldn't count against one another here, I don't think. Let's see if what I've laid out above helps or hurts chances of understanding between ourselves.
Quoting Moliere
I see. So you might say "that's not how memory works" and some of that discomfort is because what's being proposed doesn't cohere with what you've learned from the people you trust. That makes sense (if I've understood it right?)
Quoting Moliere
I'm not an expert on memory, so don't trust me over your other trusted sources. Like most academics I know my specialism and any matters which touch it and then I'm probably about 30 years behind in anything else! But yes, as far as my understanding goes, memories are not stored like data files, they're more like rehearsals for some behaviour that might be required later. We might experience 'searching' for where I put my keys, but in the brain it's more like rehearsing doing so again. There's not a 'fact' of where I put my keys encoded somewhere which we retrieve.
Quoting Moliere
That's very similar to the way I feel about it. I can't see any reason why our folk understandings of how our minds work would be consistent, I can even think of a reason why they ought to be.
You said...
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
...and also...
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
None of which is to contradict the fact that my representation is a mischaracterisation (only you can know that), but it is to contradict the idea that it's 'appalling'. I've almost directly quoted you with the 'just look' aspect and you've at the very least been pointing in the direction of knowledge being obtainable via our empirical investigations.
Moving on though...
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
You were given just such an option with...
Quoting Joshs
...that models are anticipatory, not recollective. That models predict and enact those predictions, not collect and curate passive data. You've rejected that approach. You're not obliged to follow it, of course, but you can't play the card of "I don't know where this might go, just laying out some questions" at the same time as dismissing some of those answers out of the box.
If you want to build a model of the way model-building works (with regards to the role of language) but you want to do so only from a particular set of presuppositions, then I think it's not an unreasonable question for someone to ask "why those ones?" - which is all I'm doing here.
Assuming you are still baffled and this isn't a rhetorical gesture. A common reference point would probably be the idea that perceptions are cognitive endeavours, are linguistically mediated in a delayed fashion, and are definitely theory ladened. So's the more general (though perhaps physiologically derivative) category of interpretation. Being able to puzzle out commitments and background assumptions is what, I believe, this kind of discussion is particularly good at. Please forgive me if I'm wrong, but I believe you are promoting a discussion of the same character by trying to tease out the other discussants background assumptions while holding what they (we) believe as an object of (noncommital) scrutiny. By the looks of it, it's the same device.
If it's genuine bafflement, and not a rhetorical strategy, I don't think I can help you understand the discussion more than that.
Bingo!
I mean, sure, introspection is a part of my thinking (in the sense that we probably can't help but to introspect when thinking about the mind), but I agree that introspection is notoriously faulty in determining the truth about ourselves, and especially faulty in determining any general feature about the mind rather than some specific feature of my mind. And, yes, the discomfort is one of not-cohering with what I've gleaned about how the mind works so far. But I don't have a deep rational argument for these things as much as I'm sharing impressions and looking for where we disagree with the eventual hope of building conceptual bridges.
After all, since we're not experts, what even is the level of description? It's big-picture, it's folk, and it's impressionistic even as we think on and reference properly scientific descriptions -- even if you are a cognitive scientist, the audience (including myself, I'm a chemist) of our conversation makes it so that this isn't a scientific conversation since we all have such a wide array of backgrounds, and we're not united in some institution trying to generate knowledge. That's just the sort of conceptual muck that philosophy is perfectly suited for untangling (or, at least, demonstrating an inability to untangle).
Quoting Isaac
Cool.
To get us back on track to truth --
While belief falls into that quagmire, I think small-t truth escapes it, where big-T truth doesn't -- and I've been attempting, at least, to reduce substantive theories of truth to big-T stories about truth: a kind of Fictionalism about substantive theories of truth, while maintaining the truth-aptness of utterances.
Given that we're in the wild-wild west of concepts, small-t truth and some charity might be the only thing holding our conversation together, especially when it comes to something as amorphous and difficult to describe as the mind, in general.
I don't doubt that, but there's categories and approaches.
You'd find it weird if we all, as car drivers, tried to puzzle out our commitments and background assumptions about our folk theories regarding how cars work, no? We could. I suspect most drivers, even those unfamiliar with the mechanics, have some kind of intuition, if pushed, about what exactly the gearstick does, how the engine works...and all of those things would have background assumptions and would entail commitments. They certainly all have an 'experience' of pushing the pedal, feeling the car respond, etc. But a discussion about it would be super weird. If we want to know how cars work we just consult our Haynes manuals. We still have those folk theories, but we don't expect fruit from a discussion of them, beyond simple curation of how people feel.
At the other end of the scale, if we were discussing the ethics of abortion, it's all commitments and assumptions. There's nothing but folk theories. We'd have to expect fruit from a discussion of that nature because we haven't found any equivalent of "just look" to discover something non-folk.
Many things fall somewhere in between, but still on the scale. So I don't think it's ever sufficient to say "you carry out this kind of investigation with X so it must be understandable that others do with Y".
There remains the question of why the participants have treated it as 'abortion-style' investigation, as opposed to a 'car-style' investigation - which is all I was asking.
I think this is very perceptive, observations, introspection on experience, scientific data and what makes sense to believe is common knowledge seem quite like tent pins for the discussion here. We've got all these concepts flying about in the wind, and very little fixity to them. Attributing these commonalities small t-truth seems a necessary part of progression; like you can't sensibly doubt your instrument at the same time as calibrating something to its output.
I think that is also something quite close to Davidson's thesis of 'radical interpretation'. [hide="Lengthy SEP quote about it"]. I also think that your methodological challenge gets at something fundamental to the discussion @Isaac; what do you do when you know all the tools are biased through what context they ascribe the information, and even what entities are in play in the discussion bring their own theory-ladened framing devices? You try and explore the landscape and learn to find your way about.
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I don't think it fits neatly into either. You can't do an experiment to see what interpretive frame is appropriate for a task. There's no manual for resolving differences of this sort. I think all you can hope for is that there's some reference to small t truths where appropriate, when you're trying to jostle worldviews about.
There's also probably a relevant side discussion we could have about how it can be possible that I'm in a house when in some sense the house is made mostly of the void between atom parts, but it's another of those side discussions. I tried to allude to this with the scientific vs manifest image reference; if all we're doing is exposing hooks in the manifest image (folk theory, how discourse structures thought about stuff) for better theory, among the discussants, and learning our way about the shared space of concepts, that's good enough for me.
Cool. I think that's the only sensible way to go here. a lack of rational argument is good. I don't think this sort of thing is particularly amenable to rational argument. It's more, for me, about the ways in which what we know constrains further folk-theories, than any idea that we can derive then from what we know. In that sense, I like your notion that some concept of how the memory actually works, constrains the range of folk-theories sufficiently to make you a little leery of those which treat it as a bookshelf. "A little leery" is about as far as the justification from neuroscience takes us.
Quoting Moliere
Yeah, I can see that, but therein would have to lie some early commitments to the sort of data those sciences can give us laymen, no? We can, for example, take data from neuroscience as constraining, or we can commit ourselves to a notion that minds are unconstrained by brains. We can (as I offered earlier) say that something like Psychology produces constraints on our folk-theories of how our minds work by offering us a much wider sample size than we could ever glean ourselves, or we could reject that constraint by saying that all minds are different and so the averaging of Psychology is always only an artefact.
The point is that these commitments recede our lay understanding of the science and also precede our decisions about the form of any investigation (including things like the utility of rational methods, the value of introspection etc).
Quoting Moliere
You'll have to just lay out the difference between the two, I'm not sure I'd be using the same distinction as you.
Quoting Isaac
Sure, you're quoting me, but since you don't understand the context of anything I say, what's the point?
The whole point of this exercise was to provide a way of making the differences in approaches precise enough and explicit enough that we could actually discuss those differences, instead of going round and round on the same crap. To get there, I say things that may not represent my position, but are more like bringing out a position that the setup I did, shows is a possible position. The intent, again, was just to be clear enough that problems would be clear or could be made clear. @Banno's not onboard with much that I've said but that's fine; as I told him, if my model has assumptions that suck, we should get to see exactly where and how it fails. That would be a win, in my book.
The same goes for the setup. Tried to make it just explicit enough to criticize. But I have to say something, so I did the best I could to get things started.
I don't think of philosophical discussion as a contest of wills. YMMV.
Quoting Isaac
Not really.
That's all very 30,000-feet for my purposes. In this context, that's just a lot of handwaving. Show me exactly what that looks like, if not in my toy model then in another. I offered @Joshs the same invitation. (Maybe he answered and I missed it; I'll look again.)
Or don't. If you'd rather argue about whether something is anticipatory or recollective, have at it. Not what I'm after.
Absolutely. That, and abandon any sense of the 'throw everything in a bucket' type of empiricism that seems at times to be popular among the lay philosophy community. abandon the idea that we can derive the 'true' model by gathering all the data together and having a 'really good look at it'. The data is already theory-laden, as is the gathering bucket and the act of looking.
As for us talking about what we find in the bucket... Well...it's hard to see we have a hope in hell.
A good idea in principle, but (and we all knew this would come) the idea of 'charity' here itself just acts as box in which to hide all the assumptions which are going to filter the kinds of answers we're going accept. Imagine we pick any two posts here, on this thread, and solicit from the poster and the responder a view about whether the response exhibited this charity. Now heaven forfend that I would bias a potential experiment with a prediction, but in lieu of the actual work, I'd bet my hat the posters would more often than not feel their critics had not exhibited such charity whilst the critics would, more often than not feel they had. Would there be any way to adjudicate? Would there heck.
Isn't it great? :D
To be even more pedantic, we all seem fine with some true sentences, and even agree upon some of which of those sentences count as true. We just disagree on what we mean when we agree that they're true! :D Or something like that.
That's the spirit!
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
See above ^. Did you read my mind? I'd not finished writing my post about how the critiqued are always going to assume a lack of charity from the critics more than vice versa, and here you supply just such an example. Do I not understand the context, or do you fail to specify it sufficiently? Do those professing an understanding have just that, or are they just more willing than I am to offer that 'charity', assume that your implied context is, in fact, the coherent context they think it is, and not the opaque one I get from reading what you've written?
Is there a pattern here, do we randomly assign charity or not, do I misunderstand you and you fail to see the relevance of my posts by chance? Or does the known antagonism between our respective world views bias that sense.
It's been something I've been thinking about a lot recently. How philosophy, particularly, simply cannot proceed discursively without this charity. It's hard enough to interpret a clear instruction from a mechanic or engineer. Even these are sometimes taken wrongly. So how far could we ever hope to get expressing the vaguest of notions such as philosophy without interlocutors who are prepared to come along with us?
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Yes. An my point was the way such a setup is already so massively theory-laden as to act to dismiss several possible answers right of the bat. It's an act of clarity by virtue only of the fact that where you see mud, others see the makings of pottery. even to lay things out thus is to render some matters not as problems, but as incoherent within the framework, like choosing a coding language and then asking for people to debug your code. "You should have used Ruby" ceases to become a coherent answer.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Exactly. Set the context such that some positions become 30,000-feet handwaiving. Was it an accident that the positions thus rendered irrelevant were the one's you'd earlier found yourself mired in? Of course not. You clarify the terms of engagement to filter out the answers you're uncomfortable with. We all do it, it's not just you. But the reasons for your discomfort interest me. The reasons for mine, unfortunately, elude me.
Thanks :). I'm glad to hear so. I'm not sure how to proceed without sentences that are true (or are truth-apt, at least). I'm fine with not specifying what that means (or, as I see the T-sentence, allowing the utterances we're considering to define the meaning of truth rather than having a big-picture theory of truth), but at least they should be capable of being true or false regardless of the picture we use in understanding truth, and we seem to be quite capable of using true sentences even while having no clear understanding of truth itself.
I think this is fine, probably. Maybe we could fill in some details even here, but maybe it's unnecessary. This is close to what I took@fdrake to be saying, that knowledge might have some mechanism that allows recreation of the belief on demand, more or less.
I do want to add that it was not my intention to contest the neuroscience of memory, or the idea that memories are, to some degree, confabulations, recreations, and so on. I assume the research on that is sound, and I think it accords readily with experiences most of us have had. It's the extent of the finding, rather than the finding itself, that might be a little surprising, but there you go. It is what it is.
That does make knowledge -- as distinct from memory -- a little tricky, because knowledge is obviously persistent in some sense, even if that sense is transformed into "presenting consistently" or something. It's not like we only just discovered that we can misremember things we know, so there's reason to think the concept of knowledge ought to be able to survive our improved understanding of memory.
I really had no idea we would end up so focused on memory. Honestly hadn't occurred to me that memory would be taken as a sort of proxy for the persistence of knowledge. So this is really interesting.
On the other hand, I did note along the way that one reason for making a model, like a map, is to improve access to the knowledge you've acquired. You noted something similar in the institutional memory of the sciences and academia at large.
This might also be the place to say that I wondered if my toy model would end up functioning in the Republics man-writ-large way. (I didn't explicitly design it for that, but not so that it couldn't be either.)
As I described things, we might make a model in language precisely to improve access to our knowledge, but now it looks like access to the model might be hampered by the very same problem it was designed (hypothetically) to solve: namely, that access to the model is in some sense inherently unreliable because memory, including memory of the model, is unreliable.
That's very nice. It looks like it really undermines the motivation for such linguistic models. As I said, I had no idea we might be headed here, but this is the sort of result I hoped for. (Though I expected it to be less general: if you can't remember what color Pat's house, you can't remember what color your model says it is -- something like that.)
But what if this wrong because overbroad, mainly. Maybe the point of a model is precisely that it involves a type of access that is more reliable? For instance, there's that early work of Herbert Simon and others on the memories of chess players: shown a position with pieces randomly placed, strong players (masters) do no better than anyone else at reconstructing them; shown a position from a real game, they do dramatically better because they break down the position into meaningful chunks and assemble those. The random position is harder to model efficiently, and the position modeling that masters do seems to enhance access (masters remember many, many patterns, and use them in modeling a given position). So the argument might fail if this is another point of modeling, to enhance access and make it more reliable. Both cases of memory, but not the same kind.
Chess masters know a lot, standard development patterns, openings, endgame techniques, middlegame themes, on and on and on. I just can't imagine "giving up" the entire category of knowledge. I don't know how we could understand chess performance without it.
Fair. I think I added to the confusion by stating my terms so starkly. As @Isaac noted:
Quoting Isaac
I'm good enough with "A little leery" -- consider my thought amended from refusal to accept a bookshelf to being leery and wanting to modify that picture a bit. On the other side of what I'm saying, we do frequently recall things just fine. It's not some titanic struggle at all times. We know things, as persons, not only as institutions.
So where you say
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I agree here. I've fallen into the philosopher's trap of overgeneralizing to take care of a conceptual bump. There is institutional knowledge, which I think fits the notion of correspondence, but then there's what we actually do and what we learn when learning how to do, which I'm less inclined to believe fits correspondence, but which I don't want to deny either.
So I don't think I could entirely get rid of the category of knowledge as applied to persons, now that you mention that as a possible consequence of my own thoughts. That's definitely worth avoiding if we can.
But, to go for the Hail Mary of all Hail Mary's, in order to spell out an understanding of said knowledge I bet we'd need our sentences to be able to be true. :D
The ethical concerns regarding proper treatment of others in discourse aside, I spelled out a similar distaste for the idea to @Banno earlier in the thread. I think the author's onto something, but I think it's an insufficiently procedural description to actually get at how people can triangulate to a common understanding, or at least refine an area of disagreement, through reference to shared phenomena (interpreted under theory ladened aspect and spoken about in a theory ladened language with different emphasis on terms between people). I don't generally like this argument pattern, but I will use it here; it'd be a bloody miracle that any sort of triangulation could happen at all if there wasn't something "truthy" or representative about semantic content, and of necessity that has to be sufficiently shareable to count as such.
This is probably another thread to pull on separate from the more concrete analysis Srap and Moliere are doing. How many layers of metaphilosophy are we on now?
Quoting Moliere
Another spitball from the side, maybe memory is a central concept because it taps into a bodily process which imbues agents with repeatable dispositions toward things. There's a resonance with an analysis of belief which treats it as a "tendency to act as if" (@Isaac), which (very broad strokes) is a pragmatic stance on the connection between what is expressed and what the expression concerns. If you want to know what is expressed, look at the behavioural commitments it imbues in someone.
Whether someone needs to actually do a behavioural (including cognitive) commitment of a belief to count as believing that belief (eg, whether the tendency to act as if ever actually needs to be enacted...) seems a different issue; and maybe there's where statements, as a model, come into it. It's a very clear cut case that someone will believe something if they are willing to assert it.
But, and this is a big but, the focus on belief has a solipsistic connotation I feel in this context. The majority of our beliefs tend to be approximately correct, and in that regard somehow count as knowledge of the real world.
In that regard two more definite paths have been fleshed out here, I think, one is the broadly idealist (transcendetal though) Kantian move @Isaac makes where it's beliefs all the way down and modelling reality is the same thing as putting a filter on it; everything we know and experience lives on "our side" of the filter. The other is a mirror image; Davidson's actually quite similar to this, only the filter is ever expanding and has a tendency toward monopoly over all expression and interpretation (@Banno), which means there's no point of talking about the other side of the filter, so what's the point in even having a filter as an object? I believe the former finds a lack of access to un-modelled reality a necessary consequence of the existence of a filter due to how interpretation works. The latter finds direct access to modelled reality a necessary consequence of the mutuality of the filter, and thus finds no better account of the filter than the variations of a shared environment. Despite being very opposite positions, both can make the move that any other position is speaking about things which are unintelligible, due to placing different conditions for the possibility of interpretation on the filter!
To my reckoning, neither account treats knowledge as a "first class mental state", it's derivative of belief. Perhaps some way forward would be to place accuracy, truth, correctness and so on in whatever process generates belief as a mediating factor. For example recognising a falsehood (you then know not-X is true), or learning you are able to pick up something you could not. Neither of those things speak about knowledge being something which lasts, however.
I suppose it could be said that the body knows constantly in those kinds of cases, and the knowing being conscious comes and goes. That would be one kind of way to characterize knowing that you know. So, then whether one would be said to know or not during the times when access to the information is not operative would become merely a matter of definition of the term 'know' and one's preference as to which definition to adopt.
Cheers for the Williamson book recommendation; I'll take a look if I can find the time.
Probably so. Honestly, it's like no one is convinced there's any such thing anymore.
For what it's worth, I wasn't thinking about knowledge when I started up my little model; I thought it was going to be more behavioral -- people, things, sentences, but I had been thinking about knowledge a lot, so what seemed natural to me eventually turned out to be more stuff about knowledge.
I'd love to see a similar sort of toy model that's beliefs all the way down, and doesn't include knowledge anywhere. What does that look like?
Quoting Luke
If the argument is that models don't work, then we have agreement.
Which of these is the no models view?
But seeing as how you have taken an interest here again, I'll throw in a quick link back to some of our other conversations.
It seems to me that the models being discussed here are not the models being discussed when talking about neural networks.
Specifically, the models here are symbolic, while the models of neural networks aren't.
Now I think that you will pretty much agree, and agree that the discussion that should be taking place is how symbolic representations emerge from neural networks.
But this is not understood by others, and without that common ground the conversation moves to accusations of insincerity.
My own approach is that truth belongs in the domain of intentional behaviour, of beliefs and attitudes, and has no direct analogue in the neural world, onto which it can be mapped. Something along the lines of Davidson's anomalism of the mental.
The theme that the same thing can have more than one description has arisen already in this thread, in the muddled attitude folk adopt to deciding if the kettle boiling is a fact or a sentence. The answer is "yes".
But the considerations are minute, and the circumstances for their consideration here not ideal.
Anyway...
The latter, there's no model in the sense that there's no mediation of contact between word and world via a "conceptual scheme", which is a system of organising experience that is specific to an individual and not parsable in terms of anything communal. I don't think people mean the same thing by "model" in this thread!
Despite the fact that you say:
Quoting fdrake
?
If you mean, why do I think knowledge is, at least relatively, persistent --- I'm not quite sure what to say. I could say (a) it's part of our concept of knowledge for it to be persistent (not my favorite argument) or (b) there's an embarrassment of evidence that knowledge persists, for varying durations, certainly, but it's not ephemeral like perception; and maybe (a) derives from (b).
Are you a citizen only when you're showing your passport? Do you know how to ride a bike only while you're actually on a bike? Do you know your mother's name only when you're using it in a sentence?
In the example I gave -- which of course isn't quite knowledge of where Tim is but knowledge of where he said he was going -- I came to know what he said when I heard him say it; it's least committal I guess to say that I then inferred his intentions, and made further inferences about where he'd be later, and so on. Then I forget. Then I remember. For the latter, I would have to learn what Tim said from my memory of what he said, in order for me to create a new instance of knowing what he said.
Okay, that's interesting, and we could talk about how remembering and hearing in the first place might be compromised in similar or different ways, both episodes being theory-laden, both to some degree confabulations, whatever you'd like to say there.
Except, remember that by stipulation I don't know what he said, so what am I remembering? If I recreate his words from something, what is that something? I don't mean that as question for neuroscientists; it can obviously be that too, but for us, it needs to be something that's capable of engendering knowledge. That's the whole point of this, to say that there are these separate instances of knowledge and I create a new one when I need it. How do I do that?
Quoting Isaac
I'm not seeing that.
Quoting Isaac
What I have in mind is more that the house is a construct of our interaction.
My objection is to the theory that we each have a private, intentional model of the house, which we set out in words and then verbalise. That objection is the common one found in Wittgenstein's private language argument (@Sam26).
This is not to say that we do not have a model of the house in terms of some weighting of neural patterns. Perhaps we do; while a very interesting issue in its own right, that is secondary in this context.
I think Davidson's argument against conceptual schema is in line with the private language argument. After all if there are no private languages there are also no private models.
But a better way of expressing this is to say that there are no models at all, just the publicly constructed world in which our forms of life occur.
All of which should not suggest that we cannot publicly construct models. We do so, in some of the language games within our form of life.
And all of this appears to be at a symbolic level sitting somewhere on top of our various neural networks.
Searle goes a long way towards explaining how this comes about, using iterations of "X counts as Y in Z", in which social institutions are seen as language constructs.
There's an outline; there is much to discuss in the detail.
Yes. I appreciate that was badly written. There's a model in the sense that there are individual interpretations of a single in principle shareable reality, there aren't models in that account in the sense that models are needed to interface with the world.
I think it's a different sense of model from what Isaac meant, from what Banno's using, from that the RHS of the T-sentence is, from the sense that Srap's comments feature a toy model and so on. There are a lot of model words with different meanings flying around the thread.
I think the continued use of a visual example is misleading. It unwittingly authorises the myth of subjective interpretation.
I chose the alternate example, whether the fence is wood or brick, as better suited to the task in hand; it's more obviously not just a question of opinion.
It's easy to say that the door's being white or green is a question of mere opinion; but harder to do that with the fence.
I suggest re-working your examples with fences instead of colours, to see how it makes a difference.
My suspicion is that @Janus, and @Luke, see knowledge as a private construct. I commend adopting a strategy that shows the public nature of justification.
The temptation will be for folk to confuse justification with truth, again. There's a good chance of the thread going off in another circle.
There's a story that the Columbia Pictures was going to hype up the release of a sequel to Groundhog Day, then just present the original, again.
So it goes.
What youve presented as Davidsons view above strikes me as our shared language being the model of reality. I thought that was why you intentionally referred to a modelled reality, rather than it being poorly expressed. I still would not consider this as a no models view. There remains a reality independent of our linguistic model which could resist and not conform to our model in some ways.
I don't share your allergy to all things mental.
The Revision theory, discussed in some other posts, appears to offer a way to map out the circularity of the T-sentence definition of Truth. Rather than reject notions of truth as circular, Hans Herzberger and Anil Gupta develop formal methods of dealing with circularity that show where it becomes pathological, and where it doesn't. So the Liar is found to be pathological, while the T-sentence is consistent.
https://www.jstor.org/stable/4545102?seq=1
@Michael - you may find this interesting.
When one opposes a view that is ubiquitous, it can appear that one is taking an extreme view.
I don't oppose the mental. I just do not suppose it to be confined to the inside of people's heads.
What use is a justification that is private? A private justification, like a private rule, becomes mere habit.
I agree, if there wasn't some outward manifestation of the mental, then what would a mental life entail? Even if we exclude language, what's mental would have to seep out in some outward act (linguistic or otherwise). The mental, in order for us to call it mental, has to manifest itself in some way. We could say the same thing for what it means for something to be conscious.
Thought you might.
What do you think of the link, if any, to Davidson's rejection of conceptual schema? Davidson's strategy seems to me to be showing that conceptual schema, if they exist, must be private; but that leads to their being incoherent, unintelligible. Hence, he rejects the notion.
I like that -- especially the word "opinion" there -- but I doubt I'll continue. Far as I can tell, people were only ((or at least mostly)) reading what I wrote to see what conclusion I reached so they could agree or disagree with it. I mean, sure, philosophy traffics in abstractions, but I really hoped I could engage people at the level of a concrete scenario we could look at closely together. But I seem to be the only one interested in such a procedure.
Oh really? You should be more clear with your questions, I didn't get that out of it at all. The point was that associating "truth" with utility renders truth as the means to the end. The end is what is wanted, the goal. Therefore truth becomes whatever it is which successfully gets a person what is wanted. Often, deception successfully gets one what is wanted. Therefore deception may be truth.
Quoting Isaac
Yes, that sums it up nicely. First, we are taught that truthfulness is a good and honourable thing. But, if from childhood, we also learn that "truth" is used in the pragmatic way, such that truth is the means for achieving one's goals, then the means to the end are always good and honourable, and there are no bad, or dishonourable means. We will then go about our lives deceiving people, believing that we are being truthful, good and honourable people, telling the truth, because we honestly believe that this is what "truth" is. We were taught that this is what truth is. And a person who honestly believes that what they are doing is right, is much more difficult to rehabilitate, and prevent from doing what they are doing, than one who believes that what they are doing is wrong, feels guilt, and wants rehabilitation. So, by giving people free reign to deceive without guilt, by using "truth" in this way, we enable them to deceive us.
Quoting Sam26
The mental manifests outwardly in many different ways, artefacts, bird's nests, beaver dams, etc.. However, the question as to whether the mental depends on an outward manifestation, for its very existence, is not so easily answered. That's the thorny issue. Experience shows me that the intent to act is prior to the act itself, therefore the mental is prior to its outward expression. So, the mental, if prior to its outward expression, cannot be dependent on the outward expression. And this is why the issue is thorny. Being independent from its outward expression, means that there is no necessary relationship between the mental and its outward manifestation. The outward manifestation therefore does not necessarily provide a reliable representation of the mental. That's the problem, and why dishonesty may be allowed to thrive.
Indeed. If one looks at groups which cohere and those which don't, a shared common goal is often cited as a feature of those that do. The obvious reason being that members then have to weigh up the cost of their dispute against the cost of the goal being frustrated and limit it only to that which seriously risks missing that goal. I think in philosophy there's simply too little at stake in terms of outcome (allowing any small perceived inconsistency to be exploited), but too much at stake in terms of personal narratives to want to give much leeway. These matters ('truth' perhaps being one of the biggest in this sense) are like the themes of the book we are the heroes in. They frame the plot and the characters and so can change a lot about our storylines in one go. But being our stories, there's no need to get it done which outweighs the need to get it just so. It's not like we're building a house.
There's way more politics in philosophy than anyone cares to admit.
Quoting fdrake
Ha! I make it at least six. If we get to ten we get a prize.
Quoting fdrake
I brought this up earlier. I think we need to consider the functionality of expressions more than their content. We can understand others even when they mess up their words, we almost know what they mean to say, and I think this is because their expressions have a purpose, which we can intuit from the circumstances. That all being just a set-up to say that asserting something is a behaviour. I think even deliberate mental acts can be construed as behaviours in some contexts. Imagine someone who believes in telepathy. How would they act on that belief? They'd really really concentrate on the message they want to send. Funny thing is though, I bet they'd scrunch their eyes up too. Even the telepathic it seems can't escape the behavioural nature of communication!
Quoting fdrake
...and also
I like this. I always think that @Banno and I are saying much the same thing but from a different perspective. The thing we agree on is the lack of anything Cartesian-theatre-like. We can either remove that by focussing on the the shared world and 'black-box' -ing the mechanisms, or we can do that by showing how the mechanisms fully encompass the variability people are tempted to explain by Cartesian-like moves such as 'viewing' models, or saying that all we ever 'see' are representations. I think the only difference is that in the former case, the hidden states which are modelled (neural models), simply drop out of the conversation, as being unnecessary. In the latter case, they are needed, but only as part of the meta-model of the mechanism.
Quoting fdrake
I think one of the problems with 'knowledge' is that is has no neural correlate, so it doesn't really have a place in the second model (the one which uses the whole mechanisms of perception and beliefs).
I don't have any trouble with a neural correlate for beliefs - "tendency to act as if", seems to work. If your neural network has a tendency to act as if X then we can say it has a belief that X. It's a bit of a bastardisation, but I think it's not too unfair to the proper meaning.
But 'knowledge' and 'truth'...? I think if I was forced to put it somewhere, I might distinguish declarative memory from other sorts and say that we could attach the term to those, but, to be honest, that's a cop out because the only reason that works is because declarative memory is the kind of thing we can declare, still thinking of the social function of the term. 'Truth' probably fits best as a kind of Peircean pragmatism, but I'm not really happy with that and would far rather say that it has no neural correlate at all.
So yeah, I have a hard time seeing knowledge, truth and correctness as having any role at all internally. I think they play social roles. We use the terms in social interactions to refer to verbal expressions of belief (of the neural sort), for various functions - mostly getting other people to do stuff they wouldn't otherwise do without the persuasive force of 'truth', or 'knowledge'.
I had a little think about your thoughts on knowledge, which I at first rejected, but on consideration there might be something to it.
When folk talk about knowledge in these fora they usually mean knowing that, and forget about knowing how. I've previously suggested that knowing that is one aspect of knowing how. That is, propositional knowledge is a type of procedural knowledge.
And procedural knowledge is just the capacity for certain behaviours.
SO there may be some scope for considering procedural knowledge as preceding or anterior to propositional knowledge, and hence truth.
Ah, maybe I'm mistaken then. It seems that you say on the one hand that we'd have no basis for our agreement that the models were both 'of the neighbourhood' without a shared model, and then say that because of this we actually do have a shared model. We could, could we not, simply proceed without having any justification? We don't have to have a shared model, just because without one we'd be unable to justify our agreement that the conflicting models are both 'of the neighbourhood. We could just agree they are anyway?
Quoting Banno
Ah! I should have read on. That makes much more sense to me. Still, I'll leave the above by way of explanation.
Quoting Banno
Yes. I think we (or maybe just I) need to start talking in terms of neural-models and social-models. The two are quite distinct. Neither are much like a model as in 'a model car'.
I see the social model as a set of agreements which constitute 'the world'. That this is a kettle, that is a table...and so on. In neural terms, we're agreeing on what it is we're neural-modelling.
We do so to minimise surprise, so we can have reliable expectations of how other people will behave. The link then between our neural models and our social model is that the latter is an attempt to maintain some intersocial reliability in our use of the former, but in doing this trick, we turn our neural models into a radically different type of thing. Not to mention the fact that I don't think we do any of this consciously...
It's simply advantageous if your neural-model of the kettle is the same as mine. Then we can make tea together. So I take your actions toward the kettle as information updating my priors about it (and vice versa). Again, all subconscious. Our language about kettles, I think, is just an efficient way of achieving the same task.
Quoting Banno
Yeah. So this idea of a private model would be the equivalent of creating the social-type model, but keeping it to yourself. Yet the only purpose of the social-type model is intersocial cooperation. So what would be the point? All one would be doing, I think, is taking a social model and playing 'what if...?' with it.
Quoting Isaac
This might need clarification. If I've understood, there need be no homomorphic similarity between the neural nets of two individuals. The point is not that the networks are similar, but that their output - in this case, the behaviour of dealing with kettles - meshes. And I'll use "meshes" rather than "is the same", since I'll boil the kettle and make the tea but you can be Mother.
And this fits in with the mention of knowledge, in my reply to @Srap Tasmaner, above. You and I both know how to ride a bike, but the proof of this has nothing to do with our having similar neural paths in our brains, and everything to do with not falling off. We also both know that eight is four time two, and again this is to do with our capacity to count eggs and buttons and to share pizza slices and not with our having the same patterns of firing neurones.
Which is not to say that there may not indeed be patterns in that firing. This is the "anomalous" bit in anomalous monism.
The interesting part of the work your compatriots are doing is determining the extent to which our neural patterns do match.
Yes, that's exactly it. My bad expression to blame for the lack of clarity there.
Quoting Banno
Yep, absolutely. Knowing things is a social game of comparisons in our shared world, we don't look into each other's brains to find out, not even by proxy, as you say, we might well find nothing whatsoever similar. Just to add even more grist to that mill. The bit of our brain that some might claim 'knows' how to ride a bike today might well not even be the same bit that 'knows' it tomorrow. Most neural nets have a lot of redundancy and carry out multiple functions. Hence my focus on behaviour, rather than concepts. I rather see concepts as post hoc. Something we use after the event to help us understand why that situation just lead to that behaviour. But that may be too behaviourist for most tastes.
Well there's our first mistake then. 'Honesty' is the good and honourable thing. 'Truthfulness' is a game used to convince people your beliefs are better than theirs. Often honourable, often not.
Music to mine ears. In the past I've gone further and argued that concepts are things we do, not mental furniture. The number 1 is not a thing so much as a pattern of behaviour. Same for democracy and even London.
Don't look to the meaning, look to the use.
Bit boring for everyone else when we agree though!
Quoting Banno
Yes, that works as far as my model (scientific model - going to start specifying from now on) of cognition goes. A concept might be recognised by the repeated pattern of behaviours. Like all the apples on the table are real, but the set {all the apples on the table} isn't an additional thing in the room. It's a façon de parler.
There are, interestingly, a lot of quite strong correlations between identifiable areas of the brain (even down to specific neurons) and certain concepts, but I still agree that it's not right to talk of them as somehow containing or representing those concepts because alone they don't cause anything we'd recognise as such. It's more that they're consistently involved in producing that behaviour. That makes them super useful for us studying that behaviour, but not particularly important when it comes to understanding the social psychology of it where the other bits of the brain involved are far more enlightening. Like "oh look, the language centres are lighting up every time he tries to solve this maths puzzle" is far more enlightening than "oh look, the 'democracy' neuron fires every time he thinks of democracy" which is almost just tautological once you've accepted the idea of such neurons.
What such 'grandmother neurons' might show is that we internally cluster several otherwise distinct behavioural patterns, but again, these clusters can only ever loosely correlate with public notions such as 'democracy' because a private concept makes no sense.
It still has to be explained how the T-sentence is a definition of truth.
1. "p" is foo iff p
(1) isn't a definition of "foo". (1) only states the condition under which "p" is foo. And so too with the T-sentence: prima facie it only states the condition under which "p" is true; it doesn't define "[is] true".
As I mentioned before, Tarski didn't think of the T-sentence as being a definition of truth, only as something that must be entailed by the definition of truth. You've responded several times by saying that it is later authors who have taken the T-sentence as being a definition, so perhaps you could present their arguments to that effect?
I would say we're looking for some q where "[is] true" means q, or where "'p' is true" means q.
There's the nub.
I'll refer you to the discussion of definitions in the article cited. From about p.242 it discusses exactly this.
You should be able to read it online for free. Might need to create an account.
It seems to be saying the same thing that I said:
Just as my example of "p" is foo iff p defines the conditions under which a sentence is foo. But the T-schema doesn't define "[is] true" and my F-schema doesn't define "[is] foo".
If we want a definition of truth (and not just a definition of truth conditions) we need some q where "[is] true" means q, or where "'p' is true" means q. Ramsey's redundancy theory is at least one attempt at this.
I don't see any sense in your proposal, to separate "honest" from "honourable" (considering the family resemblance), such that being honest might often not be an honourable thing. I suppose that since there is no logical necessity to these relations, there might be a few instances when being honest is not honourable, but I would not say "often not", as you did.
So I'll dismiss your reply as not a serious attempt to address the issue. In fact, I would classify it as a dishonest attempt. To characterize the problem I described, as a problem with associating "honest" with "honourable" (saying that being honest might not be the honourable thing), instead of facing that problem I described, to deal with it properly, is just a dishonest denial of the problem.
Do you know the type of dishonesty I'm talking about? If someone shows you a bad habit of yours, which has a bad effect in the work place for example, and you rationalize the bad effect as the result of someone else's actions rather than as the effect of your own bad habit, in an attempt to avoid addressing your own bad habit. That's the kind of dishonesty I'm talking about here. Instead of directly addressing the problem I described, you are trying to characterize it as the result of something else.
Quoting Isaac
This is exactly the type of correlation which I described as problematic. The existence of dishonesty demonstrates very conclusively that "the tendency to act as if X", cannot be correlated directly with "has a belief that X". And so, as I described in the following passage, the outward manifestation does not provide a dependable representation of the mental "belief'.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Quoting Banno
This provides a good example of the disconnect between the outward manifestation, and the inner "mental". If we look at numerous people who know how to ride a bike, we really cannot make any conclusions about any particular "beliefs" which are involved with this activity. Each person learned under different circumstances, and so has different mental correlations involved.
Now, someone like Creative would state that a child will not touch a fire, so this behaviour demonstrates a certain "belief". But this is just a reflection of how we generalize similar behaviours. We observe human beings behaving in similar ways, so we posit a common "belief" which is responsible for such similar behaviour. But that's really just a naive over simplification. Each individual human being is particular, and unique, having learned one's "how to" under circumstances distinct from every other human being.
However, we see great benefit in conforming these particular circumstances of learning, creating institutions like schools, which provide similarity in learning circumstances. So this indicates that there is some sort of correlation between the process of learning, and the mental capacity which is developed through the learning. From this, we can say that there is some sort of similarity in the mental capacity of two distinct individuals who know how to do the same thing (ride a bike), but to conclude that these people share "beliefs" associated with this activity is not justified by this. There is a similarity in mental activity, not a similarity in belief.
The further problem, is that when we create a definition of "belief", and validly talk about beliefs, there is likewise a disconnect between the belief and the mental activity. So it can be true that two people have the same belief, but this does not necessitate that they have the same mental activity associated with that belief.
Not any proposal I've made, that.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Are you having problems at work? If you need to talk to someone...
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Why's that?
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Really? Not the belief that bikes are for riding? The belief that one sits on the saddle and pushes the pedals? That the brakes are for stopping? ... We've no idea at all what beliefs people might have?
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Why? Not all Oak trees are the same, that doesn't suddenly raise problems with us deciding that some trees are more similar to each other and calling that group 'Oaks'. But knowing you I expect you've got some problem with that too.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Who said anything about it 'necessitating' it? It's not necessary to call some trees Oaks, we just do.
Small-t truth I've been reserving for the truth we attribute to sentences, which is shown by the T-sentence -- the truth predicate can be dropped when using a sentence, and is added to a sentence under consideration. We come to understand small-t truth by learning the language in which said predicate is a part of.
Big-T truth I've been reserving for the substantive theories of truth, or even bigger picture notions that are sometimes equated with Truth -- such as the story of Jesus this thread began with.
Quoting Isaac
At our worst, yes.
Especially among us amateurs and enthusiasts.
The only "carrot" in the conversation, as far as I can see, is being able to expand one's own thoughts by hearing others. But we all have something invested in these stories so it can be easy to forget that.
That's a good summation.
Davidson points to Kuhn s paradigms as examples of conceptual schemes, and so Kuhn included in his argument that, as you put it, there's no point of talking about the other side of the filter, so what's the point in even having a filter as an object?
But Kuhns paradigms arent specific to individuals, and they arent dependent on theoretical models either. A shared paradigm doesnt require a shared theoretical
model, since it has to do primarily with intercorrelated practices. It seems to me the real difference between Davidson and Kuhn has to do with Davidsons assumption ( I may have this wrong) that two people receiving the same stimulus must have the same sensation, which justifies his belief that a translator is always able to describe the world to which the language being translated applies.
while nomological relations between events (relations involving laws) depend on the descriptions
under which the events are given, relations of causality and identity obtain irrespective of descriptions if the
icing-up of the road did indeed cause the skid, then it did so no matter how the events at issue are described.
(The form of description whether mental or physical is thus irrelevant to the fact that a particular causal
relation obtains). (Stanford Encyclopedia)
Kuhn believes instead that our perceptions are thoughgoingly interpretively mediated, so we begin from multiple stimulus driven worlds.
Thanks. So, small-t might fit with the sort of use that amounts to statements about the world, Ramsey-like redundancy. Where to say "p is true" is simply to assert p?
Your big-t truth might more like Ramsey's 'problems in the vicinity'. More about the nature of belief than truth as a predicate?
Quoting Moliere
Yes, if they're told well. Philosophical positions are like pieces of music. Worth curating, but you have to be in the right mood to listen to each one.
Yup! The only thing I've asserted against the redundancy theory is the liar's paradox, since it gives the value false in addition to true -- and noted that while it's an interesting paradox, I don't think it counts against redundancy since it counts against every theory of truth: it's basically a wash, in terms of which theory to believe, since they all have answers to the liar's paradox -- and furthermore I think it's a bit of a feature of language more than something substantively interesting. But, still, good to note that particular riddle.
As for Ramsey, I can't claim to have read him. But encounters with the people on this forum and thinking through their thoughts have shifted my beliefs.
Quoting Isaac
True. Or, have the mental energy for it.
Though these days I think I'm more partisan than a curator would be. Curating is important, but eventually one has to commit.
Quoting Banno
Well, if you believe that Wittgenstein's point about a private language is well-founded, then it would follow that Davidson is correct to reject the notion of a private conceptual schema. It would be incoherent and unintelligible.
It seems to me to be like supposing that a form of life could be private.
I agree. If forms of life could be private, then so could language. To say that language can't be private, is to say that forms of life can't be private.
If one supposes that there are various, discreet forms of life, then one might be tempted to suppose them to be incommensurate. Something like that seems to sit with the lion comment.
But if forms of life were incommensurate, would we recognise them to be forms of life? It seems that in order to recognise certain behaviours as a form of life, we have to recognise the parallels with our own form of life. The language, practices and values of a form of life must be recognised as such in order for us to recognise a form of life.
So it seems that forms of life cannot the totally incommensurate, one to the other.
The interesting question then arrises as to the extent to which forms of life might differ, yet remain recognisable as forms of life.
This of course raises the question of relativism in Wittgenstein. Some suppose that the truth of any proposition is dependent on the form of life against which the proposition is set. But if, as argued above, in order to recognise some other form of life as such we must recognise some aspects of that form of life, then it follows that there are propositions that are true for both the other form of life and our own. To say that forms of life are recognisable as such is to say that they are commensurable, that they share common truths.
Hence, truth cannot be entirely relative to form of life.
I don't see our "forms of life" as being incommensurate, but as having a family resemblance. Although, with the lion example, I do see it as being incommensurate. We don't share much in common with a lion's form of life, which is why we wouldn't understand a lion if it could talk.
Quoting Banno
I'm not sure if we would have to recognize our own form of life in order to understand an account of forms of life in general. Wouldn't that be the same as saying, in order to understand a concept, I'd have to understand my own account of concept? We seem to understand what a form of life is, only after understanding forms of life in general, as is what happens with concepts.
Quoting Banno
I agree. There are some aspects of our forms of life that may not be commensurate, just as there are some aspects of games that aren't commensurate. However, there must be something in common, like the commensurability of the concept game. They share incommensurability and commensurability, both can be true at the same time, but not in the same way.
I don't know, is that as clear as mud?
That's not quite the argument. Rather, one could only recognise another form of life from within ones own, and by seeing that some aspects of the other form of life matched one's own.
IF we are to recognise another form of life then we must recognise some shared aspects.
When you say, "...one could only recognize another form of life from within one's own," are you using the phrase "from within one's own," as a private matter, or something broader, to include our forms of life generally as persons?
With the clarification, I believe I agree with this. It seems that we would recognize the forms of life of animals, right? There has to be something in common?
It seems so. The difference between animals and ourselves is that they do not have access to institutional structures such as language. In this regard our form of life is much richer.
So do we agree that at least some truths are not relative to a from of life?
There is a difference between truth being relative to you personally, as opposed to truth being relative to a language. Truth can be relative to a form of life, for e.g. bishops move diagonally, but it can also be dependent on facts separate from our forms of life. Some forms of life (other than our own) exclude the use of concepts, so there would be no common truths, but probably common beliefs.
I think we agree, but I'm not entirely sure.
Can you give an example of a "truth being relative to you personally"? Do you have in mind a preference for vanilla?
I'm also bothered by "facts separate from our forms of life". I'm not sure wha they might be.
And "Some forms of life (other than our own) exclude the use of concepts" - is this the observation that some forms of life exclude concepts found in others, or something else?
Yes, my preference for vanilla is a truth relative to me.
Quoting Banno
Well, the concept fact is relative to our forms of life, but what the facts sometimes refer to are things separate from our forms of life. For example, the Earth having one moon is not dependent on our forms of life.
Quoting Banno
It includes the forms of life that exclude certain concepts, but it also includes forms of life that exclude language, at least language that is as complex as our own.
The lion is an eater of flesh as many of us are. The lion is active sometimes and rests at others. The lion sleeps and perhaps even dreams. The lion seems to enjoy playing sometimes and cares for the young. The lion copulates. In all its vital features of life the lion does not seem so different to us.
I never understood that saying of Wittgenstein's, that we would not understand the lion if it could speak, to make any sense. If it did not speak English or a language we are familiar enough with, then of course we would not understand it, just as we don't understand anything spoken in an unfamiliar language. If the lion spoke in a familiar language, then why would we not understand it?
Ya, I could have worded that better. There are things that are incommensurate, but things that are also commensurate. So, both of these concepts apply.
Quoting Janus
The assumption is that the world of a lion is different enough, i.e., it's ability to think and use concepts would be so different from our own, that understanding the lion would be a great challenge, if we could understand at all. That's my take.
A powerful philosophical statement.
Kuhn's paradigms are certainly theoretical models, if theory is taken to be the propositions held to be true by the paradigm. As if the Copernican paradigm did not theorise that the Earth moves.
Further, Davidson points not just to Kuhn, including Whorf, Quine, Bergson. Feyerabend, Lakatos, Musgrave... all quite theoretical.
Quoting Joshs
Interesting. Davidson would presumably hold that two folk would overwhelmingly agree as to their beliefs, following the Principle of Charity. That's not at all the same as supposing that they have the same sensations. The commonality of belief is what justifies translation.
Quoting Joshs
...as does Davidson.
Right, but then that raises two questions; firstly do thinking and using concepts require language? If the answer is yes, then presumably if the lion were able to speak English then she would be able to think and use concepts in the ways that English enables her to.
The other question is as to whether animals are able to think and use concepts at all, If the answer is 'yes' then perhaps it would follow that the ability to acquire language relies on the ability to think and use concepts, in which case the lion would never, if her thinking and concepts are so different, be able to acquire the ability to speak English. Personally, I don't believe a lion's thoughts would be so different to our own. I think human exceptionalism is way overblown.
I think both are right: that is, we do think of knowledge as relatively persistent, and also that it is not as ephemeral as perception. But then the salient qualification is "relatively".
Generally, if we know how to do something, we don't forget it so quickly. I used to know how to play the 'Moonlight Sonata', but I haven't kept up practicing it, so now I can remember only the first ten bars or so (strange that I generally seem to remember the early, and not the later, parts of pieces I have forgotten how to play the whole of).
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I don't see the "citizen" example as being relevant given it is not about knowledge, but about how one might be classified. As for the others: I know how to ride a bike if I can get on one and ride it, and I know my mother's name if I can use it in a sentence.
I would say that if I had forgotten my mother's name temporarily, then for that temporal period, I did not know her name, even if I could be said to have the potential to know it, since it would likely come to me soon enough. But as I said before, I think this is a matter of definition more than anything else.
One reason I'm not so fond of the idea of meaning as use, is that use is vast and possibly diverse, and we each may have our own different ideas or impressions of what "standard" usage is. That said I'm OK with the idea that meaning is shown by use because that can be perfectly consistent with there being different meanings of terms, and disagreements about those meanings, since there may be different usages.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
What you are driving at here is not so clear to me. Could you add some flesh to the bones, or give an example to make it clearer?
.
I know how to ride a bike, and I don't think I've ever held the belief that bikes are for riding, or the belief that one sits on the saddle and pushes the peddles. Nor was I ever taught these beliefs when I learned to ride a bike. It was demonstrated to me how to do it, and I was given guidance and assistance. Now, I just jump on the bike and go. Sorry to disappoint you, but I've never accepted these beliefs, and I am being very honest. You might ask me now, if I believe in those things, and I could consider them, and give you an honest answer. But that would be after the fact. I haven't considered those particular questions before now, so I've never made those judgements nor developed those beliefs.
Those trivial, mundane things are not the type of thing that I believe in. When I want to go, I just jump on the bike and it goes. and when I want to slow down I grip the brakes. without actually believing in things like chains, sprockets, and gears, handle bars and seats, etc.. Just like when I want to walk, I don't rely on beliefs about the capacity of my legs to hold me, or their ability to move me.
And when I get in my car, I do this without believing in the roles of driveshafts and transmissions, flywheels, crankshafts, cam shafts, connecting rods, pistons, and numerous parts which I can't even name. I can't even honestly assert that I hold the belief that turning the key will start the engine. I just turn the key, with the expectation that the engine will start, anticipating. Sometimes it doesn't start and I'm left disappointed. Then, when I have trouble with the car, I might develop the belief that turning the key will not start it. That's very odd because I never developed the belief that turning the key would start the car, it's just something I learned how to do. But when it doesn't work, I'm quick to develop the belief that it doesn't work. And that belief is what reminds me not to do what I was previously in the habit of doing (turning the key for the purpose of starting the car). So the belief is used as a reminder for me, when activities which I normally engage in habitually, without associated beliefs, are not working properly. I need to use the belief to deter me from trying to do something which my intuition says ought to work, but I've found out, actually will not work. I use the belief to counteract my intuition.
Quoting Isaac
I said that different people observed to be acting in a similar way does not produce the conclusion that they have a similar belief. Now you come up with something about naming similar trees. That is not relevant. I wasn't talking about naming the similar acts, like we name similar trees, I was talking about the assumption that there is a similar belief associated with those similar acts.
For example, many things will fall if dropped from a height, due to the force of gravity. We would never conclude that since these things act in a similar way, they must hold a similar belief. Nor would we conclude that plants which grow in a similar way hold similar beliefs. So why would we conclude that if different people act in similar ways they must hold similar beliefs?
Is an expectation not a kind of believing? Is there a salient difference?
Yes of course, there is a big difference. To expect is to think of a future event, that it is likely. A belief is a strong conviction concerning what is.
That's your definition of those terms. Mine is different: I'd say to expect something will happen is to believe it will happen. Of course, if in the moment you consciously thought about it you would realize there is a chance that when you turn the key the engine will not start. In that case you might not be said to believe it will happen, but that it is likely, or more likely than not, to happen.
I would say the same about your expectation: after such conscious consideration of the possibilities you would not expect that it will happen, but expect that it is more likely to happen than not. So, I'm not seeing much, if any difference between the meanings and implications of the two terms 'belief' and 'expectation'.
This is the value of introspection. It allows us to make these distinctions such as the difference between an expectation and a belief. Sure, we can simply define then as having the same meaning, but then we need to come up with different terms to describe the differences which are very real within us.
Look at the difference I described, instead of trying to make the difference go away. To expect is an attitude toward the future. A belief is an attitude toward what is, and that implies at the present. If you do not like the terms used, "expect" and "belief", perhaps they bring unnecessary baggage, then we can just talk about the different attitudes without laying any names on them. The distinct attitudes are one toward what will happen in the future, and the other toward what is the case, now. We could add another distinct attitude toward what happened in the past.
The point is, that in learning how to ride a bike, or knowing how to ride a bike, we do not rely on the attitude directed toward what is the case, now. We rely on an attitude concerning what will happen, in the future, if we perform a specific act, and proceed in that way. Do you agree that there is a distinction to be made between the attitude toward what is the case , now, and the attitude toward what will happen, in the future.
I guess it depends how you define human exceptionalism. It seems to me that all you have to do is look at what we accomplish, in areas of science, or in other areas of study, as compared to what other animals accomplish. The way we interact with the world is generally far more complex. This isn't to say that animals aren't more advanced in some areas, but if you look at the overall picture, humans generally will outperform an animal in terms of what we can accomplish.
I would call the passage from ignorance to knowledge learning. You learned your mother's name from her or from someone else who knew it. On your usage, by remembering you would learn your mother's name (again) from someone (yourself) who doesn't know it.
I think what you call a "potential to know" is what the rest of us call trying to remember something you do know. The idea that you might be able to remember something you do not know, is puzzling.
Did you come up with this usage of "know" yourself?
1. Correspondence (science)
2. Coherence (math)
3. Pragmatic (religion)
Quoting Michael
As Michael noted, Tarski didn't think of the T-sentence as being a definition of truth and, I'd add, neither was his actual definition of truth circular. Here's Tarski's comments from his 1944 paper:
Quoting The Semantic Conception of Truth: and the Foundations of Semantics - Alfred Tarski, 1944
For example, consider a model [*] where there are a set of objects including white snow. In that model, the sentential function "x is white" is satisfied by snow. Regular sentences, such as "snow is white", are special cases of sentential functions and are satisfied by all or no objects (for technical details, see Haack, p206-207). Thus truth (in a model) is defined in terms of satisfaction which, in turn, is defined in terms of inclusion in a set of objects.
--
[*] "... in his original paper, Tarski gives an absolute rather than a model-theoretic definition; 'satisfies' and hence 'true' is defined with respect to sequences of objects in the actual world, not with respect to sequences of objects in a model or 'possible world' (e.g. 'there is a city north of Birmingham' is true, absolutely, but false in a model in which the domain is, say, {London, Exeter, Birmingham, Southampton}" - Haack
Others have said otherwise.
It was, after all, a ways back.
Quoting Sam26
Can you describe sight and colour to a man born blind?
https://news.harvard.edu/gazette/story/2019/02/making-sense-of-how-the-blind-see-color/
Yes. On the old forum there was a blind poster named Maya. I think a few people tried to explain sight and colour to her but she said that she couldn't make any sense of it at all.
The subjective quality of visual (and other) experiences is private, but not "incoherent, unintelligible".
Sure. Bye.
Well worth a read. Apparently Davidson (much quoted here) used to have a term 'Ramsey Effect' for the revelation that one's new philosophical insight had actually already been discovered by Ramsey!
In seeking an answer to the question, what is truth, that passage says, in a modernized, which is to say, seriously overblown, manner, nothing effectively superior to the entry on pg 45.
Anthropology/psychology (satisfaction) to metaphysics (truth), is limestone/gypsum to a biscuit recipe.
My interest in this discussion has been whether truth remains recognisable once correspondence is jettisoned in favour of deflationism, and/or whether deflationism without correspondence can make sense of the notion of truth. I have attempted to argue that deflationism-without-correspondence leads to truth relativism. The discussion now appears to have moved on, so I thought I'd try and summarise my concerns.
I have not been alone in arguing against what @Banno presents above. My argument against it is that it collapses the distinction between sentence and world. It follows that there either is no world and propositions are true, or else there are no propositions and the world is true.
However, my concerns are based more in science (or my view of it as a layperson, at least). If the proposition "water boils at 100 degrees celsius" has no correspondence to the world, then it is true only because we (or most of us, or most experts) say that it's true, not because that's how the world is, or how water is. This proposition about the boiling point of water (at sea level) might nowadays be accepted as a kind of analytic truth, given that it is so well established, and therefore is more conducive to the deflationary view of truth. But what about less established truths at the edges of scientific research? What is the point of investigating the truth of the statement "three moons of our solar system contain water" if it's all just talk or opinion unmoored from the facts?
Since Wittgenstein has been mentioned, and the use theory of meaning is seen as being closely associated with deflationism, I find that this quote from PI shows that Wittgenstein may not have been the deflationist he is taken to be:
Some have rightly pointed out that not everything is a name and that not all words correspond to things in the world. I'll admit that this makes deflationism seem appealing. What I take issue with is deflationism as a wholesale rejection of correspondence. Maybe I'm alone in (mis)understanding deflationism in this way. I don't know.
Quoting Banno
I think most correspondence theorists (and others) understand the RHS to be a fact, too. When understood in this way, the truth bearer on the LHS of the T-sentence corresponds to the fact on the RHS of the T-sentence, or vice versa. In order to avoid correspondence, it seems necessary to argue either that the LHS and RHS are both sentences or are both boiling kettles.
Maybe a way to think on this is to say that there isn't always some material component to facts.
The abstractions are like this -- logical rules, arithmetic.
After all, you'd likely agree that "A or not-A" is true iff A or not-A, where A is a proposition. There are times where this rule is put to question, but generally speaking people see the sense of the proposition -- it's a tautology.
There's nothing material that corresponds to a tautology, though. And there's even possibly an infinite number of tautologies (depending on what the space of abstractions is -- something real or not).
As I see it, the deflationist is allowing for a wider interpretation of truth than the correspondence theorist, and it allows for things like abstractions to be true or propositions with empty-names to be true (or false) without the possible mystification/temptation of non-entity-entities.
And, in a way, you can just interpret the T-sentence as analytically spelling out what correspondence consists of -- I don't think these things are in opposition, per se, only that they can be read that way. In answer to your conclusion of your paragraph here, I'd say that the RHS is both a sentence and a kettle, and the LHS is a sentence.
I agree. What Im arguing against is the deflationary view that there is never any material component to facts; that facts are no more than language use.
Quoting Moliere
If theyre both sentences, then it is a tautology and tells us nothing. Otherwise, it is a correspondence (if true), is it not?
I think the suspicion is that the only way we'd be able to set out material facts is through language, and that's what the RHS is purportedly doing, but it's funny because we're really just imagining the scenario. It doesn't add anything, or say anything, when in addition to the T-sentence we have:
"The kettle is boiling" is true iff the kettle is boiling AND that the kettle is boiling is a material fact.
The latter meaning is already contained in an actual utterance, if one is a materialist or correspondence theorist. If one is an idealist, though --
"The kettle is boiling" is true iff the kettle is boiling AND the kettle in our intuition is boiling
Whether the kettle is material or ideal "drops out", regardless of the speaker -- the sentence works whether you append the metaphysical belief onto it or not. And, in fact, it'd be more confusing if we appended our metaphysical beliefs to our theories of truth because then we'd just be begging the question in favor of what we already believe (one motivation for developing truth sans-metaphysics is that it might allow us to actually talk metaphysics in a more productive way)
As far as I understand it, the deflationary view is that truth isn't a property, or if it is then it isn't a substantial property. The sentence "'snow is white' is true" is nothing more (or not much more) than the sentence "snow is white".
It doesn't say anything about whether or not snow being white is a material fact.
I am curious why naming plays no part in Tarski's T-sentence, as naming seems to affect the truth or falsity of the T-sentence itself. Am I missing something ?
The problem of naming
Tarski proposed:
The T-sentence - "snow is white" is true IFF snow is white.
A definition of truth can be obtained in a very simple way from that of another semantic notion, namely, of the notion of satisfaction.
Satisfaction is a relation between arbitrary objects and certain expressions called "sentential functions." These are expressions like "x is white,"
A sentence such as "snow is white" is true if in the sentential sentence "x is white", x is satisfied by snow.
200,000 years ago snow had not been named. Today, snow has been named, whether "white" in English or "schnee" in German. Therefore, there must have been a point in time when snow was named "snow", ie, what Kripke calls "baptised".
Although the right hand side of Tarski's biconditional is a metalanguage, as he uses the example of the object snow and the property white, for the moment consider a world whereby snow is white. In a world whereby snow is not white, or we consider the general T-sentence "P is Q" is true IFF R is S, the same problem of naming occurs.
Before naming snow as "snow" and white as "white"
As "white" didn't exist, in the sentential function "x is white", there is no x that satisfies "white", therefore "snow is white" can never be true.
After naming snow as "snow" and white as "white"
As snow has been named "snow" and white has been named "white", in the sentential function "x is white", x is always satisfied by snow. Therefore, "snow is white" is always true.
In summary, the T-sentence is false before snow had been named "snow" and white named "white". The T-sentence is always true after snow had been named "snow" and white named "white". IE, the T-sentence itself may be either true or false dependant upon how its parts have been named.
Do we all basically agree that we never get "outside" of language. Truth is a matter of comparing a statement to another statement?
Most of the time I live my life without saying anything. There's more to the world than just language. Those other things in the world are often what make a statement true.
It's just that we have a mystery box in the flowchart specifically regarding that last sentence. It looks like you've stepped out beyond the speaker and the world to affirm that this is what truth is.
I think you're happy with this mystery box. A number of philosophers from Nietzsche to Foucault weren't so happy with it.
Whats the mystery about it? That last sentence often refers to some non-linguistic thing in the world. Theyre the things we see and feel and eat.
Quoting Tate
Beyond the speaker but not beyond the world.
Quoting Banno
I tend to follow Joseph Rouses reading of Kuhn:
Paradigms should not be understood as beliefs (even tacit beliefs) agreed upon by community members, but instead as exemplary ways of conceptualizing and intervening in particular situations. Accepting a paradigm is more like acquiring and using a set of skills than it is like understanding and believing a statement.
Scientists USE paradigms rather than believing them. The use of a paradigm in research typically addresses related problems by employing shared concepts, symbolic expressions, experimental and mathematical tools and procedures, and even some of the same theoretical statements. Scientists need only understand how to use these various elements in ways that others would accept. These elements of shared practice thus need not presuppose any comparable unity in scientists beliefs about what they are doing when they use them.
Indeed, one role of a paradigm is to enable scientists to work successfully without having to provide a detailed account of what they are doing or what they believe about it. Kuhn noted that scientists
can agree in their identification of a paradigm without agreeing on, or even attempting to produce, a full interpretation or rationalization of it. Lack of a standard interpretation or of an agreed reduction to rules will not prevent a paradigm from guiding research .
I [once] conceived normal science as a result of a consensus among the members of a scientific community ... in order to account for the way they did research and, especially, for the unanimity with which they ordinarily evaluated the research done by others. ...What I finally realized ... was that no consensus of quite that kind was required. ...If [scientists] accepted a sufficient set of standard [problem solutions], they could model their own subsequent research on them without needing to agree about which set of characteristics of these examples made them standard, justified their
acceptance. (Kuhn 1977a, xviiixix)
The result of this recognition is to think of scientific communities as composed of fellow practitioners rather than of fellow believers.
So if a sentence is "the kettle is black", then presumably there's some nonlinguistic element which can render it true. If you say "the kettle is black" and I say "the kettle is not black" the truth of the matter is determined, not by language, but by the actual kettle and its actual colour? Is that what you mean?
Quoting Banno
Are there examples of certain forms of life being completely invisible to me? What about scientific conceptualizations of nature? Are these forms of life?
Isnt the history of science littered not just with reinterpretations or falsifications of earlier conceptual domains but of the production of entire domains that simply didnt exist for earlier eras?
One sign of mystery is a collection of arguments known as the slingshot. It's the reason we say the extension of any sentence is it's truth value. All truths designate the same Great Fact.
So what about if I dispute your claim by saying that the silver coloured screw in my kitchen drawer is still part of 'the kettle' even though it fell off years ago. You say it isn't.What fact of the world could resolve that for us?
Or if I say that your 'very, very dark gray' is sufficiently dark to qualify as 'black', but you disagree. What fact of the world could resolve that for us?
It seems the truth of "the kettle is black" is entirely dependent on the meaning of 'kettle' and 'black'. All about language.
Have I just chosen a bad example where there's a rare amount of ambiguity?
Not entirely dependent. The kettle is black is not true by definition. The truth of the kettle is black is determined by both the meaning of the kettle is black and by whether or not some non-linguistic feature of the world satisfies that definition.
You can change the truth of the kettle is black either by changing the meaning of the sentence or by painting the kettle a different colour.
And why do statements have the truth value they do? Why is it the kettle is black which is true and not the kettle is red? Some non-linguistic feature of the world has to be a certain way. The object referred to by the phrase the kettle has to have the colour property referred to by the word black.
You didn't look at the slingshot argument, did you?
Sure. Correspondence theory is the correct definition of truth. If you want to explain to a toddler what truth is, just tell them it's when a statement corresponds to reality. :up:
Yes, a certain linguistic way.
Quoting Michael
Or explain 'property'.
Any nonlinguistic feature? Does that include the screw in the drawer or not? Because without determining that, we can't say if the expression is true or not (using this method). We can't check if 'the kettle' is black if we don't know what, of all we see, is 'the kettle'.
We can't check if what we see is 'black' if we don't know how dark a shade constitutes 'black'.
Quoting Luke
Quoting Luke
Quoting Luke
Quoting Luke
I've pulled these quotes in order to try to get a handle on something that bothers me about how deflation should be understood. It's as if you are of the opinion that a deflationary account does not permit sentences to be about how things are. Hence you think it leads to truth relativism, that sentences are true regardless of how things are, that water doesn't boil at 100?, and that deflationist amounts to talk unmoored from the facts.
Deflation does not seek to make kettles and boiling water disappear, or to unmoor the words "kettle" and "boiling" from their use.
It's just about the way the word "true" works. it's the observation that "It is true that the kettle is boiling" is the same, in certain specifiable ways, as "the kettle is boiling". That specification is still that both sentences are true exactly if the kettle is boiling.
Rather than unmooring sentences from the world, deflation sets that sentences are about the world.
There's more to say, but I think I will stop there and wait for your response. If what I have said here is an accurate diagnoses of your account, then that's were we should focus our attention.
Yes! And moreover, we tend to consider far too few examples of T-sentences and correspondence to get a good grasp or their variety.
it's probably better for some folk to think of deflation as widening correspondence rather than denying it. It's reasonably clear what kettles and snow correspond to, but the notion becomes fraught is we talk of numbers or colours or institutional facts or virtues. To be sure, correspondence theorists have answers for all these, but they involve ad hoc hypothesising that stretches credibility.
So we might consider "snow is red" is true if snow is red, which is a true T-sentence.
As is "seven is twice nine" is true IFF seven is twice nine, where we have a clear idea of what seven and nine and doubling are, until someone asks what it is to which they correspond.
And it's true that mercy is a virtue IFF "mercy is a virtue" is true; yet there are volumes on what it is to be a virtue.
That is not what deflation is claiming.
It is pointing out that (P ? "P" is true). It then adds that one way or another, t at is all there is to the truth of sentences.
It is not denying that sentence are about stuff.
P ? "P is true"
You've got your quotes in the wrong place. P is already a name.
P ? True(P)
I'm just here to help.
I might add the obvious point that 'the Earth moves" is both a belief about the Earth and a methodological maxim. It is a belief that will determine the experiments one does.
Beliefs just are "ways of conceptualising and intervening in particular situations". Meaning as use.
I'm not familiar with Joseph Rouse, but you and he seem to have in common the desire to juxtapose two things where there is only one.
I wondered if someone would jump at that. I'm surprised it was you.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
is illformed. It'd be like saying
The kettle is boiling ? Fred
Fred does not take on a truth value.
While I was doing some stretches outside there was a female fairy wren in the hanging baskets, Skittling quickly in search of breakfast. It has a family and at this time of year probably a nest nearby, perhaps with eggs or chicks.
I could follow it and make the invisible visible.
It's not as if a form of life cannot be subject to change.
Yep.
It's as if @Michael would have us say, that the kettle is boiling is not a fact, but corresponds to a fact that is outside of language; and when asked what that fact outside of language is, he says it is the boiling kettle.
SO he has it that:
Quoting Michael
I would agree, and you might too, if he instead said "some feature of the world satisfies that definition", dropping the confusion of "non-linguistic". It's the boiling kettle.
One must drop the pretence of being able to get outside of language while still using language. Language is already about the way things are.
Oh you're right! Reached for quotes to group, so that it's
P ? (P is true)
instead of
(P ? P) is true.
But that's not what quotes are for.
Wasn't making a point about the order, duh, but, as I said, about your quotes around P in
Quoting Banno
That's not what you mean. Here ' "P" ' is a name for ' P ', which is a name for a proposition.
That part you obviously agree with, since you passed over it in silence.
I didn't say that.
Quoting Banno
I get "outside of language" most of the day. When I wake up and eat breakfast I don't narrate my life.
It's an illicit substitution, as @Michael and @Andrew M like to point out, but there are ways of dealing with this.
Yep. Hence the "as if".
Quoting Michael
Yep. It's a form of life, if you will. Language is embedded in breakfast and waking and...
You might not narrate your life, but you might.
And in any case, that is a subtle shifting of the goalpost.
I also might paint my life, but it doesn't follow from this that painting is "embedded" in breakfast and waking. You really need to be more explicit with what you're saying because it seems vacuous as-is.
Perhaps if you read more widely...
The point at hand is the kettle boiling. That's a fact. But you want there to be another thing, that shall not be named, that is nevertheless the fact of the kettle boiling.
I ain't buying it.
Always, already, interpreted.
Why would you think I want that?
Huh?
I don't want that. So I'm asking you why you (wrongly) think that I do.
Here we go again.
Perhaps, if I am wrong, you might explain what it is you do want. Rather than asking me to guess.
Indeed, you need it to be raining. Which is already to interpret the world, to use language.
That is, for "it is raining" to be true, it needs to be raining.
Which is the exact point made by the T-sentence.
SO what, if anything, is our disagreement?
So you're agreeing that we never make it outside language. Talk if truthmakers is language on holiday.
There is no outside, nor inside. That terminology is fraught.
You tell me. You were the one who decided to mention me when you said "it's as if @Michael would have us say, that the kettle is boiling is not a fact" even though I wouldn't have us say that, and then later "you want there to be another thing, that shall not be named" even though I don't want that.
So you don't understand the question?
I don't care either way. I've just been reading about Foucault and Nietzsche, so I'm interested in the idea of dropping the will to truth, which means dropping the assumption that truth-seeking is a good unto itself.
A side issue is that we never escape the bounds of language, so to speak. Truth is not a matter of comparing a statement to an uninterpreted reality. Particularly I was intrigued that when I told Michael that, he understands the question. For some reason, you don't.
I agree, so long as you do not conclude that there are no true statements.
You're right, you're right -- forgot for a moment that this is just a schema, and it includes the quotes to produce a name for the substituted sentence --- since "... is true" needs a referring expression, which P isn't. It's just a place-holder, not a name, not even a variable.
As long as you deflate that, you agree with Nietzsche. The only extra thing is the realization that truth is actually about power. Putin and Trump are doing something primal: using a thirst for truth as a weapon.
I thought you were done here. Any further thoughts on knowledge?
You hush your postmodern mouth!
And give me ten push-ups, or ten Our Fathers, whichever you like.
What?
It's just part of the death of God. You don't get a better condo in heaven for being a faithful truth seeker.
That truth is not about correspondence between a statement and uninterrupted reality. That's Nietzsche.
And as said elsewhere, the power of truth derives from its illocutionary force, while the topic here has been the logical structure of true statements.
SO are you going to argue that what makes a statement true is one's willing it to be true? That might be fun.
I think correspondence is the only truth theory Nietzsche knew about. It's not that truth is inherently about power. There's a natural drive to know things. It's that when one group gains power using lies, a call for truth-seeking goes up from the defeated.
Notice how Judaism and Christianity call Satan the Father of the Lie, where Jesus is the Truth, the Light, and the Way. Nietzsche says the way to understand why truth is so central to Abrahamic religions is to see how it relates to power.
Quoting Banno
It may be that logic is the tail and the history of power relations is the dog. Maybe.
Quoting Banno
Ugh. I'm no Nietzsche. Just recently on this forum, a bunch of posters ganged up on me and persistently misinterpreted what I was saying. When I tried to explain, it was rejected and more piled on. They were trying to control the truth through bullying.
So I put up a thread that proved them wrong and none of them even noticed, the assholes.
It would be hard for me to argue that the superior will controls the truth. I think some truth theorists wouldn't be able to escape that conclusion though.
Quoting Banno
This is incorrect Banno. The T-sentence says "it is raining is true iff it is raining. This does not say anything about the meaning of "to be raining".
Either "it is raining" is always, already interpreted, as you assert, in which case "to be raining" is something completely different from "it is raining", or it is not already interpreted.
Having it both ways, which you demonstrate over and over again is your desire, is a matter of dishonesty; the claim that you can eat your cake and have it too.
Just done with my experiment. Still thinking about truth.
I remember learning that one way to think about T-sentences is that a sentence is used on the right but mentioned on the left. Which would be helpful if using were anywhere near as clear as mentioning.
You make a great point and you almost had me convinced there. However, my concerns about truth relativism linger. If deflationism is the neutral view of truth "sans-metaphysics", then the facts of reality are irrelevant to truth. If true statements do not correspond to how the world is, then what makes them true? The worry is that we can never be mistaken about what we say is true, because there is no more to truth than our collective say-so.
Yes, that's my concern and what I'm attempting to argue against.
Yes. Deflationism rejects correspondence - specifically, the correspondence between a truth bearer and the facts - doesn't it?
Quoting Banno
You've conflated the facts with the use of words here. The use of a sentence does not boil water.
Quoting Banno
How does this differ from the correspondence theory?
So we have Tarski explicating the requirements of any semantic theory of truth using T-schema in the first part of his paper, then developing that for formal languages using designation and satisfaction between an object language and a metalanguage. We then have various uses of T-sentences to explicate both deflation and correspondence. Then Davidson uses them to explain meaning in terms of truth. Now we have Gupta's oddly complex variation, with two novel logical operators, truth introduction and truth elimination...
1. A
2. "A" is true (truth introduction)
and
1. A is true
2. "A" (truth elimination)
These promise to do much the same sort of task as one might set for T-sentences, apparently bypassing (or just ignoring) the issue of substitution into opaque contexts, which in any case runs counter to our intuitions.
https://www.jstor.org/stable/4545102
Not conflating so much as recognising.
Quoting Luke
It seems we have differing views of what is involved in each.
How does this differ from the deflationary theory? '"the kettle is boiling" is true' just says that the kettle is boiling.
Yeah, kids these days with their logic and stuff...
Maybe - the quoted part on the LHS is the name of the sentence on the RHS.
Quoting RussellA
Yes, but naming it doesn't affect what it is. 200,000 years ago, snow wasn't named "snow", and the color white wasn't named "white", yet snow was still white. At least, so the scientists tell us.
Quoting RussellA
The names didn't exist but the things named did. The T-schema didn't exist either, but the things that we might later schematize did.
So perhaps it would help if you were to set out what correspondence, in your view, is?
For my part, if we are to talk about correspondence in any workable way, we would be talking about the material equivalence in the t-schema.
And I suspect, following the usual arguments for deflation, that any alternative view will leave out something of worth in our notion of truth, or include too much.
In particular, a theory espousing correspondence to the facts introduces unnecessary ontological individuals - the unnameable boiling kettle that @Michael's view seems to requirer.
Ive already told you:
Quoting Luke
You failed to respond.
Quoting Banno
Again, you failed to respond to the argument that sentences are not kettles and that using sentences does not boil water. You want to collapse the distinction between the facts and language use, but you offer no response to this.
As Meta said, you want to have your cake and eat it too.
I'm nonplussed. You don't seem to me to be saying anything useable.
Then how? You say that the truth of "the kettle is black " depends on both that the kettle is black and that some hidden value is in such and such a state, but then you say absolutely any state will do, so long as it's referred to by the expression "the kettle is black". So the state of that hidden value drops out of the picture, since it can be in absolutely any state so long as that state is described by the expression "the kettle is black". Hence "the kettle is black" is true if the kettle is black.
Redundancy doesn't reject realism, nor need it be relativistic. You might say, as I do, that some hidden state constrains our neural models of it. You might also say, as I would, that we have an interest in those neural models being at least similar in function so that we can cooperate over manipulating those hidden states. You might also say that language is used (among other things) as a tool to this end. But since all of this goes on subconsciously, most of the time, and, most importantly, those putative 'hidden states' are simply hypothetical matters used in a scientific model of how brains work, there's simply not a mechanism by which they can act as truth-makers for sentence in English, without being entirely subsumed by simply 'the kettle is black'.
Absolutely. It's what I've tried to get at in my response above.
I used Ramsey's arguments against Russell in my response to @Michael (or at least, my interpretation of it). It answers the same question you're asking here. If something 'outside' of language constitutes the 'kettle' regarding which we're assessing the truth of some property, then what is it?
You might say "it's that collection of molecules" or something, but I could disagree and say that it properly includes some additional molecules nearby, or historically attached. No fact of the world could resolve that disagreement. Even 'molecules' can be disputed. Is "boiling" exactly at gaseous states, or is it when the water visibly bubbles, or is that just 'simmering'? Does 'boiling' require a lot more bubbles? How much of the water in the kettle has to be gaseous for it to be "boiling"? And so on...
We don't seem to have a connection between the causes of our language use and the language itself which are specific enough to act as truth-makers for any language use. So the truth of "the kettle is boiling" cannot go any further than that the kettle is boiling, without disintegrating.
This is an objection to correspondence. I don't see how that answers my objection to redundancy - that redundancy collapses facts into language use. Is the boiling kettle true, or is the statement about the boiling kettle true? Or both? Is reality true or are statements true?
But my real concern is this:
Quoting Isaac
With respect to truth, what is the difference between the correspondence theory and a redundancy that doesn't reject realism?
The SEP article on the correspondence theory states:
Quoting SEP article on The Correspondence Theory of Truth
Rather than excising facts, realism (or redundancy-plus-realism) allows facts back in as truthmakers.
The statement. The boiling kettle can't be 'true' since there are no matters, outside of language, which could make it so.
Quoting Luke
I tried to explain that within my response that you quoted. The fact that some 'real' hidden states might constrain our neural models doesn't have any mechanism by which it can make sentences true or not. A sentence cannot 'correspond' to something other than by definition, and definition is not specific enough to hook into whatever hidden states we might theorise constrain it.
Therefore, there are no boiling kettles outside of language, either? There are only statements about kettles but no actual kettles?
Quoting Isaac
The kettle itself; not merely talk about a kettle.
Quoting Isaac
I don't believe there's much controversy about what a kettle is.
Quoting Isaac
Boiling point
Quoting Isaac
I don't see that specificity matters. Redundancy without realism leads to relativism and a disconnection of language from the facts of the world. If you accept realism, then you also accept some form of facts, correspondence and truthmaking.
Quoting Isaac
Then what is the point of testing a theory in science?
The act of naming is linguistic, but the thing named is not linguistic. A kettle is not a word. A kettle being black is not a sentence.
I've not said anything about some hidden value. The truth of "the kettle is black" depends on both the meaning of the sentence "the kettle is black" and on the kettle being black, the latter being a non-linguistic, material feature of the world (assuming materialism for the sake of argument). Assuming reductionism and naïve realism (again for the sake of argument), the kettle being black is the existence of particular particles at particular locations in space. This has nothing to do with language (even if language is required to talk about it).
Or if materialism is unwarranted, then perhaps phenomenalism is the case, and the kettle being black is the occurrence of a particular sensory experience, which again has nothing to do with language (even if language is required to talk about it).
The world isn't just a conversation we have with each other. There is more to the world than language, and the existence and behaviour of these non-linguistic parts of the world are often the things that make a sentence true. I get wet when I stand out in the rain, not because of the sentence "it is raining", but because of the water falling from the sky.
No. Language is what delineates 'kettle' as an object. Without it, there's just 'the stuff that kettles are drawn from'.
Quoting Luke
So, outside of our talk, is the screw in the drawer part of the kettle or not?
Quoting Luke
So is the screw in the drawer part of the kettle or not?
Quoting Luke
... is the scientific definition. It take a colloquial definition (one where I need to see a good volume of bubbles before I'll say the kettle is boiling). what fact of the world-outside-of-language, tells you I'm wrong?
Quoting Luke
Not at all. I laid this out (you don't seem to be actually reading the things I'm writing - if I'm not being clear, perhaps you might say so). What is real might well constrain our language. That is is not specific enough to act as truth-maker, doesn't mean it doesn't exist.
Quoting Luke
To get a better theory?
Quoting Michael
What particular particles? Do they include the screw in the drawer or not?
Quoting Michael
What sensory experience? The one I say is that of a kettle, or the one you say is that of a kettle?
Quoting Michael
Do you? Or do you get damp when you stand out in drizzle? If you're wearing a coat are you still getting wet? Does the sentence "I didn't really get wet, just a bit damp" make no sense to you?
Possibly, it's ambiguous. But if there are no particles, just the sentence "the kettle is black", then is it true?
Quoting Isaac
Either. But if there were neither, just the sentence "the kettle is black", then is it true?
Quoting Isaac
Yes, yes, a little, and no.
But if there is no water falling from the sky, just the sentence "it is raining", then is it true?
Your arguments for the ambiguity of language do not refute my point. It still requires that there is something in addition to the sentences "it is raining" and "the kettle is black" for these sentences to be true. Truth depends on more than just language.
Absolutely. And we're agreed there. But if what it relies on can't be specified (does it include the screw or not?), then it can't act as truth-maker. Worse, if what it relies on merely need be something, but not any specific thing, then it drops out of conversation. Which is all redundancy is saying.
Quoting Michael
I don't think the disagreement between @Luke and @Michael, on the one hand, and @Banno and @Isaac, on the other, is primarily about truth or facts, but about reference.
Michael and Luke take "the kettle" as a referring expression, which means there is something that it refers to, and that something is not itself, but a concrete object. Then Isaac and Banno point out that what "the kettle" (here, an expression is being mentioned) refers to is simply the kettle (and here it is being used).
There are further arguments, but first it would be nice to see the four of you agree
(1) "the kettle" is a a referring expression; and
(2) what "the kettle" refers to, or can be used to refer to, is the kettle; and
(3) "the kettle" is an expression, and is not the same as the concrete object the kettle; and
(4) the kettle is a concrete object, and is not the same as the expression "the kettle".
If there's not agreement on this much, we need a different conversation.
One down, three to go.
Or shall we make it four? What about it, @Tate? Does "the kettle" refer to the kettle, or, if you prefer, can it be used in a sentence to refer to the kettle?
It's 4 I'd quibble over. I'm not sure in what sense we can say the kettle is a concrete object if we can't agree on what that concrete object constitutes (and yet still unproblematically use the expression 'the kettle'). If we can use "the kettle" without issue, and yet can't even say whether the thing includes the screw in the drawer or not, it is hard to see how the kettle could be a concrete object.
But it depends how you're using 'concrete' here. I think the world consists of those objects we, collectively, identify with our forms of life (our language, for modern humans). So the kettle is definitely an object in the world, in that sense. But that's not this world-outside-language that @Luke and @Michael seem to be reaching for.
That world seems closer to what I would call 'hidden states'. But hidden states are a hypothetical notion in a scientific model. There is (according to the model) a relationship between hidden states and our shared objects, but it's a constraining one, not a determining one.
You just agreed the contrary. You said "yes" when I asked if the material particular matter was any particular matter. So it isn't made true by the existence of a particular material object, since any material particular matter will do, it's always true.
Did I? Where? If I did then it was a mistake.
I asked...
Quoting Isaac
...and you answered...
Quoting Michael
But if it...
Quoting Michael
...then my original question stands unanswered. Does this particular matter the truth about the colour of the kettle depends on, include the screw in the drawer or not?
The "sure" was actually a response to the rest of your comment. Sorry for not being clear.
Quoting Isaac
That's for us to decide.
I really don't understand the point you are trying to make. That words and phrases can be ambiguous isn't that the truth of a sentence like "the kettle is black" doesn't depend on the existence of a material object (or the occurrence of a sensory experience).
Yep. Using language.
The truth of "the kettle is black" cannot be determined by hidden states because nothing in those hidden states determines that they should be a kettle, nor exhibit the property 'black'. We determine that by language use.
But it's still the case that whichever matter we decide 'counts' as being the kettle must exist for the sentence "the kettle exists" to be true.
Getting ahead of ourselves here, but I'll say this much: the kettle is literally "outside language" in just the sense that it is not itself the expression "the kettle" or any other expression; but it is also not, shall we say, 'untouched' by language, if you are correct that it is only an object insofar as it is collectively identified by use of the expression "the kettle". But if it is so identified, identified by the use of language, and by our forms of life more broadly, as the man said, then it is the thing in that sense identified by our use of the expression "the kettle". If it's not, then there has been no collective identifying of something by use of the expression "the kettle".
Yes. But since it could be literally any matter at all, to claim that the truth of any sentence involving kettles depends on this fact would render all statements about kettles always true, since there's always some matter.
The sentence "the kettle is black" is true at T[sub]1[/sub]. I paint the kettle red at T[sub]2[/sub]. The sentence "the kettle is black" is false at T[sub]2[/sub].
The meaning of the sentence "the kettle is black" did not change at T[sub]2[/sub]. So why did the truth value of the sentence "the kettle is black" change at T[sub]2[/sub]? Because the material object changed.
If the truth value of a sentence can change without the meaning of that sentence changing then the truth value of that sentence depends on more than just its meaning.
And I honestly don't know how you make the inference you do in the above quote.
Absolutely. You've hit the nail on the head.
It cannot be be the thing in that sense identified by our use of the expression "the kettle" because no single, agreed on thing (matter, particles, hidden states) fits that bill.
What the expression "the kettle" does, changes from use to use.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Sufficient to get a job done though. If I say "put the kettle on" I don't need you to know if that includes the screw in the drawer. I assume you gather my intent. I could probably have just said "tea time!"
If we want an ephemeral, relativist 'truth', then sure we could compare the 'kettle' of any given conversation to the 'black' in that same conversation.
But if we want a 'truth' that gets outside of these conversations... Which use are we going to pick?
Is it? Does "the kettle" include the screw in the drawer or not? Does it include it at T1, but not at T2, or vice versa perhaps? Did you paint the screw. Was it a really dark red that I'd call black?
Yes. For the sake of argument we have fixed the referent of the phrase "the kettle" (and "black", and "red") such that the truth value of "the kettle is black" is unambiguously true at T[sub]1[/sub] and false at T[sub]2[/sub].
The meaning of the sentence didn't change at T[sub]2[/sub] but its truth value did. Therefore, the truth value of the sentence depends on more than just its meaning. It also depends on the material object referred to by the phrase "the kettle".
I wonder if this is inconsistent with the redundancy theory.
Doesn't that just beg the question a little? Ramsey's concern about propositions is exactly that we just can't do that.
Quoting Michael
But the meaning only didn't change because you said it didn't. Again, this misses the main objections (Ramsey's propositions and Wittgenstein's private rules). If you declare that the meaning of an expression is just exactly what you say it is, then I think you might possibly be able to make the move you want to make. But then you'd have a private rule concerning the meaning.
This is a mistaken supposition, explained well by Kant. The name "snow" does not refer to some sort of object which preexisted the appearance within the mind, as you seem to think scientists claim. The name refers directly to what appears within the mind, the phenomenon, as does the description of it, etc.. That is what is named, the phenomenon, not the assumed noumenon, which we assume as necessary for the existence of the phenomenon. We do not have the premises required to conclude that the phenomenon (what appears within the mind) is an accurate representation of the noumenon (the supposed thing itself).
What I think Michael is insisting, is that the truth of one's description of the phenomenon requires that the phenomenon accurately represents the noumenon.
Quoting Isaac
This is a problem, your attempt to reduce mental activity, to "states". As I explained earlier in the thread, Aristotle demonstrated long ago, that there is an unresolvable incompatibility between a state of "being", and the activity which constitutes change, known as "becoming".
The issue seems to be that we need a source for the stability which constitutes a "belief", used as a noun. So you posit a stable neural network, or some such thing, as a stable "thing", which would support repetition of the same, or similar mental activity, constituting the thing which others might call a "belief".
You agreed above that we can decide what words mean. So, for the sake of this example, we decide that the screw in the drawer is not part of the kettle, and to use a spectrophotometer to measure the kettle's colour, agreeing which range of results indicates the kettle being black or not-black.
Otherwise I don't understand the point that you are trying to make. That the sentence "the kettle is black" is neither true nor false? Or both true and false? Or true for some and false for others?
Not at all. Just like a 'race' is any kind of activity which has a start, a finish, and some competitive element, a 'belief that the pub is at the end of the road' is any mental arrangement which results in a tendency to go to the end of the road when wanting to get to the pub.
Yep. Look at the bolded bits. The activities described are those of a living language.
We agree to fix the meaning of the sentence "the kettle is red" such that it is unambiguously false at T[sub]1[/sub]. I paint the kettle red at T[sub]2[/sub]. The sentence "the kettle is red" is unambiguously true at T[sub]2[/sub]. The meaning of the sentence "the kettle is red" didn't change at T[sub]2[/sub] but its truth value did. Therefore, its truth value depends on more than just its meaning. It also depends on the kettle and its properties.
Well, I didn't agree to that. I counted the screw at T1 and T2 -- I wouldn't want you saying false things, after all.
...because we stipulated it wouldn't.
So...
Quoting Michael
...us stipulating the meanings of the expressions under consideration.
The expression at T2 could be either true or false depending entirely on our stipulation. So you can't conclude that it (as a fact about what is the case) depends on you painting the kettle red. It's immaterial whether you paint the kettle red.
After T1, there are two possible scenarios.
Scenario 1 - you paint the kettle red (in this world-outside-language) and we stipulate the meaning of "the kettle is black" such that it's false.
Scenario 2 - you paint the kettle red (in this world-outside-language) and we stipulate the meaning of "the kettle is black" such that it's true.
Either scenario is possible. So painting the kettle red (in this world-outside-language) has no determining relevance.
If you artificially constrain the situation to only allow scenario 1, then all you're doing is determining the truth value of the statement at T2 by eliminating the other option. You've made it true because truth is binomial and you've excluded one option.
Are you saying that me painting the kettle red changes the meaning of the sentence "the kettle is black"? That's an absurd claim.
No. I don't see how you're getting that.
Because you're rejecting my claim that the sentence "the kettle is black" means the same thing at T[sub]1[/sub] and at T[sub]2[/sub]. If it's not me painting the kettle red that changes the meaning then what does change the meaning?
No, I agreed to that. You stipulated that it does for the sake of your thought experiment.
Quoting Michael
Nothing, we chose not to, according to the rules you stipulated. You stipulating such rules is what determined the truth value at T2
...
T1 - we decide the meaning of "the kettle is black" is such that it is true.
T1.5 - You paint a kettle.
T2 - we decide we decide the meaning of "the kettle is black" is such that it is false (for the newly painted kettle).
Our action at T2 is completely unconstrained by your action at T1.5.
Our action at T2 is, of course, constrained by you constraining it for the sake of argument. That's just tautologous and doesn't tell us anything about what is necessarily the case.
Then it is exactly as I said:
1. The meaning of the sentence didn't change at T[sub]2[/sub] but its truth value did.
2. If the truth value of a sentence can change without the meaning of that sentence changing then the truth value of that sentence depends on more than just its meaning.
3. In this specific case the truth value changed because a material object changed, and so the truth of that sentence depends on that material object.
Which of these three claims do you disagree with?
2.
Your argument seems the equivalent of...
If the {on/off state of a light} can change without {switch for that light} changing then the {on/off state of a light} depends on more than just the {switch for that light}.
Yet in the above scenario I'm not prevented in any way from still using the switch to entirely determine whether the light is on or off, right? It's not like it requires {switch} plus {other factor} to be on. The switch still turns the light on or off. It's just that something else does too.
We could end up in a kind of war of attrition between me constantly flicking the switch to turn the light on, and this other factor constantly turning it back off again. As I said to @Srap Tasmaner above...
Quoting Isaac
If we have to agree to the meaning of "the kettle is black ", then we have to also agree that your actions at T1.5 constitute "painting the kettle red". Thus it turns out this {other factor} is linguistically determined too.
Did you paint the kettle red? Only if we agree about 'kettles' and 'painting' and 'red'.
Then why did the truth value change if the meaning didnt? It seems to me to be a contradiction to argue both that a) the truth of a sentence is determined entirely by its meaning and that b) the truth of the sentence changed but its meaning didnt.
The truth value changed because I painted the kettle red. The material object changed. Therefore the truth of that sentence depends on that material object.
Yes, good point, for whole sentences. Not, though, for nouns or adjectives, where the distinction is perfectly clear: use a word or phrase to mention a thing, and use a name of the word or phrase to mention the word or phrase. Mention means refer to. Albeit with a hint of 'in passing'.
For whole sentences, the distinction is clear enough if clarity is desired. Either
Use a sentence to mention an alleged entity corresponding to the whole sentence. And whether or not you commit to the existence of the entity thus alleged, try not to equivocate between that and the sentence itself (mentioned by use of its name). (Picture 1.)
Or
Use a sentence to use one or more of its component parts to mention actual things or classes. (Picture 2.) Or to perform your preferred speech act to which the picture does no justice.
Either way, drop "fact" and "proposition" and "state", if clarity is your aim. Choose "sentence" or "abstract truth-maker" or "situation" or "thing". For as long as these remain somewhat less easily confused.
And how does this account for the truth value of a sentence changing? Truth values dont change apropos of nothing. The truth value of some sentences change because a particular physical event happens. So why is it that physical event that changes the sentences truth value and not a different one? Because the sentence refers to that physical event and not a different one.
I think either the slingshot arguments are mistaken or theyre not addressing the same kind of extension that Im addressing. See here and here.
Agree.
Quoting Michael
Agree, but want to know if "a kettle being black" refers to any combination of these
... which might elaborate picture 2. Or whether you allege, rather, an entity corresponding to the whole sentence "the kettle is black", as per picture 1.
The truth of Tarski's T-Sentence depends on how snow and white have been named
Today, we have Tarski's T-Sentence "snow is white" is true IFF snow is white. The left hand side is the object language, the right hand side is the metalanguage.
In the metalanguage, snow is white, meaning that, in the domain of the metalanguage, snow is white, ie, in the world of the metalanguage, snow is white. The world of the metalanguage may or may not correspond with our world.
I agree that in our world snow is white. However, in the world of the metalanguage, snow may or may not be white.
Possibility One - in the world of the metalanguage, snow has the property white and apples have the property green
1) Let "snow" name snow, "white" name white
Then "snow is white" is true
2) Let "snow" name snow, let "white" name green
Then "snow is white" is false
1) Let "snow" name apple, "white" name white
Then "snow is white" is false
2) Let "snow" name apple, let "white" name green
Then "snow is white" is true
Possibility Two - in the world of the metalanguage, snow has the property green and apples have the property purple.
1) Let "snow" name snow, "white" name white
Then "snow is white" is false
2) Let "snow" name snow, let "white" name green
Then "snow is white" is true
3) Let "snow" name snow, let "white" name purple
Then "snow is white" is false
1) Let "snow" name apple, "white" name white
Then "snow is white" is false
2) Let "snow" name apple, let "white" name green
Then "snow is white" is false
3) Let "snow" name apple, let "white" name purple
Then "snow is white" is true
Summary
If snow is white in a metalanguage, "snow is white" may or may not be true dependant upon how snow and white have been named. Therefore, it is not necessarily true that "snow is white" is true IFF snow is white.
IE, the truth of Tarski's T-Sentence depends on how snow and white have been named, or as Kripke said, "baptised".
But if I were to take a shot at it, I would say that the Great Fact that true sentences refer to is the world.
Just as the kettle is black and the kettle is metal refer to the same kettle, the kettle is black and snow is white refer to the same world. In a sense the sentences are the world is such that the kettle is black and the world is such that snow is white.
But even though in one sense the kettle is black and the kettle is metal refer to the same thing (the kettle), theres another sense in which they dont refer to the same thing: one refers to the kettle being black and the other to it being metal.
I think the slingshot arguments address the first sense of reference, whereas correspondence-like theories address the second.
But I admit that I cant quite grasp the logic of the slingshot arguments. This is just my intuitive understanding.
Yup! This is what I love about the screw in the drawer example -- it gave an intuitive example of the slingshot.
So when you say "The kettle is black" is true because it corresponds to the world, I'd say "The kettle is red" is true because it corresponds to the world -- there's only one world, so there's no "part" that counts as corresponding to any one sentence. When I say it's true, I'm referring to the screw in the drawer which is a part of the kettle -- but that's all the same fact.
Hence why substitution is attacked.
Oliver Sacks tells a story -- his father, he said, was the sort of man who would say to him, "Bring me that glass there on the table," and when young Oliver returned with the glass, his father would say, "Why did you bring me this? I asked for the one on the table." I don't know if that means his father had an odd sense of humor, or his father was abusive and enjoyed putting little Oliver in a double-bind...
Now in our case, you know about the screw in the drawer. Do I? Do you know whether I know?
I think we are forced to ask because what you know about the kettle will inform your intent, and it's your intent I am supposed to grasp, and you and I will both be relying on my knowledge of the kettle for me to grasp your intent.
If, for instance, that screw holds one end of the handle in place, you know whether and how the handle can be used. It will be important for me to have that knowledge too in order to put the kettle on. (I have a dozen or so possible scenarios in my head now, but I assume you don't need any of those spelled out.)
If, on the other hand, that screw was just one of six holding the base on, and the base is perfectly secure with the remaining five, then you could count your knowledge of the missing screw irrelevant. The kettle with five screws is sufficiently intact for making tea, and it is this technically partial kettle, in its current state, that you intend me to put on. You might even be annoyed if I somehow notice the missing screw and go rummaging around for it, since me repairing the kettle was not part of your intent. Or you might be pleased I'm fixing your kettle, but that still wasn't part of your intent.
I'm not saying we can't have vague intentions like "Stand roughly there," but the fact that there are multiple options doesn't mean you didn't have something specific in mind -- which might even be an impossible thing, as with Oliver's dad. Your intention likely includes a 'picture' of 'what success looks like', and that picture can be taken as a paradigm that allows a certain amount of deviation, but not an infinite amount. ("Stand roughly there" doesn't mean stand anywhere at all.)
And vagueness is itself a very specific sort of issue (!), and it's not clear it arises here. Maybe, but not automatically, not in every case.
Quoting Isaac
I don't think there's anything wrong with relying on features of the occasion of utterance. I think it's perfectly routine that we do so. If I ask for the black screwdriver from my toolbox, you might complain that you wouldn't really call that handle 'black', but more of a 'charcoal grey'. But evidently in doing so you know which one I meant. (I might even agree with you.) Again, we're dealing with vagueness in the extension of 'black' at large, but not in these specific circumstances. My intent concerns a quite specific object, and my language is specific enough, given the circumstances, to allow you to determine the object my expression referred to. Of course such a description can refer to other objects, or even fail to pick out this one, given other circumstances, but that's a feature not a bug of language.
(And here I'll add that objections that you might have meant something else, or that we could have chosen a different interpretation, and so on, don't change the fact you didn't and we didn't. You cannot force on us a standard of necessary, eternal meaning that we must admit failing to meet.)
Quoting Isaac
But I hope you can see how each conversation is successful at getting outside itself, in this sense: it is those concrete objects, the kettle and the screwdriver, we were interested in, and which our intentions concerned; the conversation needs only to fix those as the objects to which we are referring. If every object we were concerned with carried a UUID, and we could keep track of those, we could use those to end up in the same place.
That's an interesting way of seeing it. There may be two different presentations of "the world" going on. Under one interpretation, a collective agreement that "the kettle is boiling", when it is in fact boiling, is actually a fact of the world, and in that regard there is not disagreement in the majority of circumstances. If you did an experiment of 100 people in adequate lighting conditions and showed them boiling and non-boiling kettles, asked them whether a given kettle was boiling or not, you'd get a 100% accuracy rate for the label ascribed to the boiling states by the experimenter. In that regard, while individual and novel items of language (protolanguage?) are suspicious from a factual perspective; because they can't easily be generalised without already being expressible in a general way; commonly agreed upon and publicly accessible declarative statements don't have the same property.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I agree with all of those, I share Isaac's quibble with ( 2 ), but claim that whether it's appropriate to even think of the kettle as a collection of molecules depends upon the practical context. The referring expression "the kettle" I believe has a meaning close to an equivalence class of denoting expressions, you might say "the kettle on the table" and refer to the same concrete object.
I think perhaps the crux of the matter regards the nature of the linguistic dependence of familiar objects. I take it that Isaac has a strong position that they're linguistic all the way down and what they count as publicly is what they are, and the reference mechanism actually references an entity conjured up by collective agreement rather than some concrete fact. The referent of "the kettle" is a collectively enacted categorisation of the environment, rather than some environmental object.
I take it that @Banno has a similar position, but complicates the matter by saying that regardless of the saturation of such interpretations by the categories of language, those expressions nevertheless refer to the kettle because they refer to the kettle in the pragmatic context of the phrase. The environment itself is part of the pragmatic context, and so is the appropriate court of evaluation for statements. You don't have to care about adding molecules to the kettle and severing the reference mechanism of "the kettle" to the kettle, because the necessary enmeshment of world and language is part of how reference works. You can see the expression "the kettle is boiling" both as a string and as what it is used to denote in context. A match between what is referred to, and the properties ascribed to it, and what it denotes in context is a truth, and it says no more to say something is true than this match actually occurring.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I like where that is going Srap, I think a lot of the present disagreement is related to different intuitions about the nature of the dependence of environmental categories, like what we're (at least allegedly) denoting with "the kettle". There are strong and weak forms of this.
( 1 ) A total determination of the referent of "the kettle" by the underlying collective standards of interpretation.
( 2 ) A partial determination of the referent of "the kettle" by those same standards.
( 3 ) No dependence of the referent of "the kettle" by those same standards.
By the looks of it, no one here is arguing that ( 3 ) is true and no one here is arguing that ( 1 ) is true. (@Michael, correct me if I'm wrong).
Maybe some information regarding the contrast of positions in thread could be gained by considering the different senses of partial determination at work. Let's say that the kettle is boiling is true, what would the proximate cause of that expression's truth be? My intuition for that is that the kettle really did boil. I think @Banno, @Srap Tasmaner and @Michael would agree (though possibly for different reasons), though I suspect @Isaac would have a strong quibble.
From the argument here:
a. The meaning of the sentence at T[sub]1[/sub] is the meaning of the sentence at T[sub]2[/sub]
b. The truth value of the sentence at T[sub]1[/sub] is the not the truth value of the sentence at T[sub]2[/sub]
c. Therefore, the truth value of the sentence is determined by something other than (even if in addition to) the meaning of the sentence
d. The only other thing that differs at T[sub]2[/sub] is a material object
e. Therefore, the truth value of the sentence is determined by (even if only in part) that material object
I think the argument is valid and that the conclusion refutes (3) and is consistent with (1) and (2). It might not be clear which material object(s) determine (even if only in part) the truth of the sentence, but it is still the case that it is some material object(s) which determine (even if only in part) the truth of the sentence.
This is a criticism of Davidson's version. Supposedly Godel's is the best, but I haven't looked at it.
Quoting Banno
I would just add that if there is only one thing, pragmatically useful belief, that one thing cant be split up into a meaning of a belief on the one hand , and its actual contextual application on the other. There is only the one thing, the actual contextual sense.
Belief is not a rule or conceptual configuration that is taken intact from individual and cultural memory and which is subsequently applied, imported into a context of use. It is ONLY in the circumstances in which it is actually used that the belief has sense, and those circumstances change constantly.
As Rouse writes:
Understanding of conceptually articulated practices as subpatterns within the human lineage belongs to the Davidsonian-Sellarsian tradition that emphasizes the "objectivity" of conceptual understanding. Yet the "objects" to which our performances must be held accountable are not something outside discursive practice itself. Discursive practice cannot be understood as an intralinguistic structure or activity that then somehow "reaches out" to incorporate or accord to objects. The relevant "objects" are the ends at issue and at stake within the practice itself.
Nice try, but there is a whole lot more going on here than just reference. Truth is about meaning, and meaning is best thought of as how language is used. So truth is about how language is used, and far wider than just reference.
It is worth pointing out, again, that the examples being used are far too limited to give us a feel for the way truth is used. I noticed as well that @Michael, and perhaps others, have returned to talk fo the colour of the kettle, rather than that it is boiling. This permits him to place undue emphasis on issues of perception. It's far easier to agree that the kettle is boiling than that the kettle is red. The examples chosen speak whole fora about the biases of the speaker.
A theory of truth that only works for material objects is insufficient. A theory of truth need to work for "The kettle is boiling", "The kettle is red", "The kettle is ugly", and "The kettle is symbolic of the role of women in a patriarchal system". It needs to explain why it is true that you stop at the red lights and why it is true that blue goes with red but not so much with brown. It needs to work for "It's true Banno is a bit of a bastard" as well as for "It's true that one ought to give to those less fortunate than oneself".
So there is the poverty of the correspondence theory. It only works in a limited number of cases.
I'll bold that, so those flicking past those post will at lease read it. I've made that point several times, and it hasn't been acknowledged, or was dismissed as too extreme.
In contrast, Tarski sets out in the first part of his 1933 article, a minimal criteria for an adequate theory of truth. It must set out, for every sentence S, some X such that "S" is true IFF X.
The task before us is to find X.
So, Srap, it's not just about reference.
The error I see in what @Michael proposes is that he thinks we can talk about the kettle outside of language. He needs a "non-linguistic kettle" to make his account work. It should be clear, to revert to Wittgenstein's terminology, that even pointing is engaging in a language game. Since the world is all that is the case, there is no escape from our language games.
It's also pretty clear that @Luke has a deep misunderstanding of what deflation consists in, since he conflates it with antirealism, supposing that it somehow denies that there are kettles. There's not much that can be said about such a view until he remedies himself.
For what it is worth, which I suspect is not much, I'll agree with your (1), (2) and (3), Srap, but my kettle is steel, not concretes, and metallic silver, not black nor red.
The interesting topic here is how @Isaac might fill out the hidden states he mentions in order to reach the intentional language of truth. My suspicion is that there is a gap brought about by there being a difference in kind between neural networks and truth statements. But you comments, Srap, about knowledge might point to a link, such that knowledge is about what we are able do in the world, and truth derives from our doing things with words.
But unfortunately we are stuck in this mire.
I disagree.
Try instead thinking in terms of which acts are parts of a language game and which, if any, are not. The act of naming is clearly a language game. But so is any act involving the thing named. Putting the kettle on involves separating kettles from flames from water from cold from boiling. It is public, shared, even objective, to use a term that I disdain. To say that it is "not linguistic" is to miss the way in which all these things come together in the form of life that is boiling the kettle.
To engage with the kettle is to engage with what is the case and so with language.
Less prosaically, in order for there to be a kettle we undertake to treat the stuff around us - @Isaac's "hidden states" - as kettles and water and flames. This counts as a kettle; that counts as a flame, and that as water. Even those without language undertake in this fashion; but it is language that captures what is happening here. Seare has the better account of this.
In more Wittgensteinian terms, there is an active intent that makes the kettle a kettle. The kettle exists as a result of our treating it as such; which is not to deny that our intent is constrained, Isaac's hidden states. But it is constrained by the kettle; that seems to be what we have decided to call some of the hidden states.
So, @Isaac, perhaps those states are hidden from our neural nets, but not from us... :wink:
Quoting fdrake
Yep.
Quoting fdrake
Certainly that's the discussion that's been going on here, but it's not necessarily the right discussion.
Why language? I mean, yes, we are talking about how to understand using a phrase like "the kettle" or a sentence like "The kettle is boiling," yes. But think about this example. A kettle is an artifact, one of the oldest sorts of human artifacts, a vessel for cooking. What goes into the design and fashioning of a kettle is dependent on the needs and wishes of creatures like us, our specific, limited capacity for making things out of stuff, what stuff is available to us for making things, and so on.
I don't intend that list to be taken as endorsing a "forms of life" account. Rather, I want to say that the artifact here, the kettle, in some sense embeds an awful lot of referential understandings and gestures, almost none of which are linguistic. We wish to handle water in a certain way and craft vessels for doing so. There's reference there. How we fashion those vessels reflects, embeds, our understanding of the available materials in our environment -- more reference -- and our ability to work those materials into artifacts, and so on. The point being that in perceiving the kettle, we perceive a certain amount of the human history embedded in it, because by its nature it presents several ways in which creatures like us interact with the sorts of things we find, or choose to find, in the sorts of environments we live in. There is, in the kettle itself, evidence of reference to objects and materials in our environment.
On our side, to perceive a kettle also has a referential aspect to it. To see that the kettle is on the kitchen table involves content in a propositional form, content that I have here expressed in English, but that young Wittgenstein might say is also expressed by the arrangement of the kettle and the table. I perceive the kettle and the table, objects, but I also perceive how they are arranged and that they are so arranged without putting that into language.
My complaint then would be that language is far from the only medium in which human beings express intentionality, and to chase our interaction with objects in our environment back to language alone is a mistake. Perception matters, knowledge matters, manipulation matters, and so on, and all of these bear on issues of reference because they are all inherently referential activities. The idea that a kettle is only a way we talk is patently ridiculous; to think that it is not entirely but primarily, or even largely a matter of how we talk is scarcely less so.
Again, the idea here is not to smear everything together as "our forms of life," but to note that there are different modalities of reference and there is reason to think they are not entirely independent. We do not agree on how to carve up the world with words arbitrarily, but in, shall we say, consultation with how we perceive the objects and materials in our environment, how we manipulate them, what we know about them from our individual and collective histories. Language is only one of a battery of intentional behaviors that make reference to our environment or are dependent upon such reference. To understand how reference works in language specifically, we probably ought to give some thought to the other modalities as well.
@fdrake, if you meant 'interpretation' somewhat broadly, there you go.
Seems about right. Thank you.
Quoting fdrake
I'd quibble as to the word "cause" here. But I might go so far as to say that the exact circumstance in which it is correct to deem that "the kettle is boiling" is true are that the kettle is boiling...
Belief just is actual contextual application. Language is an actual contextual application.
Lovely.
Exactly.
I dont. Both the kettle is black and the kettle is metal refer to the same kettle but it doesnt follow from this that the kettle is black because the kettle is metal.
You like the substitution issues of T-sentences. Apply that here.
I don't see your point. You weren't talking about a race, or any other form of activity, in the passage where I took the quote. You were talking about "states", specifically "hidden states". A state is not an activity, like a race is, and that's the point I made. What constitutes a state is incompatible with what constitutes an activity. So I don't see why you'd be trying to change the subject from "states" to "activities". Saying a state is like an activity is comparing apples to oranges.
Quoting Banno
We're getting closer and closer to agreement. All you need to do now is to acknowledge that truth is about nothing other than the honest use of language, and we'd be in agreement.
Quoting Banno
Sure, there is no escape from our language games, but there is such a thing as cheating. Why is cheating a reality in this world which only consists of what is the case? A dishonest statement, eg. a lie, has a real place in the world, just like cheating has a real place in a game.
Quoting Banno
You say, truth is about meaning, but here you demonstrate otherwise. You are not saying anything about meaning here. You are saying that "the kettle is boiling", if true, means that the kettle is boiling. Can't you see that this says absolutely nothing about the meaning of "the kettle is boiling".
If you would make the slight adjustment, and say, that the exact circumstances in which it is correct to deem that "the kettle is boiling" is true, are when you honestly belief that the kettle is boiling, then you'd actually be saying something reasonable, and realistic about "truth", and consequently, about meaning as well. The correct circumstances in which to deem "the kettle is boiling" is true. is when you honestly believe that the kettle is boiling.
Thats my understanding of the slingshot. All it says is that all true sentences refer to the same world, just as all true sentences about the kettle refer to the same kettle. It doesnt follow from the latter that the kettle is black iff the kettle is metal and so it doesnt follow from the former that the kettle is black iff snow is white.
But if my understanding of the slingshot is incorrect then I think Tates link is a good response. Clark Kent refers to Superman but it doesnt follow from this that if Lois Lane knows that Clark Kent is Clark Kent that she knows that Clark Kent is Superman. Davidson is wrong in asserting that co-referring terms are logically equivalent.
Whether one co-referring term can be substituted for another is the canonical way of distinguishing extensional from intensional contexts. You can substitute salva veritate in extensional contexts but not in intensional ones.
Does this have anything at all to do with the slingshot? (Been a while since I thought about it.)
Given that most of my posts in this discussion have been spent trying to get deflationists to admit to the distinction between the expression and the concrete object, I obviously agree.
Nice post. However, a "match" sounds a lot like a correspondence to my ears.
An argument I have been considering lately is the following. If the statements "S is true" and "S" are equivalent in meaning according to deflationists, then this equivalence should be maintained when these statements are converted into the questions "Is S true?" and "Is S?" With a minor grammatical adjustment, the deflationary meaning equivalence in the kettle example becomes:
(1) Is the kettle boiling?
(2) Is "the kettle is boiling" true?
Converting the statements into an interrogative form serves to highlight that there is something that prompts us to answer either affirmatively or negatively, and that is more than mere definition. That is, there is something that makes (2) true - a truthmaker - which is our perception or agreement that the relevant part of the world really is some way; that the statement accords with, or corresponds to, the state of the relevant part of the world.
I am willing to agree that:
Quoting fdrake
And we understand the meaning of "the kettle is boiling" in the abstract without regard for its truth value. But, importantly, why we would say that the proposition is true is that it meets the truth conditions in terms of the collectively enacted meaning of "the kettle is boiling". It is not our language that decides whether the proposition is true or false; our language allows for either option. What decides (or what leads us to decide/agree) that it is true or false is how the world is, or how we find it. Are there plums in the icebox? Let's look and find out.
So let's use the SEP article.
Read ?x as "the thing that is x..."
Michael seems to want to reject assumption (C) - is that so?
I'd go with rejecting (A), and vacillate between rejecting it because there are no facts and because if there are facts they are opaque.
What about you, Srap?
I vote not to get into the slingshot unless we really have to, but if we do I'll take the opportunity to wade into it and see if I like it any more this time.
Are we at a point now that it's the most important thing on the table?
No, the most important thing on the table remains how meaning and truth fit together.
I said that snow was white 200,000 years ago, as scientists would tell us. That's common knowledge - if you disagree, perhaps you could provide a scientific source.
Quoting RussellA
The T-sentence is in the metalanguage, while the quotes name a sentence in the object language.
Quoting RussellA
Cool.
Quoting RussellA
Certainly if the word "white" were used to denote the color green then the sentence, "snow is white" would be false (since snow is not green).
It's like if you call a tail a leg, then how many legs does a horse have? We can be in agreement as long as we avoid ambiguity.
I'm always glad to find when things make sense together. :)
Quoting Banno
I like this notion. From my current thinking: the T-sentence allows for some substantive theories, if we wish.
Quoting Banno
This is a fun idea. I don't even know what it would look like developed.
it seems to me that it'd go along with my notion on facts -- there's a communal aspect. Not that I think we'd disagree on that, from all I've gathered. Just noting the obvious wig-wammy fact/value distinction.
Well, from where I sit fact-value reduces to direction of fit. Doubtless that's an oversimplification.
I've little problem with values being true or false. Surely it's true that mercy is a virtue IFF mercy is a virtue. T-sentences seem to work fine here.
The issue remains as to when we ought be convinced that the kettle is boiling or mercy is a virtue. But these are obviously very different questions than the nature of truth.
Sure, I agree.
The error theory would just say they're all false.
I agree with the overall thrust here though. Thinking on it I believe [s]the above[/s] what i posted above is a quibble, in the grand scope of the conversation. A thread for another day.
"Meaning" and "mean" are really extraordinary words.
There's
[math]\ \ \ \ \ \ [/math](1) What do you think it means?
That is, what does it indicate, point at metaphorically?
[math]\ \ \ \ \ \ [/math](2) What does that mean?
Said of a bit of language, generally a request for different words amounting to the same thing, but more readily understood by the audience. Sometimes an alternative to
[math]\ \ \ \ \ \ [/math](3) What is that supposed to mean?
What are you implying?
[math]\ \ \ \ \ \ [/math](4) What is the meaning of this?
Astonishment. As if to suggest that a situation is senseless, inexplicable, absurd.
[math]\ \ \ \ \ \ [/math](5) I mean it.
I am resolved, and what I said was said in all seriousness. Closely related to
[math]\ \ \ \ \ \ [/math](6a) He didn't mean it.
[math]\ \ \ \ \ \ [/math](6b) You don't mean that.
Speech that should not be taken at face-value, as serious and honest, and suggesting it was said with some other purpose than honest expression. Also a wish that this is the case.
[math]\ \ \ \ \ \ [/math](7) That's not what I meant.
(i) I spoke with one meaning in mind, but you interpreted my words as having another. (ii) I spoke with a particular intention, but you took me to have another. Occasionally part of an acknowledgement that my speech was ambiguous.
[math]\ \ \ \ \ \ [/math](8a) I meant to ...
[math]\ \ \ \ \ \ [/math](8b) I didn't mean to.
[math]\ \ \ \ \ \ [/math](8c) I meant to do that.
(a) I intended to ..., but I haven't.
(b) I didn't intend to. Very close to claiming exemption from blame.
(c) Said of something done unintentionally, a claim to have done it intentionally often to escape embarrassment or take credit for an accidental achievement. Never convincing.
[math]\ \ \ \ \ \ [/math](9) We had the experience but missed the meaning.
Hmmmmmm. Perhaps related to
[math]\ \ \ \ \ \ [/math](10) What does it all mean?
What is the purpose or the point of it all? Possibly provides an alternative reading of (4): what is the point or the purpose of what I am witnessing (suggesting that it has none, or none readily apparent)?
Related to
[math]\ \ \ \ \ \ [/math](11) What is the meaning of life?
Always look on the bright side of it.
:up:
You are channeling Austin, The Meaning Of A Word...
Is that true?
I can't see how it's coherent to escape the way meaning determines truth by claiming some intervening statement is true anyways.
If you're going to do that, you might as well say "the kettle is black" is true because you painted it black.
"I painted it red" isn't an un-interpreted, raw fact of this world-outside-language. It's just another already interpreted fact of the world, just like the kettle's blackness. In order to agree that you did, indeed, paint the kettle red, we need to agree what the kettle is and what 'red' is (and what 'painting' is, but we can leave that for now).
You're introducing it to the argument as if it were a purely material fact, but it's a fact of exactly the same kind as the one we're troubling over.
I love the fact that I always get a free anecdote along with the philosophy in your posts. I immediately tried the trick on my son, who was visiting. We were most amused.
But to the meat of it...
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Yes, that makes sense. In my model, I would see that as an expectation I have, a belief about what using the word "kettle" will do in the context. A belief about your beliefs, if you like. Given that the target of all this is 'truth', though, and 'truth' being traditionally a component of knowledge. I might say, for clarity, that neither I not you need to 'know' any of this. It's sufficient that we believe it.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Indeed. But never specific enough, is Ramsey's point, to make propositions about which can then be objects of the sort of analyticity that questions of Truth put them under. We might, this way, end up with a kind of private correspondence theory of truth "the kettle is black" is true for my kettle (the one I had in mind). I suspect most purveyors of truth-theories, would be dissatisfied with that.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I think that's right, but not in a concrete world-outside-language sense. The object that I'm referring to when I say "put the kettle on" may or may not have the errant screw. I may not care. my picture of it may simply not be in sufficient detail to even decide if it has the screw or not. And I think this is because the "kettle" bit of the sentence doesn't refer to an object by material composition, it refers to an object by function. What I'm referring to with "kettle" there is 'whatever it is that boils the water', not 'that collection of fundamental particles there'.
...but then, that referent is awfully hard to use as an object of correspondence, since lots of potential states answer to it.
That's pretty close, but I've maybe clarified a bit in my reply to Srap above. That categorisation is about function, not spatio-temporal locations. We're not collectively declaring that that collection of matter-soup there is a 'kettle', so much as declaring that whatever collection of matter-soup is boiling the water is a 'kettle' (plus a boatload of other functional requirements adding specificity - so 'my kettle' is 'whatever aspect of the environment boils water and I can determine where it goes without any counterclaim... 'the black kettle' is 'whatever aspect of the environment boils water and which would be difficult to see against my stove in the dark'... and so on)
Quoting fdrake
You'd be right. I couldn't see it as a cause, so much as a repetition of the sentence you're analysing. If the expression in question is "the kettle is boiling", then looking at what 'causes' it to be true seems a little disconnected. I could understand the question of what cases us to say it's true, but not of some state of the world causing an expression to have some property...
...unless maybe utility. Which (much to many people's distaste, no doubt) is the other route I'm tempted by in discussions about truth. I think the hidden states of the world constrain what we can collectively enact, which is where I diverge from the more radical idealist interpretations of model-dependence. So we might say that "the kettle is boiling" would be a useless expression unless the world were in some state.
Yep, mine too. Basically, the gap is 'black-boxed' out. I have one model where hidden states are inferred by neural networks and then acted upon (to reduce surprise), then another where in real life we name those hidden states by their collective function (by how we together act on them). So 'kettle' refers to the hidden state we treat as a kettle. Whether our treatment will be successful is between us and our models. But where 'truth' might fit is opaque. Obviously it can't reference the hidden states, that would be futile, nor the model (we don't even have access to those ourselves, only their output in terms of action). so I can't see anything in the model of how we interact with the world that 'truth' could possibly refer to... hence my preference for redundancy.
Quoting Banno
I should have read on, I could have just agreed rather than write it all out longhand...
I think 'hidden states' is a confusing term. I would prefer it weren't the one used, but it's become a technical term now, so we're stuck with it, but too many think it means hidden as if the states were just behind that rock, or round the corner. all it means is that they are in connection with nodes at a Markov boundary of a network and thereby, in some sense, 'hidden' from the nodes within that network (ones that are obviously only connected to the boundary nodes). so yes. There's no reason to think they're hidden from us in the common sense. We name them, and we make tea with them.
Admiration for the screw example. It makes it so clear that what counts as a part of the kettle is up to us.
When I say that kettles are non-linguistic I mean that they are not words or sentences or any other feature of language. Im addressing those who say that the truth of a sentence is determined by some other sentence, like some kind of coherency theory, which is false in the case of a sentence like the kettle is boiling. The truth of the sentence is determined instead by a material object and its properties.
Once we fix the meaning of a sentence such that it refers to that material object and its properties, changes to that material object and its properties change the truth value of that sentence without changing the meaning of that sentence, and so the truth of that sentence depends on more than just its meaning.
Sometimes it is raining is true and sometimes it is not raining is true. This isnt explained by us continually revising the terms in our language: its explained by events in the material world; events which occur irrespective of language.
The screw example does make clear that what counts as a kettle is up to us. Does it make clear that the truth is up to us?
But not in all cases.
I was referring to the sentence "the kettle is boiling".
I have mentioned before that I'm not talking about every sentence. Obviously the truth of a sentence like "1 + 1 = 2" does not depend on a material object and its properties. A coherency theory would be more fitting for formal system like maths.
So the truth of different sentences is determined by different things.
Is there some pattern we might use to find what it is that determines the truth of a given sentence?
Quoting Banno
IS there a way to determine X?
Well, is there a way to determine which metaphysics is correct? If materialism is correct then the truth of "the kettle is boiling" depends on the existence of a material object; if idealism is correct then the truth of "the kettle is boiling" depends on the existence of a mental phenomenon.
This is why, as I have said many times, that the T-schema doesn't say much. It doesn't answer a question like the above, which is important. We need to cash out the consequent of the biconditional. I made a start at that here:
Quoting Michael
But it says what can be said.
Try each of these with "the kettle is boiling". Again, I think you are considering too limited a set of examples.
But not what only can be said. We're not required to just stop at "snow is white" is true iff snow is white. A rigorous account should cash out the consequent of that biconditional.
Quoting Banno
I don't. I need a metaphysics to understand that a boiling kettle is a mind-independent material object, or that it's a mental phenomenon, etc.
Quoting Banno
None of these work. They say too much.
Not sure what more you want. I think I covered it when I said that a) a rigorous account of truth should cash out the consequent of the T-schema, and that b) the truth of a sentence often depends on more than just its meaning; it often depends on a material object, or on a mental phenomenon, etc.
Does that sound right to you?
So if the same thing decides that two sentences are true, then they are the same sentence - they mean the same thing.
This is ambiguous.
John being a bachelor determines that "John is not married to Jane" is true and that "John is not married to Jake" is true.
"John is not married to Jane" and "John is not married to Jake" are not the same sentence; they do not mean the same thing.
Yes, but this discussion is about truth, not meaning. Does the screw example make clear that the truth is up to us?
The way we carve up the world is probably a reflection of our make-up, physically, psychologically, culturally, etc.
To understand our language, an alien would have to put herself in our shoes and understand how our senses work. Then she could translate our statements into her language if that's possible. There's no guarantee than an alien would see us as distinct from the Earth's crust. You never know.
Since we can't see beyond our make-up, all we can do is work with the content of our interactions with our environment.
Thanks.
Quoting Michael
I'll reanimate a previous example. Those of us with an upstairs will perhaps have a landing light which has a switch upstairs and one downstairs. The landing light can be switched on or off by either switch.
We can't say, though, that whether it's on or off depends on either the upstairs or the downstairs switch. The downstairs switch could be either in the up position, or the down position and the landing light still be on. Same for the upstairs switch.
Obviously, what I disagree with is what you say "science" tells us. So clearly I will not be producing a "scientific" source to back up my disagreement. The "science" is what I disagree with. So, I produced a philosophical source, this being a philosophy forum. I don't think we should be moving toward "scientific" sources..
You and Banno, are both, slowly coming around to see that the important and significant factor in relating truth to meaning is "honesty".
The problem for Banno is a preconceived notion of "truth" expressed by the T-sentence, and the insistence on the faulty principle that there is some sort of meaning expressed by repetition of the same phrase. But that is not consistent with any of your descriptions of meaning. It is even contrary to this:
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
From Banno's refusal to reject the notion that the same phrase stated twice expresses some sort of meaning, or something about meaning, and insistence that truth is just this, stating the same phrase twice, we cannot get a bridge from "truth" to "meaning". The faulty representation of "meaning" prevents the possibility of such a relation.
However, if we turn things around, and start from a serious representation of meaning, we see that there are numerous ways to create a relationship between meaning and truth, such as the following:
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
But of course, Banno's steadfast refusal to dismiss this idea that the T-schema says something about a relationship between between truth and meaning, despite having been advised of this from just about everyone here, stymies any progress on this matter.
Quoting Andrew M
Considering Tarski's T-Sentence "snow is white" is true IFF snow is white, you are right that the T-sentence is the metalanguage, not the right-hand side of the biconditional.
Quoting Andrew M
Quoting Andrew M
We agree that snow is white, and we agree that "white" could have been used to denote the colour green.
Assume that "green" was used to denote the colour white.
Given that snow is white, "snow" denotes snow, "white" denotes green and "green" denotes white, then "snow is white" denotes snow is green.
Also, "snow is green" denotes snow is white.
If snow is white, then "snow is green" is true.
IE, "snow is green" is true IFF snow is white.
In that event, doesn't this mean that Tarski's T-sentence would be false ?
Quoting Banno
Maybe another way to put it is that the truthmaker, whatever it is, is decided by the people in a conversation. So rather than there being an eternal truth-maker which secures our true sentences, we are the ones who get to decide what counts as a truthmaker.
We must be making progress because I have something to say in response to almost every sentence here.
Quoting Isaac
There is too much to say here, so this is a placeholder for an entire discussion, which doesn't really belong in this thread, despite its wanderings.
I'll say this much: this is exactly what you should say because despite being an externalist about semantics ((I think, kinda)), you're still an internalist about propositional attitudes and thus mental states; of course you have no use for knowledge as a category, because for you knowledge has parts and the only part that matters -- that drives action -- is belief. But all that's wrong: knowledge doesn't have parts, not truth, not belief, despite entailing both truth and belief; and the explanation of action solely in terms of narrow conditions, as the internalist would have it, is weaker than the explanation of action in terms of wide conditions, as the externalist would.
Quoting Isaac
Show me that with the given example. You know about the missing screw; does it matter enough that you consider it when referring to the kettle? ((Never mind, I'm just about to do it for you.))
Quoting Isaac
Of course your picture doesn't have every physical detail of the kettle; that's the nature of pictures.
Suppose it doesn't matter whether the screw is restored, and your picture (here a stand-in for your intention) doesn't show that it has or hasn't been. Then your picture is indeed specific enough, contra your general claim above.
Suppose it does matter whether the screw is restored, and your picture shows the kettle with the screw it lacks. Your picture is inaccurate in a salient way, and that will make a difference in actions you or I undertake relying on it.
Suppose it does matter whether the screw is restored, and your picture correctly shows the kettle missing that screw, then your action will be more effective, as will mine if you tell me there's a screw missing, if you share this crucial knowledge with me.
The most interesting case -- because it looks like it's the hardest for me -- is this one: suppose it doesn't matter whether the screw is restored, and your picture shows (correctly) that it hasn't or (incorrectly) that it has. It seems that actions taken under the false belief will come off just as well as actions taken under the true one,** because the belief concerns a detail that is irrelevant. This is not much different from making tea thinking it's Tuesday when it's actually Wednesday, but different for us because we might be tempted to say that in one case that you have an intention toward the actual (unrepaired) object in the kitchen, while in the other you have an intention toward an object, the kettle repaired, that doesn't exist. You might even use the kettle for weeks thinking you had fixed it at some point, only to discover that you never did and it made no difference.
But this is a known, and settled, issue: descriptivist accounts of names are just wrong. (You can successfully refer to George Washington even if everything you think you know about him is false.) The upshot here is that you successfully refer to the kettle in the kitchen despite possibly holding a false belief about it, perhaps many (what brand is it? when did you get it? didn't you have to replace it and this is the new one, or was that a different kettle?) and your intention should be taken, in proper externalist fashion, to be toward the actual object, not toward your possibly mistaken idea of the object.
(I probably have some cleaning up to do, but I only owe an account of the efficaciousness of knowledge in intentional action, not of the non-efficaciousness of non-knowledge in intentional action, if you see what I mean. And that's a side issue here.)
Quoting Isaac
I've never found any of this sort of thing -- reducing objects to collections of fundamental particles -- at all attractive, but your alternative here is a non-starter isn't it? The kettle is not just any vessel for boiling water, but the one in the kitchen, the one you mean, the one you have an intention toward. This is easy peasy if you allow the object to be partially constitutive of your mental state, instead of assuming you need this go-between that is your idea of the object. You don't have intentions toward any such idea -- that's the lesson above -- but toward what you have ideas about.
** Note added:
This is poorly worded because knowledge is not just true belief. The assumption here is that the kettle is just fine without the screw. Suppose I believe that the kettle has been fixed because I believe I finally remembered to fix it last week -- and I nearly did, but then didn't; and suppose you, unknown to me, did actually fix the kettle. I don't know the kettle has been fixed, though I have a true belief that it has been fixed. That's epistemic luck. I handle the kettle as if it's been fixed and have no trouble; I might even attribute my successful endeavors with the kettle to my having fixed it, even though our assumption here is that it would have made no difference if the kettle had still been unfixed. There's another kind of luck there.
Would you also agree that we are deciding not just what is the case but how it is the case, how it is relevant? Asking a language community if it is true that the kettle is boiling and assuming that a unanimous yes means all participants are sharing a fact of the matter ( whether a fact of the real world or a fact of linguistic use) imposes a certain presupposition on the situation. If we believe that an agreed upon truth is a shared sense of meaning , it will steer us away from investigating individual differences in interpretation of the true situation. For our purposes, the discrepancies either do not exist or are ignored.
If on the other hand, we understand the agreed upon truth that the kettle is boiling to amount to distinguishable individual positions of interpretive sense , of what is at stake, within a loosely interconnected community of participants( what the kettle is, what boiling means, how truth operates for us, what it is about the kettle boiling that matters to us), what we wil do with our truth may be different than in the first case. Our interest will be focused not on the use within the community of a unitary sense of meaning (the truth of the boiling kettle), but the responsive positioning and repositioning of each participants role within a partially shared discursive situation. From this vantage, the dialogic back and forth of judging the truth of a matter within a community doesnt secure what is at issue as a single selfsame object of sense. (the truth of the boiling kettle).
Rather ,the responsive engagement of mutual adjudication is a shifting reciprocal adjustment of significance of claims and their justification.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
The thing is there are probably many facts I have learned which I cannot remember, and continue to be unable to remember, let's say even for many years. But one day the memory may surface and I know a long forgotten fact again. Could I be said to have known it all along? Does it depend on how long I forget something, or how often?
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Sure, I'm not committed to it; it just occurred to me as an alternative usage, and I thought I'd give it a run to see whether it causes more or less confusion, sharpens anything up and so on. Perhaps it's an example of something that comes from knowing myself (in the Biblical sense). :wink:
Yes.
The main thing is to recognize when propositional attitude verbs are factive. If I remember that today is Joe's birthday, then today is Joe's birthday. When I see that a package has been delivered, a package has in fact been delivered. If I regret leaving my car window down, it's down.
What about all the times you end up being wrong? I remember that today is Joe's birthday, but that turns out to be wrong. The thing I though was a package turns out to just be a piece of trash. It starts raining, and I regret that I left the car window down, yet it turns out that I actually didn't leave it down.
Then you didn't. Nobody's talking about infallibility here. You thought you did, you could've sworn it was today, whatever. But "I remember that I put my keys on the table," if true, entails that I did. No more than any other sort of statement, propositional attitude reports cannot vouch for their own truth.
Right, so the example was remembering after a long time something I have forgotten. Is my remembering it the criterion for saying that I knew it all along? What if I never remember something I once knew, but have forgotten, is it then the case that I nonetheless know it? If so would the criterion for saying that I know it be that I once knew it? Once known, always known, then?
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
So, you seem to be saying that if I remember or regret something, then that something is a fact, and that even though it seems like I might remember or regret something, if that thing is not a fact, then I am not remembering or regretting it, but merely think I am remembering or regretting?
Yes.
Quoting Janus
Who can say? We do of course lose knowledge.
And look none of this is transparent to us. You can rack your brains trying to remember something, conclude that you've well and truly forgotten, and then an hour and half later it pops into your head. So it goes.
Quoting Janus
Yes, and I think obviously so, if you just think about what you're saying.
"Steve can see that Mark is uncomfortable," if true, entails that Mark is uncomfortable. If it's false, we've got nothing: maybe Mark is uncomfortable, maybe not. But it can't be true without Mark in fact being uncomfortable.
If it can truly be said of me that I remembered that you don't like strawberries, then it must be the case that you don't like strawberries, There are multiple ways for this to go wrong. I could be thinking of someone else, so it's false that I'm remembering something about you; I could be lying, claiming to remember this when I'm just guessing, so false again; and of course if you do like strawberries then there's no way I could remember that you don't -- I can only be under the mistaken impression that you don't, so again no true memory.
Go on...
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I'm with you so far, but all this seems to make our vague picture sufficient to get the job done. I'm not seeing the link to it being sufficient for the analysis of truth.
In order to get you to make tea, my picture of the kettle can be vague (not even deciding if it includes the screw or not), it can be mistaken (I could think al along that it's a mine when it belongs to you)...it doesn't matter one jot to get the job done since you can infer my intent sufficiently.
But in order to check the truth of "the kettle is boiling", it's insufficient. Unless all you want to be true is "the kettle {the picture I have of it at the time I'm speaking this sentence} is boiling {the idea of 'boiling'' that I have at the time of speaking this sentence}". That, I suppose, could be true by correspondence, but only the speaker would know and only at the time of speaking, so I can't see that being the story of 'truth' the correspondence theorists are looking for here.
The point I was making was that if we cannot collectively and permanently agree on what a kettle is, the we cannot asses the truth value of any statement about it by correspondence. Correspondence to what?
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I don't even agree here, but ready to be schooled. In what way 'successful'? If I think GW is cow an what her to be brought to me for milking and say "fetch me George Washington". When I'm brought a US president, I'm certainly not going to think my reference was successful.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Yes. I used 'the one which boils the water' as shorthand. we could add 'the one which boils the water, the one which I get to take home without conflict, the one which I can reach when I sat on the rocking chair...' We can still make a functional account. It just takes imagination, because writing it all down longhand is tiresomely time-consuming.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I agree. I'm not sure if you're think I don't, but, for clarity, I do.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I think this just shows the problems with attributing the idea of 'knowledge' to truth. Fraught with such problems. Knowledge as justified true belief doesn't really make any sense. But that's definitely another thread, one that I think already exists even...
Wasn't meant to be. This round of the conversation was my attempt to clarify the merry-go-round several of you were on that seemed to me to come down to a problem about reference rather than a problem about truth. I still think that. The endless back and forth was about whether the kettle is a linguistic object.
Speaking of truth:
Quoting Isaac
Quoting Isaac
I suppose I could be wrong, but this is not how I understand things.
A substantive theory of truth would be a metaphysical theory that explains why true statements are true and false statements are not true. It's an account of what constitutes the truth of a proposition. Or maybe what makes a proposition true. Or in virtue of what a proposition is true. And so on.
It doesn't tell you how to check whether a statement is true; it doesn't tell you how to assess the truth-value of a statement, so perforce not even a correspondence theory, if anyone has one of those, would tell you that you assess the truth-value of a statement by checking to see if it corresponds to something or other. What a correspondence theory would say is that if a proposition is true, it is true because it corresponds to 'the facts' or whatever.
It's poor philosophy to reject well-established facts about the world.
Quoting RussellA
Not at all. The object language is in quotes (let's call it Greenglish), while the metalanguage is conventional English. If the object language were instead German, it would be:
"Schnee ist weiß" is true IFF snow is white.
The RHS is an English translation of the German sentence in quotes on the LHS. If snow is white, both sentences are true. If not, both sentences are false.
Similarly, in your example, the RHS is a conventional English translation of Greenglish. If snow is white, both sentences are true. If not, both sentences are false.
Ok, I just wanted that clarification the qualifier, "if true". If we have no way of knowing for sure whether what we honestly believe "is true" or not, then what good is the "propositional attitude"? It cannot be an acceptable logical principle, to allow us to draw any valid conclusions.
Quoting Andrew M
No, it's called skepticism, and that is by no means "poor philosophy". Only uninformed philosophers would call it that.
Well, you've raised it to a fine art!
The issue, as I see it, is that observational data and evidence should inform our philosophy. When there's a conflict, that's a signal that we need to check our premises.
Well, I mean, it's exactly that, and nothing else.
The inference rule
[math]\ \ \ \ \ Kp\ \vdash\ p[/math]
Allows you to conclude p from Kp, but doesn't tell you whether Kp is true. It is indeed just a logical principle along the lines of modus ponens, which also can't tell you that your premises are true. Does that make modus ponens useless?
I don't think this thread can or should accommodate a digression on names (though maybe we're going to end up there anyway).
I will, though, point you back to Oliver Sacks's dad and the glass on the table. The essence of that joke is the conflict between dad's descriptivist theory of his reference to the glass,** and little Oliver's more causal, externalist theory of his dad's reference. That should clarify the difference at least. Is it a coincidence that Oliver is capable of retrieving the intended glass but not even Zeus could act on Oliver's dad's theory?
(I'm cheating a little, but in a way warranted by our examples, because definite descriptions are ambiguous between picking out an unknown object that uniquely answers to the description, and picking out a known object by what amounts to the construction of a nonce name. Here, I'm relying on the latter in treating "the kettle" and "the glass on the table" as essentially names. It may well be I have forgotten too much about this and am passing over some important distinction there.)
** Or, I should probably say, his pretense of holding such a view.
Upon re-reading you and I, my thoughts keep getting stuck on "deciding" -- we decide, yes, but I'm less certain that I decide. However, I'd agree with your picture in your second paragraph -- I don't deny individuality, only de-emphasize it. I'd say that the communal meaning supersedes individual meaning insofar that the community decides what counts as "significant": we and not I, as much, decide upon significance, and what counts as significant is what binds together communities (significance is that layer of interpretation that allows us to have conflicting beliefs and see one another as belonging still).
Now, as an individual member of a community, yes -- this here:
Quoting Joshs
is a good description. I'd say this is a "closer" view from where I've been sitting, which is assuming some amount of "fixidness" from the history of English itself. But I think I agree with you in saying that the history is changeable, that it morphs with our usage. It's just got an incredible amount of momentum at this point. It's not a fresh abstraction that we get to define. Rather, we trace with the tools we've inherited.
So I'm hesitant to use "decision" when it comes to "how to" -- "decision" might give the impression that we have libertarian freedom with respect to our beliefs. I'm not sure I'd say my beliefs are like that. I'd say they are partially inherited, though certainly I've changed them too with time (and mis-use). Perhaps what I'd say is that an individual has their way of doing things, and "how to" or "significance" can change by presenting one's viewpoint to the group, but the signification only changes if enough people within a group adopt the belief about significance that an individual offers.
Quoting Michael
I think that's a pretty strong argument against a position, though I'm not sure that that your opposition would have to accept that it's aimed correctly. I think it highlights the necessary role non-linguistic stuff plays in the language using activities we do. Though I imagine that quibbles are very possible since the argument doesn't contain the phrase "linguistic", so the opportunity to put non-linguistic stuff into semantic content still seems available to an opponent. I believe this was the strategy @Banno gestured towards later; that it's a category error to think that the non-linguistic stuff is "really" non-linguistic since arbitrary environmental objects can be brought into language practice as semantic content.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Glad we see eye to eye. I don't know if we can have the discussion that we'd like to have without clearing the ground, I take it this is what you've been doing.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Nothing more to add. And yes, I was trying to smuggle in more phenomenological accounts of interpretation with how I was using it!
Quoting Luke
I think correspondence is one way of looking at it; it really can be that a statement is true because it corresponds to the facts. But I think that for a deflationist this simultaneously says too much and too little. Too much because it doesn't necessarily reflect the T-sentence (can you have a correspondence without a truth? A representational relationships truth preserving? That kind of thing) and too little because it confines the enmeshment of world and declarative language to a particular mode (correspondence).
Though I really appreciate the broader thrust towards truth-makers:
Quoting Luke
:up:
Quoting Isaac
Thank you for the clarification. I agree that with the functional equivalence angle; namely two expressions will mean the same thing if they function in the same way. As a sub-case, two denotations will denote the same thing if those denotation practices function in the same way. I think where we differ is that I interpret the pragmatic context as part of the function, and the function itself isn't situated within a body, it's situated between bodies, in the environment, and within bodies - like with @Srap Tasmaner 's comment about externalism vs internalism of semantic content. I don't think "the science" sides with either side on that, at least not yet, so it remains a site of substantive philosophical disagreement.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I also want to "yes, and" Srap in the context of functionalism + externalism, you don't necessarily need to have language tied to definite mental states with their folk psychology categories to be an externalist on this issue, you just need the functions to involve and sufficiently incorporate stuff in the environment. Like saying "the kettle is boiling" when it is indeed boiling.
That "sufficient incorporation" I believe is where the truth and like concepts come in; accuracy, fidelity, relevance and so on.
Even if you put non-linguistic stuff/environmental objects into semantic content it is still the case that this non-linguistic stuff/environmental object is a determinant for truth. "The kettle is boiling" being true depends on the existence of the material object referred to by the phrase "the kettle".
I really didn't think that this would be such a controversial point. The world isn't just a conversation we have with each other. The materialist will say that there are material objects that exist and have properties, irrespective of what we say; the idealist will say that there is mental phenomena that occurs and has qualities, irrespective of what we say. That our language "carves up" this stuff isn't that this stuff isn't there, or doesn't factor into a sentence being true.
It's not the case that we just define every sentence in our language and the truth of every sentence follows from those definitions, so it must be that something which isn't our language plays an essential role. That is what my argument tries to show.
Yes. I agree it's strange that it's controversial. But I don't find it surprising any more. Philosophy in both analytic and continental traditions has spent a lot of time in recent years subtly correlating "mind independent" with "mind dependent" reality. I don't think we're a particularly hardline materialist forum, definitely more a correlationist one!
A side note, possibly off track.
One way I've seen Davidson's program described is that he aims at explaining not what a given sentence means or what makes it true, but more fundamentally at speaker's competence; hence the claim that if you understand all the T-sentences of a language, then you understand that language. (That set of T-sentences is a theory of meaning for that language. Wittgenstein makes similarly holistic noises, but the point here is vaguely against compositionality, I think.)
But here's a question people might be inclined to answer very differently: if you understand all the T-sentences of a language, do you also understand a world? Or maybe even the world? Either answer is interesting.
Maybe Davidson alludes to this somewhere, I wouldn't know.
Then, suppose we were in the same room -- me picking up the kettle is also already linguistic. Language is embedded in the body; gesture is often as important as the written word in determining the meaning of a sentence. And by picking up the kettle I'm showing we've already individuated it, named it, have a handful of predicates we might use -- I can't not see the kettle as a kettle, for the most part. It's always-already linguistic, as an individuated thing that I'm thinking about and predicating things of.
Basically the same problem I've been criticizing correspondence: every instance of explaining something non-linguistic will be done linguistically, even if we include gestures and kettles and such into our language. So "fact" starts to take on a place-holder position more than being an actual thing, a placeholder to mean "the real" or "true sentences" or something like that -- all understood by us being able to speak.
I agree that the world is not a conversation. But I believe our activity in the world is linguistic, in the bigger sense of language: to include kettles and gestures and such.
I'd say no. My first instinct is to deny the scenario because it's impossible :D But that's no fun.
I mean, at the least, you'd have to understand all the T-sentences of all languages, it seems to me. "a world" appears different depending on the natural language I use. At the very minimal way, the phonic substance differs, which creates different relationships between concepts through phonic relationships.
Its not just how we use language. I say the kettle is boiling, you say the kettle is not boiling. One of us is right and one of us is wrong, and the thing that determines that isnt me saying one thing and you saying the other (else which of us is right?).
Its the existence of a material object (or set of material objects if you prefer, or mental phenomena if idealism is correct) and its behaviour that determines which of us is speaking the truth.
Only because we care about truth in relation to the material world, though. English is set up like that: Here we have a language with a truth predicate and a false predicate. We're able of expressing opposition. We already agree that there are kettles, that boiling is something they can or cannot do, that negation of a proposition indicates that both cannot be true at the same time. There's a lot of conceptual work that comes "along with" understanding a language, and evaluating whether a propositions is true or false. So much so that we're not really sure how much language is doing and how much the world is doing. Individuation, in particular, is something I'm really not sure about being a mental or material phenomena. if it's a mental phenomena, then quite literally it's not the material world -- which could be just one big fact -- that makes the sentence true. It's that we have minds that can individuate parts of a world that is, in fact, wholly connected and not individuated at all.
Yes, and Im trying to describe how truth works in the English (or other natural) language. So I dont understand this response.
Id say no. Understanding that snow is green iff snow is green and that snow is white iff snow is white isnt understanding that snow is white. For that you have to actually look at the material world/experience it.
"7 + 5 = 12" is true
My suggestion is that "the kettle" works in a similar manner as "7" -- they are both abstract names. It's not like I go about saying "kettle00110292910" or some other unique identifier. And in fact it'd be confusing if I did do that. In a particular conversation we understand that we're using the abstract name as a particular name. The only difference is what we decide to use the names for, and which predicates link said name to the set of "true propositions" and which predicates link said name to the set of "false propositions"
Most of the sentences, should we choose to go through it, about the kettle I bet we'd say we'd agree upon. In this scenario the only one we disagree upon is the predicate "...is boiling"
So what makes it true or false is, in fact, its boiling. But "...is boiling" is also linguistic. It's understood in a wider sense. After all "...is boiling" as applied to a kettle really just means whatever is inside it is in the state of boiling, transitioning from a liquid to a gas. The kettle itself isn't boiling at all, if we choose to use the general name "kettle" to only refer to the metallic kettle, and not the water inside. It's only because we agree upon what "the kettle" picks out that we can even check the material world in the first place.
But we still have to check the material world because it is the material world that determines whether or not the sentence is true. All youre saying is that we decide what the sentence means. The meaning of a sentence isnt the truth of the sentence. The truth depends on the meaning, but it also depends on the material world.
Unless something is true by definition, S means p, therefore S is true is an obvious non sequitur.
That just strikes me as clearly false. I understand the point you're making, but lately on this forum people making that point use the phrase "forms of life" more often than they use "language-games" to try to mitigate its implausibility.
Quoting Moliere
Language, in obvious ways, supervenes on the body and on gesture. No fine motor control, no speech, no writing. Can you say the same thing the other way? Obviously not.
"In the beginning was the word" is false.
Would you say that significance is equivalent to what matters to me, what is relevant and how it is relevant to me ( or to us)? And arent these terms equivalent to the sense of a meaning? In Wittgensteins example of workers establishing the sense of meaning of their work-related interchanges( requests , corrections, instructions, questions, etc) , the words they send back and forth to each other get their sense in the immediate context of how each participant responds to the other. It seems to me the we of larger groups must be based, as an abstractive idealization, on this second-person structure of responsive dialogic interaction. The particular sense of meaning of a consensus-based notion can never simply refer back to the dictates of an amorphous plurality we call a community. A community realizes itself in action that , as Jean-Luc Nancy says, singularizes itself as from
one to the next to the next.
It does seem to me that people have been taken so completely by Wittgenstein and those like him that theyre being bewitched by language in the opposite direction. Now apparently everything is language.
"Forms of life" is a phrase I try not to use because I don't feel like I really understand it too well -- "language-games" I feel comfortable with, though.
Would it help if I called gesture linguistic in a broad sense, whereas "kettle" is linguistic in a narrow sense? Or does that just seem obviously wrong-headed, to you? Better to keep "language" to refer to the written word?
I should have replied to this too -- ah well.
I agree with this entirely.
Do you have nonlinguistic experiences? I don't think everyone does.
Maybe. I've been taking "meaning" as primary for this thread -- so rather than having a theory of meaning, I've been attempting to use the semantics of English to get at truth. So I'd probably do the same here -- assume meaning to spell out significance.
I definitely had the slab-brothers in mind in saying what I've said about including gesture in language. And I think I agree that a community realizes itself in action. And I agree that no one in a community could say "well the community says" or something along those lines -- I'm not sure communal meaning fits within dictates, or even entirely fits within beliefs (aren't there communal stories, myths, feelings, or relationships at least in addition to communal belief?)
I agree. I suppose what's still got me is the abstracta -- if we have any sentences in English which do not refer to material conditions, and that sentence is true, and correspondence is true, then the abstract sentences must correspond to some fact that is not-material. I don't think there is such a fact, so I'd reject correspondence theory as a universal theory of truth -- since 7 + 5 is 12, and "7 + 5 = 12" is true.
So do I. I think coherence is a better fit for formal systems like maths.
As a rough analogy to explain the difference, speech depends on a speaker, but it doesnt correspond to a speaker.
Probably a bad idea. Language is a real thing, a specific thing. Not every form of communication, for instance, is language. Neither is every form of intentional or referential action linguistic.
Gesture, for instance may in some cases be propositional without being linguistic. That's messy, but I don't have anything riding on it. What does matter is that there is a well-known linguistic use of gesture in sign language. If you just define all gesture up front as linguistic, you miss what distinguishes sign language from pointing or waving.
Quoting Michael
I think that sentences depending on material objects is close enough to count for my purposes. For me I'm getting caught up in the notion that it's us who decide what counts as "material object" -- "us" historically, at least, since "Kettle" is a word with that kind of history. Yes, the material object matters to truth, but that's because we're using "truth" just like that.
Maybe this is just something we'd go back and forth on though :D -- maybe it's nothing.
You can hardly be faulted for that. It's a linguistic gesture that seems to have no propositional content.
Everything is text, even if in the beginning there was no word. I'm thinking this is more a transcendental condition of understanding rather than a metaphysical thesis -- language is how we come to understand the world. Before we were linguistically adept we had very little in the way of understanding. And as we develop our linguistic powers we're able to see more of the world than we were before. Even on an individual level, that can be experienced.
However, unlike Kant, I don't think I'd say this "cuts us off" from the really real -- rather, what's really real is just right there before us always-already changing. To understand is to grasp the world with language. But the world changes and we have to go back out into it, dip into the elementality constituted by my own desire to build again my edifice of understanding-grasping the world.
Language as a specific thing is English, Spanish, Chinese, Russian, sign language . . . the natural languages each have their names, and they have specific traits as you say. And in the broad sense they all count as writing.
Language in the broad sense includes gesture as outside of even sign-language. Sign-language, after all, is just writing with a medium other than ink or sound, and the person speaking-writing in sign-language can also point and wave and jump for joy and clap and smile and so on. And we are even able to distinguish between sign-language and gesture when someone is signing to us!
BUT -- as you say:Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I'm just writing the above to get at where I was coming from. I'm fine with not using this way of talking, and keeping "language" for the narrow sense to keep things clear, especially as I am uncertain how to be super specific in the broad sense. It just seemed relevant to truth is all.
The T-schema doesnt say much and is compatible with more substantial theories of truth, e.g:
7 + 5 = 12 is true iff 7 + 5 = 12, and
7 + 5 = 12 iff 7 + 5 = 12 follows from the axioms of maths, therefore
7 + 5 = 12 is true iff 7 + 5 = 12 follows from the axioms of maths
Sure. I mean, I said exactly that earlier in the thread :D
The problem is that they aren't universal. And, in order to evaluate "better fit" for any given theory of truth, you'd have to understand truth already. So the very act of being able to evaluate correspondence/coherence in particular circumstances means we must already have some understanding of truth that is neither correspondence or coherence, at least if by "better fit" we mean "seems to be about the right description"
Your wording is ambiguous and leaves it open to equivocation. We decide that the word "water" refers to this stuff, that the symbol "2" refers to this number, that the letters "H" and "O" in chemistry refer to these elements, but we don't decide that water is H[sub]2[/sub]O.
The T-schema suffers from the same problem, as I mentioned before.
1. "p" is foo iff p
This is not a theory, or definition, of "foo".
If we want an actual definition of truth then we need some q such that [is] true means q, or p is true means q.
And what would those be?
"p" is T iff p
Using English to provide an interpretation to the schema:
p is any statement in English
" " is the mention operator, where a statement is converted into a name for that same statement.
is T is "... is true", as understood by us as speakers of English.
iff is the familiar logical connective from baby logic.
In general, I'd accept any natural language though. I'm using English because we are. I imagine some natural languages which don't have this structure which this doesn't work for. Also, note, that there isn't some concept securing truth here -- it's really just the history of the predicate "... is true".
The dialogical game I posited with this, when it comes to natural languages, has basically already taken place. There's a few hundred years worth of English usage which gives "... is true" its sense.
This is all I meant by a natural language semantics -- the meaning one gets by understanding a language. If you grant that English sentences have meaning, at least.
If [s]so[/s] not... eh... I guess it's just squeeks and squawks all the way down? I'm not really sure there. It's an intriguing notion, but one that doesn't make a lick of sense to me really.
Supposing the search is for an account of what makes any sentence true, holism in some form enters into the discussion from the beginning.
Holism in some form follows if one accepts the Tarski's idea that a theory of truth must generate a sentence of the form "S" is true IFF X for every sentence of the object language.
Davidson's holism links truth, meaning, attitudes, beliefs and the contents of each.
Wittgenstein talks of a form of life, a bringing together of language games, hinge propositions, and common intentions in a just so story.
Yes, it's hand- waving; but so is pointing to where we are going. If you don't know where you're going, any road will take you there.
We learn the vocabulary and formation rules, and iteratively generate innumerable sentences.
So not
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
but that if you understand how to construct a T-sentences of any sentence in the language, then you understand that language.
Similarly,
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
is not the question; it's rather if you can construct a T-sentence for any sentence in the language, what is it that you have not understood?
I think I agree, though I'm slightly unclear on what the first part of your post is saying. (The explanation of T-sentences in English.)
I think there are three possible answers:
(1) Semantics in terms of truth conditions, and no analysis of "is true" is possible because of circularity.
(2) Semantics in terms of truth conditions, and the T-schema is the semantics of "is true". That's it; that's all it can be.
(3) Something besides truth conditions.
I'm not following this. I think of holism as indicating that the members of the set are not independent in some respect, in this case truth. Isn't the construction of T-sentences a one-by-one affair?
Quoting Banno
Gotcha. I can never remember quite how he puts this. But this is quite mechanical isn't it? I could construct T-sentences for any collection of sentences of whatever language, whether I understand it or them or not. What am I missing?
Yes, I agree.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
It's not like modus ponens though, because unlike modus ponens, the premises do not necessitate the conclusion. The proposition "I remember that today is Joe's birthday", does not necessitate the conclusion that today is Joe's birthday, without the added premise that my memory is infallible. But that proposition is not stated, nor would it be acceptable as a premise if it was stated. So it's like modus ponens with a hidden premise, which if it were stated, would be rejected as false. Therefore conclusions drawn in this way are unsound.
Yes it does. No claim that someone's memory is infallible is needed to support the claim that, in this case, it is accurate. Neither does modus ponens require p to be a necessary truth. (Which would just make the exercise pointless.)
In modus ponens, the conclusion follows necessarily from the premises. The conclusion, that today is Joe's birthday does not follow necessarily from the premise "I remember that today is Joe's birthday", because there is no premise to relate "I remember", to what "is".
But the connection is right there: the conclusion is the object of the propositional attitude.
You cannot know what is not so. You cannot see what is not there. You cannot remember what did not happen. You cannot regret doing what you did not do.
Every failure you imagine of claims like these are cases where you are simply wrong -- you think it's so but it isn't, you think it's there but it isn't, you think it happened but it didn't, you think you did but you didn't. When you're right, what you are right about is a fact.
My saying that I know, or that you know, or that someone else knows, is of course no guarantee. So what? Logic doesn't guarantee the truth of what you say, but connects one truth to another.
That's all we're doing here. There's nothing particularly subtle about it.
I lean toward (2), but I just don't know enough to say.
I keep thinking there's something of interest there in truth as a sort of identity function. Have you noticed that it works for anything you might count as a truth-value? It works for "unknown," it works for "likely" or "probably," even for numerical probabilities. Whatever you plug in for the truth-value of p, that's the truth-value of p is true. If you think of logic as a sort of algebra, that makes the is-true operator (rather than predicate) kind of interesting.
I'm not clear where this is going. I don't think there's anything about saying that "the kettle" is defined functionally which renders it victim to Oliver's dad's joke position.
If I say "Pass me the kettle", I'm just using an expression which I've learned is a tool to get something done. In my terminology, I have an expectation that the world be such that I can fill something with water and I'm interacting with the world via language to make it match my expectation. It's a prediction of what action will make it that way. As Wittgenstein has it at the beginning of the PI, I could have just said "kettle!", or simply pointed to it and clicked my fingers.
Nothing here defines what "the Kettle" means in any specific way. It's a tool I reach for as part of a strategy to get some change in the world enacted, and it's non-specific. So long as it gets the job done. It's sufficient, it seems to keep these expressions vague, relying on compound ones to be more specific "that kettle over there, the red on, not the black one..."
The point of all this was to say that there's no eternal, external, definition of what constitutes "the kettle" that anyone could use to determine the truth (by correspondence) of "'the kettle is black' is true". There's no corresponding external world object to "the kettle"
"The kettle" is a linguistic act. Saying that something corresponded to it would be like saying that something corresponds to my extended finger when I'm pointing at the kettle. If I point and say "pass me the kettle", nothing different has happened than if I point and click my fingers, motion with my had that you're to pass me the object I'm pointing to. But we don't say that my action with my hands 'corresponds' to the object in question, so why should my actions with my voice box do so?
With the pointing and gesturing, I rely on the fact that you share sufficient aspects of my expectations, and that my goals are sufficiently part of yours, that you'll see my actions as evidence for your policies. The same seems the case with language acts.
Bring this back to 'Truth', the notion that "X is true" can be checked by examining the properties of X relies on 'X' referring to some fixed set of properties. But 'X' doesn't refer to a fixed set of properties. 'X' doesn't refer at all, it's a type of action that gets a job done, it doesn't refer any more than lifting my arm does.
As I said above to Srap, The idea that I can change the external world by some vocalisation (same for doing so by some gesture) to others does indeed rely on the notion that those other sufficiently share my models, and that co-operation is sufficiently part of their policy, for those gestures to work. But I don't agree that it requires a set of shared 'meanings' which are then reified to some objective status with sufficient specificity to be amenable to truth analysis. We can invent gestures on the hoof and still be understood. If there's a language barrier, certain words are quickly learned (and what is learned, is what the word does). Communicating with someone who doesn't share my language is less efficient, but still very possible and we can carry out many basic co-operative tasks, we don't seem to need an already prepared external system of word and reference.
So I think, yes, this is all about our shared would, but I don't think the co-operation this is all here to allow requires an actual set of word>reference facts that are external to our intentions. It simply requires that we're similar enough in intentions and co-operative enough in policy that we can see evidence, in another's behaviour, of what we need to do to bring about the state of the world which includes helping the other.
Eh, I'm just feeling around here too. One thing I'm leery of with (2) is that I've been saying I assume meaning -- so really I'm asking my interlocutor if they agree that we understand English sentences. Insofar that we agree upon that then the rest follows. But if you ask me to specify a semantics, then I can no longer specify truth. Here we'd be taking the tactic of assuming truth to spell out meaning.
But I think I'm still thinking (3) since I'm assuming meaning to spell out truth with English. (2) because of the actual history of semantics, though, has weight. And starting at something so specific as the English predicate ". . . is true" is much more at my level of being able to conceptualize. (L1? L2? What? :D)
Hah, no I had not noticed. I think what keeps what I've been trying to say from collapsing into an algebra, where is-true is an operator on propositions, is the actual history. I like the relationship that's spelled out by the T-sentence which shows how truth is embedded within used language. When using a statement -- that's what has a truth-value. That's what's truth-apt. When naming a statement, that's what we assign truth-value. It's a judgment. But the used statement is what counts as the truth-apt statement.
Quoting Isaac
Is this typically what the word "truth" (or "is true") does?
Quoting Isaac
I thought we were discussing what "is true" does, not what "X" (or "the kettle" or "the kettle is boiling") does.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I find the part in bold problematic. Is "p" is foo iff p the semantics of "is foo"?
As I said at the start of this discussion, I think a distinction needs to be made between these two claims:
a. "p" is true iff p
b. "'p' is true" means "p"
I would say that (b) would count as an explanation of the semantics of "is true" but that (a) doesn't.
All of these examples, "know", "see", "remember", and "regret", require another premise establishing a relationship between each one of them, and "what is", in order to produce a valid conclusion.
There is no premise which states that if you "know" it, it is. No premise which states that if you "see" it, it is, nor for "remember", or "regret".
I could just as easily say, "if I feel like it's going to rain this afternoon, then it is going to rain", or, "intuition tells me so". What makes "regret", "remember", "see", or "know" produce a more valid conclusion than "feel" or "intuit"? Or, we could take the example from . If I say "pass me the kettle" does this imply that there actually is a kettle? Validity requirements do not allow us to make such conclusions. That's why a definition of sorts is a required part of the premises.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Logic guarantees that properly derived conclusions are valid. Your conclusions for the attitudinal propositions are not valid, because they depend on unstated definitions for terms like "know", "see", etc.. Valid logic uses premises which state something necessary, or essential about a term ('man is mortal' for example), and then it proceeds to utilize that necessity stated, to produce a valid conclusion.
You have not stated the necessary premises concerning the terms, "know", "see", etc;, to produce a valid conclusion. And, if you did state those premises, "if you know it then it is true", "if you see it then it is true", they would just be rejected as false propositions. So it's as if you believe that by not stating the required premises you can avoid having them rejected as false, and simply proceed to produce a valid conclusion without the required premises through some sort of sophistry. But you cannot, because the premises are required to produce a valid conclusion.
You mean if I wrote something like this?
[math]\ \ \ \ \ Kp\ \vdash\ p[/math]
Like stating that kind of premise? Or would you prefer something like this?
[math]\ \ \ \ \ \forall p(\exists x Kxp\ \to\ p)[/math]
But then, honestly, I'm not sure what there is to talk about if your position is that one can know things that are not so, see things that are not there, remember things that did not happen, and regret doing things you did not do.
I'll let you have the last word.
You just read the Tarski, right? I haven't done that in years, so you're better placed than I.
I think, yes, that is the semantics of "is foo." It says, in plain English, that whatever the truth conditions of p are, those are the truth conditions of 'p' is foo, and vice versa. And it's also obvious that any such predicate "is foo" is equivalent to "is true," that there is a unique identity function on truth-values, and thus a unique identity function on truth conditions.
Honestly, though, I'm out of my depth here. I know little formal semantics.
So you're saying that these are equivalent?
1. "p" is true iff p
2. "'p' is true" means "p"
Tarski's T-schema is Ramsey's redundancy theory?
[s]I'm not sure about this. Are these equivalent?
1. "p" is true iff p
2. "p" is a true sentence iff p
3. "p" is a sentence iff p
(1) might be equivalent to (2), but neither (1) nor (2) are equivalent to (3), and (3) follows from (2).
So does "is foo" mean "is true" or "is a true sentence" or "is a sentence" or something else?[/s]
If you take take means as has the same extension as, then yes. Otherwise, no, or depends.
Quoting Michael
They can't all be true at the same time, because the use of "sentence" in (2) conflicts with its use in (3), doesn't it?
My point was that any function that assigns to every sentence the same truth-value it has already, is equivalent to what we've been writing as "is true," and there can only be one such function. Am I missing something?
Yes, good point. Not sure what I was thinking there. Obviously (3) is false.
So "p" and "'p' is true" have the same extension but might have a different intension?
I suppose the same could be said of "'p' is true" and "'p' is foo", and so of "is true" and "is foo". Same extension, possibly different intension?
I think a definition of "is true" (and "is foo") should explain its intension.
Well, something like that has always been the complaint about purely extensional semantics. From "The Meaning of 'Meaning'," which just happens to be on another tab in my browser:
If we know that p is false then we know that not-p is true.
:blush: Missed that ... in my haste. However ... if p is known to be false, ~p is true isn't enough in all cases. For example if the theory of relativity is falsified (proven false via some hypothetical observation), what exactly is not Theory of Relativity? :chin:
That said, In the case of propositions like god exists, knowing that it is false indeed means the contradictory, god doesn't exist is true.
So we now have a method of determining truth, oui monsieur?
For any proposition p, assume p and check if it entails a contradiction. If it does, p is false i.e. ~p is true. Interesting to say the least.
We now have a definition of what true means: if ~p entails a contradiction, p is true.
Muchas gracias. is there anything else you wanna add to this?
Here's a link to a post of mine about this. If you clink on that link, it takes you right to what I said. In this context, we could say it refers to what I said. Following that link is how you get the job done of finding out what I said.
A fitting quote from Haack's Philosophy of logics:
[quote]Tarski emphasises that the (T) schema is not a definition of truth though in spite of his insistence he has been misunderstood on this point. It is a material adequacy condition: all instances of it must be entailed by any definition of truth which is to count as 'materially adequate'. The point of the (T) schema is that, if it is accepted, it fixes not the intension or meaning but the extension of the term 'true' [my emphasis].
Yes, that's how I'm looking at it. And not only does it fix the extension of true, there is no other conceivable way to do so. That's why it must be a consequence of any substantive theory of truth.
For us, a lot of the interesting stuff is on the intensional side, modal contexts, propositional attitudes, all that business.
And there is still plenty of room for a metaphysical theory of what makes true sentences true, because this is not such a theory but only a semantics of true -- and the semantics of true is, for model-theoretic truth-conditional Montague-style semantics, trivial.
This is from page 4 of a classic textbook on formal semantics:
And that's the difference between doing philosophy and doing linguistics, I guess.
Haack has an interesting comment on this point from that same book.
I really expected something like this:
'Warsaw was bombed in World War II' is true iff 'Warsaw was bombed in World War II' is asserted in the Bible.
Now I feel like I've misunderstood something.
I'm also no longer sure what I had mind when I wrote this:
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
What she is saying is that these positions are consistent:
1. 'Warsaw was bombed in World War II' is true iff Warsaw was bombed in World War II
2. 'Warsaw was bombed in World War II' is true iff the Bible asserts this
One just then has to accept that:
3. Warsaw was bombed in World War II iff the Bible asserts this
The T-schema is silent on the truth of (3), and so the T-schema isnt always the right tool to refute a substantial theory of truth. Some bizarre theories can be consistent with the T-schema.
Right, right. I forgot she added a step.
This is still on the denotation side of things, it gestures toward what truth might mean with a successful denotation and explores some issues regarding denotation and function.
Yeah I getcha. I'd agree with that. I think that's part of what makes semantic content work through; it holds environmental objects equivalent through how we access them, how they function, and how we expect them to respond to manipulation. It's informational. The object plays an active role in all of these; by having a location + weight + geometry, by having its own propensities that enable developmental trajectories (eg, the speed the kettle boils a cup at), and by how our actions interact with those developmental trajectories. In that regard, the objects themselves and their properties take part in our comportment toward them. For semantic content be informative about an object's state, there must be an association between that object's state and the language about the object.
This includes how we categorise, refer, and carve up the world. In broad strokes, speech acts symbolise or engender these developmental trajectories, properties which imbue these propensities for development and so on. When you say "I will boil the kettle" or "Can you boil the kettle?" or "The kettle is boiling"... I view what's going on there as pattern of linguistic behaviour tracking developmental capacities of the kettle which are individuated into functional roles. Understanding those functional roles is accurate when it mirrors the developmental trajectories of the kettle, so when someone says "the kettle is boiling", it's true to say that when the kettle is boiling... Because the switch was flipped and the water was boiling etc... Something happened to make it true in context, and the pattern of language tracks the properties through shared expectations of environmental development. The association becomes a causal history of interacting environmental events and language.
Rather than the semantic content of the phrase "The kettle is boiling" being embedded in the phrase through the words and sentence parts mapping directly onto developmental trajectory properties - like a descriptive theory - sentence properties and environmental properties are enmeshed through causal relationships of succession; when someone says "the kettle is boiling", it will occur in a context in which the kettle is individuated from its environment as a distinct site of developmental trajectories, and "boiling" will be inferred from the kettle's current state and developmental trajectory. The former individuation resembles denotation, the latter individuation resembles predication ("... is boiling"). Coupling the association of words with perceptually+pragmatically individuated or demarcated environmental trajectories allows environmental events to be a truth maker for sentences without the former being wholly determined by the latter. The causal history; making event-patterns of language co-occur with event-patterns of environments; means both reciprocally inform, and in many use cases reciprocally co-determine - we make our environments navigable and manipulable.
Word structure is sensitised to environmental structure because we've collectively made it so; and the environment is gonna do what it do whether we've perceptually demarcated its objects and developmental trajectories or not. Semantic content is then a historically informed behavioural expectation of the environment, whose developmental trajectories are demarcated through current and prior expectations of development. The causes in the present in both language and the world resemble the causes in the past - the former is a criterion of iterability (like the private language argument against privation), the latter is a criterion of publicisability (like the private language argument against the beetle's wiggling being determinative of sense).
Expectations of development also tend to become shared, as environmental patterns become embedded in a language which is sensitised to environmental development. The causal patterns of language use grow to resemble the environment modulo perceptual individuation. Feedback lets the former and the latter have reciprocal impact; so much so that in many circumstances we can append "I think" to to a phrase, like "I think the kettle is boiling" and convey the same behavioural expectation of the environment but indexed to an agent. But the distinction between the two is precisely useful because the environment's patterns are shared. The causal histories differ, so the behavioural expectations in the environment and in language differ, so the meanings differ. One is true when you think it, one is true when the kettle boils.
The mirroring+coupling of causal patterns of language use and environmental comportment/expectations of development is what sets up the remarkable agreement obtained on whether the kettle is boiling... When it is in fact boiling or not. The causal history of language and environment over time, through constant work and tailoring, becomes discriminative on both environment and language.
As a reference for something similar, I think Evans in "Varieties of Reference" takes up the task of such a causal approach to denotation; there's a causal history of reference which sets up relations between properties of what is referred to and the object itself. The causal history of language use carries with it discriminative information regarding the environments ("forms of life") it constrains and develops within.
Sorry, I don't understand the language. Try English, please.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
It's very common, I claim to know, see, remember, or regret something, which turns out not to be so. Remember, logic deals with propositions, and a proposition is what is claimed, it is not what is so. And you agreed that human beings are fallible. So the proposition "I know X" does not mean that X is the case. "Jack knows X. Therefore X is what is the case." Wait, something is missing. Can't you see that we are missing a premise, the one which says "if someone knows something then it is what is the case"? And as I said, you might state such, as a proposition, or premise, but it would be rejected as false, because of that fallibility; especially with the other terms, see, remember, and regret.
It's only sophistry, your claim that knowing something, seeing something, remembering something, or regretting something, implies that what is known, seen, remembered, or regretted is what is the case. Just like in my examples of feeling something, or intuiting something, these do not imply that what is intuited or felt, is the case. Since you still don't seem to get it, let me add "imagining something". Does "imagining something" imply that the imagined thing is what is the case? How does "knowing something" elevate itself to a higher level than "imagining something", without the required premise, or definition?
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Srap is talking about knowing something that is not the case.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
You are talking about not knowing something that is the case.
You are attacking a straw man.
The argument is that the predicate '...is true' cannot be analytical of X by correspondence if X has no fixed extension. Hence the discussion about X's extension.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Very nice. But you didn't construct the link in order to get me to find out what you said. You don't care if I know what you said. You care what I do next. The expression was designed to convince me of an argument. I'm not going to go into the psychological theories about why we do such things, suffice to say the end goal isn't just that I know what you said. So the link may refer, but the words don't, they effect. It's the effect you're interested in, the effect which is the reason you choose them.
If words worked like your computer links, then I think you could claims that they have the effect they do because they refer. But that's the very argument Ramsey is making. That words (or propositions, rather) don't refer like computer links. there's no UUID, they're never specific enough to meet Russell's criteria for meaning 'there is such a thing X and it has property Y'.
Quoting fdrake
Roughly. By which I mean that the importance of recognising the functional role of this semantics is that it only need identify a similar enough environmental object to get the job done. we don't need to know if we're including the errant screw to get the expression "put the kettle on!" to work. It'll do it's job even if I'm not sure if 'the kettle' even exists. Even if I've never seen 'the kettle', but merely assume there is one in the kitchen. In this latter case, by 'the kettle' I simply mean 'whatever it is in your kitchen you use to boil water'. I'm not (yet) seeing how such vague and ephemeral environmental objects can be amenable to analysis of their properties to make "the kettle is black" something which can be eternally, objectively 'true', outside of the language game in which it was used. Something like a pragmatic view of truth is the closest here, I think, I can see a possible route to such an approach.
Quoting fdrake
As with "put the kettle on" above, semantic content doesn't seem to always need to be informative about an object's state. I might not even know of the existence of an object in that expression, so I can't see how my use of the term 'the kettle' could carry information about it's state?
Quoting fdrake
This makes a lot of sense. It does point, though, to something more of a pragmatic view of truth, rather than a correspondence view. True here being contextual, being about a model of events which works as an explanation. I have some sympathy for that position, but my quibble is that we simply don't always use the word that way.
Quoting fdrake
Again, I think this approach is attractive in that it gives some explanation of why an expression might work, why that particular collection of words might get a job done that some other collection would not have. Because it's tracked the shared pattern of events. I can communicate remarkably effectively with someone whom I've never met an share no common language with. The can 'see' what I'm trying to get them to do, and vice versa. I could get a villager in Morocco to put the kettle on despite having no shared language and never having met. I can do this because that villager can make good predictions about what my behaviour indicates simply by virtue of their brain having made similar predictions about their own body (but this is all an aside). The point being that our shared history of interacting with the environment creates similar models of it which we can then use to infer intent in others. Language merely expediting that process.
Quoting fdrake
Yes, I really like this. Linguistic acts used to denote, and keep consistent, shared expectations, and do so by repeated successful use. Definitely moving toward pragmatism though, if we're wanting this to end up with a definition of 'truth'. We spoke before, I think, about the idea of my wanting my model of what a kettle is to be similar to yours in order to reduce surprise when interacting with you. The way I can use things like ostension and language. I think what you're saying here ties into that nicely. The barrier still in place against correspondence, though, is the lack of specificity. I only need 'the kettle' to be sufficiently similar in our shared expectations about it to maximally reduce surprise. Too specific a object won't do that, it actually needs to be vague to have a chance of my having unsurprising expectations of it.
Quoting fdrake
If I've understood you correctly here, this is similar to what I was saying earlier about the environment constraining what can be said. It sets limits on what will work because regardless of out models of it, it is set out in such and such a way and it's not a homogenous soup which we can make of what we will. There may be a wide range of values which will make "the kettle is boiling" true (in that sense), but they will not be infinite. "the kettle is boiling" won't work given certain environmental constraints. Again, pointing to a rough correspondence, but one insufficiently specific to be amenable to the sorts of truth analysis direct correspondence would seem to need.
I think some of them carry behavioural expectations as norms (prosaically "I expect this to be done") and some of them carry them as predictions ("If I flip the switch, the kettle will boil")
Quoting Isaac
I guess I'm not trying to say it needs to be "eternally" true. Though I think it may be "eternally" true to say "I boiled the kettle on the 3rd of March 2022", since I did indeed boil the kettle on that day. That happened, if people forget it doesn't change it. A more striking example may be "my shower broke on October 3rd 2021" - that event had an enduring presence, and it would not have fixed itself.
Declarative statements about past events which contain an indexical of occurrence time maybe do behave like that. They at least seem to behave like that in the "language game" of recording events.
Quoting Isaac
I think that is an issue with the account, but I don't think it's irresolvable. Functions also summarise processes. Like when you flip the switch on a kettle, that will impact the inner circuitry, the plug, the atoms in the element, your electricity bill etc, but that's a set of ambiguously but sometimes required entailments (expectations!) around flipping the switch to boil the kettle. When you flip the switch to boil the kettle, it's expected to set up a relatively complicated environmental process - which is engendered by the semantic content of statements about it.
EG it's really weird to make statements like "The kettle boiled and I poured cold water from it immediately"/ "The kettle boiled and the water stayed still". You convey an expectation of behaviour and then negate it; the meaning of the sentence part "the kettle boiled" is in conflict with the second bit precisely because the first bit doesn't necessarily fix all the events around it, or which can be embedded in relevant descriptions of causal chains involving it, but nevertheless constrains expectations of other sentence parts. The overall sentence "The kettle boiled and I poured cold water from it immediately" doesn't make much sense, despite being grammatical, because the expected behaviour of the environment (the truthmakers of each conjunct) are in a conflict of behavioural expectation.
I think that illustrates the functional roles are also "modulo" perceptual demarcation or other environmental parsing, just like the words about them. Nevertheless, they are in something like a representational relationship with environmental subprocesses - like what is entailed by successfully flipping the switch on a kettle to boil it.
So when someone says "the kettle is boiling", its semantic content reaches out into the world as it's parsed, and its truth presents an match between the parsing of environmental objects and what (parsed) subprocesses those objects bear. It's nevertheless an expectation of the real kettle's behaviour, a parsing of its subprocesses into boiling, which we state with "the kettle is boiling".
I do agree that how a relatively un-detailed statement like "the kettle is boiling" can be made true by the behaviour of a concrete particular is something that needs an account though. I've tried to gesture towards how I think about that account with subprocesses and perceptual demarcation of environmental flows into functional summaries.
As a rough summary by example, ""the kettle is boiling" is true" makes sense at its level of descriptive granularity because: ( 1 ) the definite article "the" picks out a specific kettle in the environment ( 2 ) that kettle is individuated from its environment by parsing it into salient objects with distinct patterns of behaviour ( 3 ) "is boiling" states a type of environmental pattern the kettle partakes in ( 4 ) under our level of demarcation, it's "only" the kettle that could boil, not the electrical currents or the plug socket despite both partaking in the boiling process ( 5 ) the kettle exhibits the parsed expectations which constitute (somewhat fuzzily!) boiling ( 6 ) that makes "the kettle is boiling" true.
As for how that sentence works in the context of a philosophical discussion, it seems to implicitly quantify over environments in which to evaluate kettle boiling - a summary of scenarios in which someone would evaluate the claim. If you zoom in on a context I claim it behaves as above.
Though someone would rarely need to state ""the kettle is boiling" is true", they'd simply say "the kettle is boiling".
I think that's true, and there's a need to account for how general descriptive terms are in declarative statements vs how specific the behaviour of the concrete particulars denoted in those declarative statements are. There's got to be some means of summary and parsing that contextualises the generality of "boiling" into the context of the kettle.
I also want to stress that behavioural expectations conveyed in a phrase also have positive content even if they don't fully specify the behaviour of some concrete particular. If you say "the kettle is boiling" you expect bubbles of some sort and hot water, even if bubbles and hot water are being treated more like placeholders for fuzzy but satisfiable classes of environmental states rather than as stand ins for the specific behaviour of that kettle at the time. Bubbles, not "these bubbles", hot water, not "these water molecules". If statements needed to do the latter to be true, they'd lose their iterability - you can never boil the same kettle twice.
I agree. My effort to try and argue for a deficiency in deflationism's account of truth may have made it seem as though I was arguing wholly in favour of correspondence, but I am aware that correspondence has its own problems. The deficiency of deflationism - that I only had a vague sense of - is probably best captured by the appreciably more articulate account you gave here:
Quoting fdrake
The deflationary equivalence of environmental events to sentences omits something from the account of truth, or the common use of "is true", in at least some cases. I take this omission to be our evidence-based consent/satisfaction that the sentences are true because they accurately describe the environmental events (where empirical matters are concerned). This is where truthmakers and/or truth conditions are relevant. In many case we can satisfy ourselves that a sentence is true or not by seeing the environmental events for ourselves directly. And I think that some other uses of "is true" may be parasitic on this one, where we say "is true" because we believe that if we could have seen it for ourselves (e.g. historical events), then we would be satisfied in the same way - because the environmental events really were as described. Of course, this is all constrained by the deflationary "collectively enacted meaning"(s) of our language - as you put it earlier.
I also find the deflationary account of truth lacking in a more basic sense. It may be so that "p is true" means no more than "p", but that's only if "p" is true. I find this account of truth lacking because it doesn't tell us what makes "p" true, why we might say "p" is true, or why we use "is true" in the way(s) we do.
No, Srap is claiming that if someone "knows" something, "remembers" something, "sees" something, or "regrets" something, then without a formal definition of these words, it is logically implied that what the person knows, remembers, sees, or regrets, is necessarily the case. Of course this is clearly invalid logic. We cannot produce any deductive conclusions from a word or symbol without any defining propositions.
What does it really mean to "assume meaning"? In the broadest sense, a poem has meaning. And really I'd want to include that sort of thing in any understanding of meaning, which has nothing to do with truth. "assuming meaning" gives us more powers than truth-telling. Natural languages are absurdly powerful in terms of what they can do with meaning, to the point of creating new words wholesale, it can be tooled into scientific disciplines or epic poems or rarified philosophical thoughts or recipes or the fleeting thoughts of our everyday life.
But, really, that's just asking my conversation partner if they'd like to beg the question on truth with me without specifying that we're begging the question on truth to see if there's some other way to put the matter.
EDIT: More or less I think I'm starting to see my own dead-end, but I'm not sure which turn along the way got me here. The opposite of aporia -- constipated confusion :D
First: utmost respect; interesting and informative dialectic.
Second: how, in the answer to what is truth, should that general dialectic by conditioned by at least an unstated presupposition, or at most, a particular falsehood?
Case in point: the conclusion you can never boil the same kettle twice is justified, but only insofar as to state a kettle boils even once, while not impossible, is nonetheless contrary to experience and diminishes the power of the affirmation for what truth is. Kettles dont boil, even though that is the linguistic and therefore logical construct presented in the dialectic, which necessitates the unstated presupposition in order to validate the argument. In effect, what is true is being conditioned by a mere presupposition, such that an example of what is a truth, but absolutely nothing is accomplished by it, with respect to what truth is.
As states, in an apparently Hume-ian fashion, re: constant conjunction, if you say the kettle is boiling, you expect bubbles, which would be the case, for this is at root an analytic judgement. But the tacit understanding the bubbles expected are given by the content of the kettle and not the boiling kettle, immediately makes the statement itself no longer analytic, and thus becomes the source of an illogical inference, and....as we all know....needs awaken one from his dogmatic slumber.
Now Ill rejoin that rather minuscule human demographic of the overly-critical, or, if preferred, the more general group of those hopelessly under-informed, but perhaps youd agree with me that the initial metaphysical question cannot be answered with empirical examples.
First, do the words have a meaning in the first place, and if they do, who or what determined their meaning ? And if their meaning has been determined, where is this meaning to be found ?
IE, the truth value of a synthetic proposition cannot be known empirically until the meaning of the words within it are known analytically.
I'm trying not to come at this from a Humean "mere custom and habit" angle of causal succession, I'm trying to come at it from the perspective that patterns of association in language mirror patterns of association in environments; the histories of the two get intertwined through the mirroring relationship. I take this to be closer to Dennett - some sort of realist by my reading - rather than Hume - some sort of anti-realist by my reading. The passage in this paper beginning "To the Left" with the black and white pixillated pictures of elephants.
I realise there's a lot of work left to be done in fleshing out my perspective.
This is a thing.
Quoting fdrake
And I almost asked if you felt a little queasy when you reached for words like "tracking" and "mirroring," but it turns out you had something quite specific in mind.
I found your post really interesting but couldn't help feeling -- sorry -- that it was old wine in a new bottle. That is, same problem in new language that doesn't have the apparent baggage of the old, but must if it's to do what we want -- so if universally accepted among philosophers, would lead to sixty years of debate about what mirroring is and whether it's a real thing, as a sequel to the debate over reference. That's not a substantive reply so I didn't -- though now I have!
I think @Mww had a gut reaction near mine, that this is just not what a solution to the question at hand must look like, and that's why I felt it must be a restatement of the problem instead of a solution.
Issues I am alive to in what I'm writing:
(1) Not all questions get answers. Some questions are ill-conceived and attempts to answer them, no matter how circumspect, are doomed to fail. (So, above, "what we want" might be something we shouldn't want, or we only think that's what we want but it isn't, etc.)
(2) There is a difference between a problem-and-proposed-solutions approach, and a model-building approach. Model-builders claim, in part, that the problem can only be a problem within a given -- which may mean, presumed -- model.
(3) One can claim, not quite to the converse, that a model is a framework for presenting and clarifying a problem; problem first, then model. That's one, more or less happy, way of taking "within." [hide="note that maybe shouldn't be parenthetical"](This may mean acknowledging that the "original" presentation of the problem was within another framework -- everyday informal reasoning, the manifest image, folk psychology, all popular candidates -- but that offering a solution is at least a reshuffling or recasting of that originating model, and maybe a lot more than that. Normal people, not us, don't worry about reference, but they worry quite a bit about truth, and about the aboutness of what they say, though only rarely in the quite general way we do. All of which is to say that problem-first might or might not actually agree with what model-first is about to say, might be a specific version of model-first.)[/hide]
But there are two sides here, and while they agree that a problem can only be presented within a framework, the other side -- model first -- has the option of claiming that a problem "within" a model (or framework) can also be taken as a problem for the model, an indication there is something wrong with it. In that case, the solution is always a new model, even if that model is merely an extension or outgrowth of the old one. Correct models -- Zeus's models -- do not have problems.
This is kinda what the progress of science looks like sometimes, this iterative (and cumulative, ratcheting) re-modeling structured around eliminating each generation's problems in the next generation. (Eliminating in a way consistent with the evidence, not just defining away. Why are these variable related but not those? --- Oh my god! If you rotate the axes, you can see that ..., and that must mean we were actually measuring ..., and so on.)
(4) And that question, of the fidelity and effectiveness of a model, looks shockingly like the substantive issue under discussion. Enter @Mww with his (?) reminder that there are metaphysical stakes here.
(5) Minor issue. There are differences in intellectual temperament that make your posts difficult for me sometimes. ("You" = @fdrake.) You're more "synthetical" and speculative; I'm more "analytical" and -- what's an opposite for "speculative"? Evidence-focused rather than theory-focused? Even with a post like this, I can't help including a folksy example. (Thought maybe I hadn't, but nope, it's right there, end of (3).) Apo said once that I was "too concrete." Analytical me can't ever use words like "enmeshed" or "intertwined" without feeling like I'm cheating. "Enmeshed," to me, is a weasel word -- but it's a perfectly legitimate placeholder when you're model-building! ("These are intimately related, I just can't specify how yet.")
*
That's enough. I really want to start all over with this reference and truth stuff, but we'll see. Nothing I've posted so far has gone anywhere.
Quoting fdrake
Would you say something similar about the relation between perception and an environment? Something like the following?
perception is fundamentally the truthful reconstruction of a portion of the physical world through a registering of existing environmental information.
Understood, and agreed, in principle. My language would be......errrr, shall I say, older?.....different, but the idea behind it would be congruent. My reluctant quibble would be, then, from whence comes the mirror, and what form does the mirror require in order for the associations to work.
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Quoting Srap Tasmaner
....and from this well-worn and exceedingly comfortable armchair, a very big thing it is. The solution seems to have become the disregard of metaphysical questions, or at the very least turn them into anthropological/psychological questions. Which is, I must say, ...beneath the dignity of philosophy....
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
HA!!! My post on pg 45 didnt even get a response, even though it contained a distinct and irreducible answer to the question. Might not be correct, and is certainly open to disagreement, but at least it was there.
The Revision theory has an interesting take on this, giving an analysis of circular definitions that shows their pathology, where it is present. The conclusion is that T-sentences are definitions that are not pathological.
I still do, even though I had something specific in mind. What I'm gesturing towards is quite mechanical sounding but there isn't a specified mechanism. I have in mind something like "custom and habit" of language use (word successions and contextual dependences) coming to summarise, mirror and enact what the language is used for because of a shared causal history and informational links. Both those notions need a lot of fleshing out, and I don't have the chops for it honestly.
Regardless, I think the central issues are: how does semantic content relate to the world and if it does, does it relate proximally to the world or to people or both (in the right ways)?. Those two things are still Kant flavour questions. So I think I get where you and @Mww are coming from. I think @Isaac's criticisms are also of the same flavour (from my perspective), since the "hidden states" which nevertheless have informational impact on "internal states" through content forming constraint seems like another way of having a debate about schemes and content (content informed by scheme = content is proximally scheme flavour, not world flavour) intersecting with the externalism vs internalism (and compromises) of semantic content debate.
In some respect I'm definitely astroturfing old ground.Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Quoting Joshs
Not exactly! I don't think it's right (even scientifically) to say that perception always and only aims at accurate representation. That's part of what it does, it has other goals. It is also difficult to distinguish what is accurate from what is useful I think. It'd be a bit shit if we couldn't accurately discern how stuff in the environment behaved - doubt we'd be able to do much, but I don't think that's what perception's "for".
Quoting Mww
Probably not surprising @Srap Tasmaner, I agree with you that it's a metaphysical issue, I'd just frame it that anthropology and psychology are already metaphysical. They're both ways of understanding our understanding of the world and the world itself, they posit entities, have ontological commitments, people quibble over which entities exist, which framework should the entities be interpreted in and so on.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I do feel uncomfortable with using them, yeah. I'd feel more uncomfortable if I felt I'd done more than gesture towards a mechanism, or a space in which one might be conceptualised at least. I do feel however that terms in philosophy tend to be vague on the mechanisms of how they might work (like how do categories constraint perceptions, tell me in terms of my body plx - how does a denoting expression come to stably denote, give me the history of the word and a theory of language propagation please).
I disagree! I think we've come to a better understanding of the discussants' perspectives. Wouldn't've happened without you facilitating it.
I second this! You were a great aid in spurring on thoughts which I hadn't had before this! And while I didn't reply to everything, I did actually read everything -- and really enjoyed picking through people's thoughts and references (Got to page 4 of A Nice Derangement of Epitaphs today -- it just takes me time to read things)
I got that quote from Francisco Varelas Ethical Knowhow. He is contrasting the old representational rationalist realist model of perception with the enactivist approach, in which perceiving is not representing but acting.
According to the enactive approach, however,
the point of departure for understanding perception is the study of how the perceiver guides his actions in local situations. Since these local situations
constantly change as a result of the perceivers activity, the reference point for understanding perception is no longer a pre-given, perceiver-independent world,
but rather the sensorimotor structure of the cognitive agent, the way in which the nervous system links sensory and motor surfaces. It is this structure the
manner in which the perceiver is embodied and not some pre-given world, that determines how the perceiver can act and be modulated by environmental events. Thus
the overall concern of an enactive approach to perception is not to determine how some perceiver-independent world is to be recovered; it is, rather, to determine
the common principles or lawful linkages between sensory and motor systems that explain how action can be perceptually guided in a perceiver-dependent world.
In the enactive approach reality is not a given: it is perceiver dependent, not because the perceiver constructs it as he or she pleases, but because what counts as a relevant world is inseparable from the structure of the perceiver.
The enactivist rejection of representationalism applies to conceptualization as well as perception , sine the latter is built from the former. Thinking of linguistic conceptualization as acting upon a responsively changing environment rather than mirroring a pre-existing environment impacts on the understanding of truth.
Quoting fdrake
These are not mutually incompatible...
For my part I remain at the point of departure, where truth is not definable beyond the functionality found in T-sentences. A combination of @"Srap's (1) and (2), but without truth conditions...
Did 'boiling' involve getting all the water to 100C, a rolling boil, the first bubbles, too hot to touch ("that's boiling!")... I don't see how we can establish the truth of such a vague and contextualised notion as 'boiling', even if we pin the event right down to the millisecond.
We could say that it's true that you did something which matches the description. But that just gets us back to where I started (or was it another thread?), where the truth of "I boiled the kettle" amounts to little more than whether you've used the words correctly in your language. "I boiled the kettle" is true because the thing you did is one of the things the expression could rightly be used to describe.
Quoting fdrake
Yes, I think this is right, it's (for me) an example of the way that hidden states constrain our models of them. We can have a range if modelled expectations for the entailments of 'boiling a kettle', but none of them can have cold water come out. None of them can result in ice. The hidden states we're trying to reduce surprise in are real and so have constraints. What I'm arguing here (though mostly paraphrasing Ramsey) is that because hidden states are not themselves models, nor bounded in any way, no 'natural kinds', there's no right model. There's only wrong ones. Truth (as correspondence) seems to need a right model.
Quoting fdrake
This is a good framework from which to progress, it gives us something to work with. The quibbles...
In (1) the definite article acts as an agreement that we will treat a part of the environment as a kettle it doesn't need us to treat exactly the same part of the environment that way, only similar enough that I'm not going to surprise you and vice versa, which constrains the choices to one which is going to respond roughly the same way. So (2) I have little trouble with except to add that we enact those objects, we can create as well as curate, but that still probably gets us to the same place. (3)and (4) I have no issue with. At (5) I think we miss a step. So at (1) we agree to treat a part of the environment as a kettle, at (3) we do the same for 'boiling', but the theory that the kettle at (1) is exhibiting the pattern at (3) is still, like any theory, subject to underdetermination. Something as simple as 'the kettle is boiling' admits of very little wiggle room for such, but still an important point with regards to 'truth' because it means that even the process-derived truth at (6) remains somewhat agreed on. We don't escape the need for us to socially agree in order for something the have a truth value by this means, it's just that we're constrained in what we could ever possibly socially agree to and still function.
Ha! I hadn't even noticed. Which makes your comment all the more pertinent, I think. In my view, it goes back to what I was saying earlier about expectation and the use of language as a tool. I can communicate relatively well with someone who doesn't even share my language. I could say "the kettle is boiling", add a few gestures and, if I was in the right context, I could probably get the message across even if the other person had no idea what the words meant before our meeting. So what's happening here is not really to do with the semantic content of each word, or the order we put them in. It's to do with another person sharing my model, my expectations. Watching my behaviour, and using their own explanatory model of their own behaviour to predict what I'm thinking. The words are just me helping to facilitate that, but the process is happening anyway, facilitated or not.
Is Kant's definition of truth, "the accordance of the cognition with its object, much different to Aristotle's definition "To say of what is that it is ... is true"?
As @Srap Tasmaner has pointed out, know is a factive [*] term while imagine is not. One can imagine that Trump is still the president of the US but one can't know that he is, since he isn't. The required premise (Kp ? p) comes from observing how the term know is ordinarily used in language.
--
[*] factive
adjective
1. (of a verb, adjective, or noun phrase) presupposing the truth of an embedded sentence that serves as complement, as realize in I didn't realize that he had left, which presupposes that it is true that he had left.
The point is, that for the logic to be valid :"know" must be defined as a "factive" term as a premise. Other wise, this notion that knowing something logically implies the existence of the thing known is an unstated premise which is required for the claimed conclusion. Conclusions which require additional premises other than those stated are not valid conclusions.
Quoting Andrew M
That's not a premise in Srap's proposal, because it's not stated as a premise. If it were stated then we could judge the truth or falsity of it. This is the problem, relying on unstated premises denies us the capacity to judge the soundness of the premise. Then the unsoundness of the unstated premise is allowed to contaminate the validity of the logic.
Also, there is very much ambiguity in the normal use of the term "know", so that premise, if stated ought to be judged as false (dishonest sophistry). Much more often than not, |know" is used in a fallible way, as I said much earlier. When people say "I know that X is the case", they are most often not claiming absolute certainty, that it is impossible for things to be otherwise
Regarding Aristotle, for those interested, and for context, see Metaphysics, 4, 1011b.
I think much different, yes. ...This will be plain if we first define truth and falsehood...., which immediately precedes the passage in question, so it appears by defining both, he is merely pointing out what he calls contraries, and subsequently, to eliminate what he calls intermediaries. In effect, whatever is said about anything at all, that is to say, anything that exists....his words...., must be either entirely true or false, not both under the same conditions, and not part of one and part of the other under the same conditions. So we have statements concerning that which is true or false, but....again....not what true or false is.
As well, it is logically inconsistent to contain the word being defined within its own definition, which Aristotle does, but Kant does not. From that alone, it may be said Aristotle is not defining what truth is, but simply relating truth to that which is not false.
To relate Aristotles passage to Kant, it is probably better to use Kants, the mark of truth is that for which the negation is a contradiction. Not to be confused with, the mark of necessity is that for which the negation is impossible.
Besides, a cognition qua procedural mental event, is far antecedent to its representation in language form in the saying of it. To say a thing is true presupposes, albeit perhaps only metaphysically, the cognition from which the language representing that truth, is assembled in the form of a particular judgement.
Yes? No? Maybe?
Daccord. This notion holds even for rote instruction, such that those youngsters in their first years of schooling, by merely perceiving the objects of instruction, still have to relate those objects to an self-contained, internal, system of their own, consistently, with whichever arbitrary source they come from.
Taking the notion a step further, while it is your expectation, it is anothers anticipation. You expect me to understand; I anticipate I will. And vice versa.
"Little more" is a bit of a covering word there right? It's also true because an event occurred which was parsed as the kettle boiling. You can go down the "argument from illusion" route to contest that claim though. It's another of these things that @Srap Tasmaner and @Mww have highlighted are easy to interpret in terms of old philosophical debates.
This one's a lot like Kant's distinction between phenomenon and noumenon (though please correct me if I'm wrong @Mww) in the context of sensible (proximally environmentally caused) and non-sensible intuition (not proximally caused by environment). [hide=*] (though I don't believe Kant thinks of the environmental dependence as strictly causal?)[/hide]
Quoting from SEP
We could rehash the old ground of sensible vs non-sensible intuition in the context of the semantic content of "the kettle is boiling" necessarily having a causal relationship with the state of the kettle, vs claiming it does not have one (and instead proximally depends upon the correct use of words). More SEP on the matter:
Effectively we're arguing about whether semantic content relates to appearance or phenomenon!
Quoting Isaac
I can understand the claim that the causal relationships we have with the environment place a constraint on the semantic content of phrases, rather than totally determining them. I would like to ask you though, what do you see as causing phrases to have semantic content that we can collectively relate to and are approximately constant between people in many circumstances? To me the simplest explanation is that the causal constraints are so tight that they are also strongly discriminatory about the environmental properties which generate them; like with @Michael's examples about the colour red and its intervals of light wavelength. We might not fix the edge cases of content between orange, yellow and red with that, but we fix it enough for semantic content to iterate over phrases (be learned and propagate) and be coupled to environmental dynamics so hard we can make demonstrative examples and often correctly infer how to use words.
Quoting fdrake
Semantic content: having to do with meaning of linguistic or logic symbols.
A.) neither phenomena nor noumena, as such, have to do with symbols of any kind, with the acknowledgement that representation is itself not a symbol, but an integral member of a particular intelligence system, and......
B.) phenomena arise from sensibility as the faculty of intuition, but noumena arise from understanding as the faculty of thought, and while for human cognition they must work in conjunction with each other, they are entirely different faculties, and in and of themselves, do not relate to each other.
Regarding the kettle is boiling statement, the kettle is a phenomenon, insofar as there is a general, undetermined object of perception susceptible to being represented by a particular conception, or a manifold of related conceptions. (Kettles are metal of a shape, but also this metal or that metal of a shape). So its hard to see anything in the present discussion having to do with the distinction between phenomena and noumena. Perfect example of this, in relation to Kant anyway, is that there are a veritable plethora of representations of phenomena, the kettle being one of course, but not a single one, ever, anywhere, representing a noumenon. We can think noumenon, but we can never represent to ourselves, a noumenon. If we cannot represent to ourselves a noumenon, we cannot affirm semantic content for it.
If it be acknowledged that words represent conceptions, and conceptions arise from the faculty of understanding alone, then semantic content has nothing to do with phenomena nor appearance, insofar as those arise from sensibility. Semantic content, then, relates to what we think about phenomena, but does not relate to phenomena themselves. And what we think about phenomena, manifests in the conceptions attached to them. (Correctly....synthesized with them via imagination, but I suspect eyebrows reaching for the heavens here, so.....never mind)
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Hell...Ive come this far, might as well continue, right?
In Kemp Smith 1929 and Guyer/Wood 1989 this is correct, but in Meiklejohn 1856-7 it reads ...The undetermined object of an empirical intuition is called phenomenon.... Why does this matter, you ask, and I know you are. Well, taking the standard pagination as gospel, in conjunction with the index of terminology, phenomena isnt even mentioned, except in Meiklejohn, clean up to A249/B306. If phenomena are a condition of sensibility, why did he wait so long to present an exposition as to what they are, and when he did, it was in the section devoted to the faculty of understanding. An explanation for this can be found in the text, but sorta requires a certain interpretive inclination.
Ahhhh....now the nifty stuff, in which has made a great point: appearance with respect to sensibility is presence, the presence of an undetermined object of sensation, the schema of our intuitions; appearance with respect to understanding is image, the schema of our conceptions. We are not conscious of our phenomena, but we are conscious of our images. Kant was an admitted dualist, so does not contradict himself in using appearance in two senses, and the reader must satisfy himself as to the separation logically mandated by their respective use.
When appearance is in the sense of image, it must have been given a semantic content, re: a logical composition, re: a synthesis of related conceptions. Otherwise, there would be nothing comprehensible on which to form a rational judgement, and therefore knowledge of that object we initially sensed, would be false at best hence possibly correctable, or altogether impossible at worst, hence not correctable at all.
Kinda like....the image we construct is what the presence is judged to look like. I mean...we can really envision an object we know, without it being present.
Quoting Isaac
A particular bacteriums niche involves its normative interactions with sugar molecules, its sensitivity to sugar gradients . Would I be correct in stating that what can surprise this creature, as a hidden state, belongs to this normative functioning? Are hidden states thus bounded in this sense by the the aims of the organism in its niche?
And if this is the case, can we not consider language use as also normative practices of interaction with an environment that is itself bounded by the purposes of the language user, even when they are surprised?
Quoting Isaac
Do the words merely hook onto and describe an action, or are the words themselves actions , normatively guided forms of doing that aim to change an environment in anticipated ways that can be disappointed or invalidated as well as affirmed by the feedback from the environment they alter?
Quoting Isaac
In keeping with the idea of words as normatively guided actions on the world, intersubjective agreement on truth wouldnt merely be a conceptual normatively divided off from the natural objects that act as causes of our conceptual schemes. Agreement would be equally about material practices that are intrinsic to word use. Our words are not just accountable to the linguistic conventions of the group , but are directly accountable to the feedback from the modifications of material circumstances our words enact.
That is how knowledge is ordinarily defined. As the following sources show:
1. Socrates: knowledge as true opinion that stays with us (Plato, Meno 97)
2. Knowledge as justified, true belief (SEP - The Analysis of Knowledge)
3. '... one cannot have "knowledge that" of something that is not true. A necessary condition of "A knows that p," therefore, is p.' (Britannica - epistemology)
4. factive: denoting a verb that assigns the status of an established fact to its object (normally a clausal object), e.g. know, regret, resent. (Oxford Languages)
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
So let's state it:
[math]\ \ \ \ \ Kp\ \vdash\ p[/math]
Which is to say, if it is known that p is true then p is true. And from which follows, by modus tollens:
[math]\ \ \ \ \ \neg p\ \vdash\ \neg Kp[/math]
Which is to say, if p is false then it is not known that p is true
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Whether people are claiming absolute certainty or not isn't relevant. That knowledge entails truth means only that if someone does know X then X is the case.
First, Aristotle says that he is defining truth and falsehood. Second, the word is not defined within its own definition. Truth is defined as "to say of what is that it is, and of what is not that it is not". Falsity is defined as "to say of what is that it is not, or of what is not that it is".
For example, to say of white snow that it is white snow, is true.
Quoting Mww
Maybe? For Aristotle, to say something is a cognitive act. Kant says that The nominal definition of truth, that it is the agreement of [a cognition] with its object, is assumed as granted (1787, B82) (SEP) Which to me implies that Kant isn't intending to differ from the classical account.
Yes, that is how "knowledge", as the subject of epistemology, is normally defined. But we were not talking about "knowledge", the epistemological subject, we were talking about normal use of "know" as an attitude. And the fact is that people often claim to know things, which turn out to be not the case. So the definitions which epistemologists prescribe as to what "knowledge" ought to mean, do not accurately reflect how "know" is truly used.
But this is all irrelevant, because the point was that without the premise being stated, the logic is invalid.
Quoting Andrew M
So here you have the premise stated. But in Srap's rendition of the propositional attitude, this is not stated as a premise, it is presented as a valid conclusion. Srap also extended this invalid logic to other attitudes, to conclude if it is remembered it is what is the case, if it is seen it is what is the case, and if it is regretted it is what is the case. The point is that one might state these as premises, as you have, to be judged for truth or falsity, but to present them as logically valid conclusions without providing the premises required to make the conclusion, is a mistake.
Quoting Andrew M
You can state this as a premise, in which case I would reject the premise as unsound, because much knowledge ends up not properly representing what is the case, and therefore requiring revision, but you have not yet shown the premises required to make this ("if someone does know X then X is the case") a logically valid conclusion. That is the point I've been making.
The problem I believe is in how you relate "true" to "is the case". If "true" means what is the case, and if knowledge entails truth, then knowing X means that X is the case. However, as I explained above, in common usage knowing X does not mean X is the case. So there is a problem here. But if we conceive of "true" as I proposed earlier in the thread, to be a representation of one's honest belief, then knowing entails truth, as commonly said by epistemologists, but truth does not necessarily mean what is the case.
You are repeating the same error that I pointed out to you before.
Does it turn out that the person does not know that the proposition, p, is true (i.e. ~Kp), or does it turn out that the person knows that the proposition, p, is not true (i.e. K~p)?
That is, does it turn out that they dont know p, or that they know not-p?
If the former, then its irrelevant to what Srap said. If the latter, then what does it mean that they claim to know p but it turns out they know not-p? How is that possible?
I think so. I'd been using expectation as if it were synonymous with anticipation. I'm used to talking as if our brains are surprised by what our bodies do. Bayesian models and all that...
Quoting fdrake
"Also"? It seems to be saying the same thing. After all if a different event had occurred, or no event at all, you wouldn't have used the words correctly...?
Quoting fdrake
I see it a third way (if that's allowed). Our phenomena are private, so we can't have a public language referring to them. But appearances (hidden states) are inaccessible except via our models, so we can't have a language that's in a one to one correspondence with them either. So to what does the semantic content of expressions refer? My answer is that they refer to a collective fiction. an agreed on, shared model. Just like the fact that we all 'know' Aragorn was king of Gondor. We can talk about Aragorn and his goings on and be right/wrong about them. Kettles are like that. A collective story about the causes of the sensations we all experience, kept consistent by repeated joint activity and repeated joint language use. Which leads directly to...
Quoting fdrake
I don't think we do. I think that the success of a expression is a post hoc story. I think we're very good a modelling other people's intentions based on their behaviour and the environment they're in. So when they say "Put the kettle on" we almost know already what it was they wanted done. That's why, if someone with some form of aphasia accidentally said "Put the cat on" in those same circumstances we'd pause only a breath before carrying out exactly the same instruction as if they'd said "put the kettle on". We already seemed to have a good prediction of what it was they meant by the expression before they even said it.
Quoting Joshs
In a sense, yes, but I don't think 'bounded' is quite right, more fuzzy edged than that. A creature (bacterium in this case) has to cohere to survive, it has to resist entropy, forces which would cause it to disintegrate. In order to do that, it has to be able to make changes to its environment (and I'm including it's body here, anything outside of the system's Markov blanket). In order to do that it has to reduce surprise (surprise here is just inconsistency, randomness, entropy).
So yes, this activity will take place within it's niche and so in that sense you're right, but the main driver of this activity is the need to reduce entropy in order to remain a bounded organism (rather than just soup) and that is not bounded by it's particular aims, it's common to any self-organising system.
Quoting Joshs
Yes, I think we can here because language use is a social tool, it only works if other people in our community go along with it. It's a surprise minimisation tool, like any other, it's job is to reduce the surprise other people's behaviour might otherwise exhibit, but it works by us all agreeing, to an extent, on the functions of each expression, the means by which the surprise is reduced. In that sense, language is absolutely going to be bounded by the purposes of the users because we're only going to be able to share models we ourselves have some version of and we don't develop those models in isolation, we often 'pick them off the shelf' of models our society has available for us, most of which are stored and disseminated in the medium of language.
Quoting Joshs
Yes, I think it's both. Words (expressions) are definitely actions aimed at making an environment match more closely our expectation of it (the enaction side of active inference). But they only succeed in doing that (when they do succeed) because of the hook they have to other people's models, and this hook is only possible because we quite good at modelling (ie our models are quite accurate predictors of hidden states). If this latter weren't the case, then we'd find it very difficult to share terms, we'd have no common ground over which to share them (unless by complete coincidence!). Which, if I've understood you correctly, is almost exactly what you're saying with...
Quoting Joshs
...is that right?
My guess is you would say that what makes one theory better than another is that it produces less surprises?
Quoting Isaac
Quoting Isaac
If the semantic content of expressions refers to a collective fiction, then how is surprise possible?
It is not possible that Aragorn was not king of Gondor, but it is possible that the kettle is not boiling.
That is, it is not possible that "Aragorn was not king of Gondor" is true, but it is possible that "the kettle is not boiling" is true.
Assuming one is fluent with the language/model, it is no surprise that Aragorn is king of Gondor, but it can be a surprise to find the kettle is not boiling.
If truth is no more than semantic content (i.e. if "p is true" is no more than "p"), then there should be no surprises. Otherwise, it could imply that "p is true" is something more substantive than "p".
Just to play devil's advocate: The Myth of Factive Verbs.
The SEP article on knowledge summarises Hazlett's view as:
This is almost exactly what @Metaphysician Undercover is saying:
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Your two options do not contain the correct choice. What is correct, is that what is at one time called "knowledge", is at another time not allowed to be called knowledge. So the same ideas at one point in time qualify to be called "knowledge", yet at a later time are said not to be knowledge. The person knew proposition p as true, then later decided proposition p is not true.
This implies that "knowledge" is a product of judgement, not a product of "what is the case". And, when we recognize the following two premises, knowledge is a product of human judgement, and that human judgement is fallible, we can conclude logically that knowledge may consist of some faulty judgements.
Knowledge is a feature of one's attitude. There is nothing unusual or strange here, just a recognition of the fact that people can change their minds. At one time the person knows "p", and at a later time the person knows "not-p". This demonstrates the need for skepticism. We must always revisit our knowledge, and keep abreast of the need for change.
That is why we ought to define "true" in the way that I proposed, as related to honesty rather than "what is the case". Then we can accurately represent Knowledge as justified true belief, because "true" would then signify the position of the ideas which comprise "knowledge" as relative to an honest attitude, rather than some pie in the sky absolute, referred to as "what is the case".
So there is no need for us to enquire as to what does "what is the case" signify, just a need to enquire as to what does "honesty" signify. The modern trend is to completely ignore the importance of honesty in knowledge, and replace it with something which no one can understand, "what is the case". Then we can endless discuss the meaning of "what is the case" thereby avoiding the true issue which is honesty.
So, what does the paper say about factive verbs?
Ill have to leave that alone; I dont see how classical can be derived from nominal, but thats ok. Also....once again.....translators preference. The SEP quote is right, but mine on pg 45 herein, is also right, and different. In addition, the SEP quote, after is assumed as granted, leaves out ...and is presupposed, which offers a clue as to what exactly definitions are supposed to do.
Nevertheless, there is rather apparently an intended difference between Kant and Aristotle, insofar as the formers definition contains cognition, while the latters does not. They would have been much less different if Aristotle had said, to think that what is is.......
Quoting Andrew M
Granted, on a technicality.
....This will be plain if we first define truth and falsehood. To say that what is is not, or that what is not is, is false; but to say that what is is, and what is not is not, is true....
Still, it appears he writes that truth as such shall be defined, but really only exemplifies what form a true statement would have.
Anyway.....good enough for me. Thanks.
That a verb like "know" isn't factive.
Basically, yes.
Quoting Luke
I don't follow your argument here. I'm saying that the function of the collective fiction is to reduce surprise about each other's behaviour. Firstly one can still be surprised by that very behaviour if, for example, the fiction fails in its task. Second, one can still be surprised by one's environment. The actual response and the act of naming it are two different things. You seem to be conflating the two.
Nice find, reading it now.
We'll see how it goes. I've been using "factive" as a shorthand for this:
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I would rather take the inference rule as primary and say that our usage of "know" mostly, though imperfectly, follows that -- that this is the nature of knowledge -- rather than saying the inference rule rests on an analysis of how we use the word "knows." (But there's a whole mess there on the relation of logic to the ordinary words we use for reasoning.)
Hazlett says
And I might be okay with that. Still reading.
That was one of my two options: At one time the person claimed to know p, but it turns out later that they did not know p. That is ~Kp.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Did they "decide" ~Kp or did they "decide" K~p? And how did they "decide" this?
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
I'm skeptical. You said at the start of your post that it's ~Kp, but now you are saying it's K~p.
My understanding on the factivity of "know" is that you cannot know ~p where p is true. For example, you cannot know that "the sky is green" where "the sky is blue" is true, you cannot know that "2+2=5" where "2+2=4" is true, etc. It is simply impossible to know ~p without contradiction.
This is why negative knowledge claims (i.e. ~Kp) are irrelevant. It's about positive knowledge of a falsehood.
But you remain ambiguous on whether you are talking about ~Kp or K~p.
There are responses to the paper; I have three queued up that aren't buying it.
Should probably be pushed off to another thread if people want to get into this.
Yeah, the SEP article does say that "Hazletts diagnosis is deeply controversial".
I'm taking this "collective fiction" to be equivalent with our language, which I also take to be roughly equivalent to the view of redundancy/deflationism. If the world is the model, then there should be no surprises. I used your example of '"Aragorn was king of Gondor" is true' to demonstrate this. That proposition is part of the "collective fiction" model and it's not possible that it could be false. But it is possibile that our model could be false in at least some respects, and that we could be surprised, because you speak of the possibility of a better model. Since it is possible that our model could be false in at least some respects, and that we could be surprised, it follows that there is more to truth than a mere "collective fiction".
Quoting Isaac
No, I'm saying that redundancy conflates the two. If "p is true" means no more than "p" and there is nothing "outside" language, then I don't see how it is possible for the fiction to fail in its task.
I don't understand how it's not possible to be false. "Aragorn is the king of Mordor" is false.
Quoting Luke
Why? You're connecting 'truth' to surprise but that's the very connection in question - the degree to which the truth of "the kettle is boiling" is connected to the hidden states that might surprise me. I'm not denying that hidden states can cause surprise I'm denying the link (or the strength of it) between them and the semantic content of a speech act such as "the kettle is boiling".
I might have a model of my environment that I interact with and could be surprised by (if I get my predictions wrong, or fail to control it). Correspondence theory seems to want have it that our words somehow try to match that environment. I'm arguing that that's not what our words do. Truth is a property of statements, so the extent to which our words don't match an external world, is the extent to which the truth is unrelated to the external world.
None of which is related to the question of whether that external world can surprise us.
Here's some chitchat about one of his cases, since I can't help it. There are lots of big problems with Hazlett's account, not least his use of Grice.
(1) Alice knew that stealing is a crime.
(2) Alice knew that stealing isn't a crime.
(3) Alice didn't know that stealing is a crime.
(4) Alice wasn't aware that stealing is a crime.
Hazlett points out that both (1) and (3) implicate (either imply or entail) that stealing is a crime, supporting, he thinks, the case that "stealing is a crime" is a (conversational, i.e., non-conventional?) implicature of (1). But what it supports, if anything, is that "stealing is a crime" is a presupposition of (1) and (3). Presupposition is not the same thing as conversational implicature. (On Strawson's account, roughly, where "The present king of France is bald" and "The present king of France is not bald" both presuppose that there is a present king of France.)
Every philosophy neophyte learns to distinguish (2) from (3), and that (2) is not the negation of (1), but at the same time learns that (3) is ambiguous between (2) and (4). The version of (3) that aligns with (2) could be expanded to
(3') Alice didn't know that stealing is a crime because it is isn't.
Now we're in the territory of something else that might look like conversational (rather than conventional) implicature, because this looks like cancellation, just as one might say
(5) I haven't stopped beating my spouse, because I never started beating my spouse.
But similarly, we might say
(6) The present king of France is not bald, because there is no present king of France.
And that's Russell's account, which disambiguates the scope as
(7) It is not the case that the present king of France is bald, because there is no present king of France.
But Russell's account is not based on conversational, non-conventional implicature, but simply entailment. On Russell's account,
(8) The present king of France is bald.
has the logical form
(9) There is a unique entity such that it is the present king of France, and that entity is bald.
Can we apply a similar analysis to Alice's knowledge of the criminality of theft? On the one hand, (3) could have the form:
(10) Stealing is a crime but Alice didn't know that.
or
(11) Stealing is not a crime, so Alice could not know that it is, and therefore did not know that it is.
((Or, "what's more, she didn't know," etc. There are options here.))
(10) makes a simple claim about Alice's epistemic state. (11) makes a claim about what Alice's epistemic state could or could not possibly be, and then infers what it was. Both make simple claims about the criminality of theft, which allow us to negate them by negating that claim, without reference to Alice, as with Russell's analysis.
(10) is noncommittal on whether knowledge entails truth, as it simply states two facts, one about stealing and one about Alice; (11) is not only consistent with a claim that knowledge entails truth, but relies on it.
Where does that leave the question of conversational implicature?
Grice claims that conversational implicature is "triggered" by an apparent violation of a maxim of conversation, which suggests that what you mean by uttering p must be different from the plain meaning of p, in order to preserve the assumption that you are cooperative (and not after all violating a maxim).
It does seem that the most natural reading of
(3) Alice didn't know that stealing is a crime.
is
(10) Stealing is a crime but Alice didn't know that.
rather than (11), and if you mean (11), you need to say so explicitly. Why should that be? And is this indication of how you expect (3) to be understood a case of implicature?
One reason (10) might be the more natural reading is because we expect the clause governed by "know" to be true or to be asserted to be true, so it is surprising bordering on misuse to place after "know" a proposition you assert to be false, just because you intend also to deny that this is a case of knowledge, precisely because its object is false. To speak in such a way would be a rhetorical flourish. ("I know no such thing, because it is not so!")
There may be other points in favor of (10): it is simpler, and more to the point, suggesting compliance with other maxims to be relevant and concise. But what we're looking for, as evidence of implicature, is apparent maxim violation, not compliance.
I'm also tempted to wonder whether (10) is more natural because it is "common knowledge" that stealing is a crime, but that's not (to my memory) part of Grice's account.
I haven't resolved the implicature issue but I still see nothing to support "knows" not being factive.
+++
To clarify: the presupposition analysis relies on a pair of entailments, not implicature; neither of those entails that Alice knows something that is not the case.
(10) says stealing is wrong and she doesn't know it; (11) is perhaps most simply taken as the negation of (2):
(12) Alice did not know that stealing is not a crime.
But then we have ambiguity again, so that's no help, hence (11).
******
Actually there's no need to stress over (11) and its relation to (10). (Or about implicature, since his usage has other issues anyway.)
What Hazlett is interested in is the straightforward (10), because then we have both Kp ? p and ~Kp ? p. That's the point of his argument. That's supposed to undercut the unique entailment from Kp to p. But that's because he gets there by (10), rather than (11), which doesn't even lead there.
And (10) interprets "Alice didn't know that stealing is a crime" as "Stealing is a crime, and Alice didn't know that," which of course entails that stealing is a crime.
The issue here is how we justify the (10) interpretation of (3). We would not treat all content this way; we would not, for instance, render
(B1) Harry thinks today is Sunday.
as
(B2) Today is Sunday and Harry thinks that.
Why not?
The simplest answer is that "believes" is not factive, but "knows" is. It allows us to rewrite
(K1) S knows that p
as
(K2) p and S knows that.
Another Russellian move would be to look at the scope: we're taking
(3) Alice didn't know that stealing is a crime.
as
(3') It is not the case that: Alice knew that stealing is a crime.
That means we have all of (1) embedded, and it's form should come out that same as before, without negation in front of it. If that's as above, we have a negated conjunction, and our ambiguity is a matter of which conjunct is negated.
(3'') Not both (i) stealing is a crime, and (ii) Alice knew that.
And, again, that analysis only comes off if we have the rewrite rule (K2).
:up:
It may be that the history of research in artificial intelligence refutes that suggestion -- I'm in no position to say -- but it is a pregnant thought as we imagine modeling our mental lives, or at least a reminder to give some thought to the source of its evident complexity.
Because that's not how the story (or model) goes. As you said, it's a fact we all know.
Quoting Isaac
Because that's not how the story (or model) goes.
Quoting Isaac
What do you mean by "hidden states" exactly? Are hidden states a feature of deflationism? Because I was attempting to poke a hole in deflationism, not in your personal theory of truth.
Quoting Isaac
Isn't the view of deflationism that the model is the environment? You call this model/environment a "collective fiction".
Quoting Isaac
You're arguing that this is not what our words do?
Quoting Isaac
You're arguing that this is what our words do? Sounds a lot like correspondence theory with its matching that you describe above.
The other way to go is to allow that if S knows p then p is true, but define "true" differently. As I propose, "true" would mean a statement of what S honestly believes, i.e. p would be an expression of what S honestly believes. Of course this definition of "true" has its problems, but I think it's much better than what some here propose, which is to reduce "true" to a special form of justified, like justified in an infallible way. Then "knowledge" simply becomes justified belief regardless of whether the justification is done in honesty or not, because infallible justification is impossible unless we invoke an omniscient God who holds real knowledge.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
The problem is that this is not the nature of knowledge. This is the way that some epistemologists think knowledge ought to be. In reality, knowledge changes and evolves, and things accepted as knowledge at one time (geocentricity for example), are later rejected, becoming no longer justified. Knowledge naturally contains much which is not consistent with the reality of things, therefore not "true" by common definition.
Quoting Luke
That's not what I said. I said the person did know p, then later came to know not-p. I thought I made that clear. At one time the person knew p. At a later time the person knows not-p. This is not a case of it turning out that the person did not know p at that time. Nor does the person know not-p at that time, because the person knew p at that time.
What I am saying is that p was a part of the person's knowledge at one time, and not-p was a part of the person's knowledge at another time, because knowledge changes. The person clearly knew p, as p may have played a significant role in the person's body of knowledge. So we clearly cannot change this to say that the person did not know p, because this would involve the contradictory conclusion that the knowledge possessed at the time was not really knowledge.
Quoting Luke
The person decides not to believe p any more for a number of possible reasons, but most likely because other evidence is brought to the person's attention, which the person did not have access to before.
Quoting Luke
You are using "true" in a deceptive way here. That p is true is a judgement. And of course, if one judges that p is true, then this person obviously does not know not-p. So, who is making the judgement that p is true in your example? Obviously it's not the person who knows not-p. This example is just deceptive sophistry.
The problem, as I've explained, is that your statements do not give an accurate representation of what knowledge really is. In reality, knowledge consists of many mistakes. That's why the knowledge of yesterday is always being replaced by the knowledge of today. Things which were accepted as fact, and which were a part of our knowledge are later demonstrated to be not accurate. That's the nature of justification.
This is the issue Plato faced in "The Theaetetus". They sought to determine the true nature of knowledge. But they set out with the prerequisite condition that knowledge could not contain any mistakes. Then they found out that of all the possible descriptions of knowledge that they examined, none of them had the capacity to exclude mistakes. So they ended up concluding that this prerequisite condition, to exclude falsity. was itself a mistake, therefore not really a defining feature of knowledge.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Here lies the problem. Intentional violation of the maxim is dishonesty. But if you mean something different from p than what others take from it ("the plain meaning of p"), this could be either dishonesty (intentional violation of the maxim) or an honest mistake. Now we need principles to distinguish one from the other, to determine whether the person practises deception.
No.
That's exactly what you said. I quoted you as saying that the person does not know p. Here it is again:
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
You clearly refer to negative knowledge of p (i.e. ~Kp); not to positive knowledge of not-p (i.e. K~p). You say that it is not knowledge: "not allowed to be called knowledge", "said not to be knowledge". It is unreasonable to deny this; it is there in black and white.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
You are effectively saying that p was true at one time and is false at another time. I am saying that this attacks a straw man and does not address the factive claim. It cannot be known that not-p is true if p is true, due to non-contradiction. This applies at any given time.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
The same person or people making the judgment that p is true in your example. It makes no difference.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Obviously not. Nobody can know that not-p is true if p is true.
You clearly misunderstood what I said. Or, as is often the case with you Luke, you intentionally misrepresented what I wrote. Whatever, I will repeat myself as usual. The same ideas which are knowledge at one time are not knowledge at another time.
Quoting Luke
Again, you are using "true" in a deceptive, sophistic way, as I explained in my last post. That a statement is "true" or "not-true" is a human judgement. The same person can judge the same statement as true at one time, and not-true at another time, yet a person cannot judge the same statement as true and not true at the same time (contradiction). The same idea is judged as "true" at one time and "not-true" at another time, and there is no contradiction.
This is completely consistent with my definition of truth, as an expression of what one honestly believes. You however, seem to be assuming some sort of "truth" which is independent of human judgement, as an unstated premise. Your use of this unstated proposition is simply an attempt to deceive. Who would make such a judgement of truth, God?
Quoting Luke
The question is, in your statement "Nobody can know that not-p is true if p is true", who is making the judgement that "p is true". A person can know that not-p is true, when that person is not making the judgement that p is true. Therefore you need to disclose who is judging p as true, in your statement. If it is not the person who knows not-p, then there is no problem.
Your use of "true" here is deceptive, because you do not disclose the person who is making the judgement that p is true. Clearly it's not the person who knows that not-p is true, so who is it making the judgement that p is true? I honestly believe that you are simply employing a counterfactual here, for the purpose of deception. When the person knows that not-p is true, then "p is true" is proposed as a counterfactual unless justified, in which case it would be an attempt to change the person's mind. You have made no attempt to justify "p is true", so I conclude the counterfactual is proposed for the sake of deception.
There is no judgement. It just either is or isn't true.
A man who lives alone, perhaps the last living man in the universe, can die even if he believes that he is immortal.
If two men disagree on whether or not something is the case, the laws of noncontradiction and excluded middle entail that one of them is right and one of them is wrong.
The sensibility of these scenarios proves the distinction between truth and judgement.
But there will be no one to judge him to be dead, therefore he will not be dead,
Oh, and there will be no one to judge him to be alive, therefore he will not be alive.
No matter, because there will neither be nor not be a universe that includes or does not include him either not alive or not dead.
Your turn. Philosophy is fun!
This cannot be correct. A proposition requires an interpretation and a comparison with what is the case, to be determined as either true or not true. That is a judgement. With no such comparison or relation, between the words of the proposition, and the reality of the situation, there is no truth to the words.
This is where Banno ran into trouble with the claim that a proposition is always already interpreted, and I accused him of dishonesty with that claim. We cannot ignore the simple fact that symbols symbolize, and therefore need to be read. Apokrisis has a unique way of dealing with this, claiming that the interpretation, (or rules for interpretation, or something like that), are actually encoded within the symbol itself, so the symbol actually reads itself. This, it is claimed, is derived from biological foundations.
As I said to another poster a few days ago, all this says is that we determine the meaning of a proposition. It doesn't follow from this that we determine the truth of a proposition.
Our language use determines the meaning of the proposition "water is H[sub]2[/sub]O". John believes that this proposition is true and Jane believes that this proposition is false. The laws of excluded middle and non-contradiction entail that one of them is right and one of them is wrong, irrespective of what they or I or anyone else judges to be the case.
I still don't see how you're getting here. Why should there be no surprises if the world is the model?
Quoting Luke
Yes.
Quoting Luke
Only if you already beg the very question we're debating by assuming 'truth' refers to the hidden states that the model is of.
Quoting Luke
No one is saying anything about there being 'nothing' outside of language, I don't know where you're getting this from.
Ahhhh....the sheer joy of it!!! Im about to indulge, so....here goes.
Quoting Michael
Is this to say common sense is sufficient criterion for proof?
-
Quoting Michael
Quoting Michael
That one agrees or disagrees with another is nothing more than ones judgement relative to the others. That a third party invokes the logical laws to justify the differences between the first two, is no less a judgment.
Quoting Michael
Quoting Michael
.....which reduces to we are our language use, which presupposes we of particular abilities. Better to understand what we are, such that our abilities are then possible, before making claims about things we do with them. If, given sufficient examination, it is discovered every initial thought or consequential speech-act, by each and every individual otherwise rationally adept human, is a determined judgement, then it follows necessarily that truth is a judgement, a judgement of relative certainty. Relative with respect to the conditions for its ground, certain in accordance with experience.
Thing about having fun with philosophy, is that it just might be at someone elses expense, for which I offer a sort of apology.
Sorry, Micheal, if my fun costs your dismay, but I couldnt let this go by transcendentally unmolested. Feel free to.....you know.....judge the comprehensibility of my comment, or not, as you wish. But just by reading it, havent you already?
There should be no surprises if the world is the model because you claim that the model is a collective fiction. I already answered the question of why there should be no surprises using your analogy with "Aragorn was king of Gondor". You did not address it.
Why should there be any surprises if the world is the model and the model is a collective fiction?
Quoting Isaac
By that logic, you are also begging the question by assuming 'truth' does not refer to such hidden states.
However, I'm criticising your claim that the semantic content of expressions refer to a collective fiction. My argument is that this collective fiction cannot possibly be false, for the same reason that "Aragorn was king of Gondor" cannot possibly be false. The reason this collective fiction cannot possibly be false is simply because it is a collective fiction. I fail to understand how a collective fiction could possibly be false, and you have yet to provide any explanation. Since it cannot be false, then there should be no surprises, as the collective fiction is always true. Surprisingly, however, you admit that our collective fiction could be false. This leads me to question your claim that the semantic content of expressions refer to a collective fiction.
Pointing out such inconsistencies is hardly begging the question.
Quoting Isaac
You seem to have forgotten the current discussion from a week or two (and longer) ago, where several participants were arguing for a world independent of and outside of language. The discussion included my argument with Banno that sentences are not kettles, as well as these exchanges that you and I had:
Quoting Luke
Quoting Isaac
That's where I'm "getting this from". You were one of those saying something "about there being 'nothing' outside of language".
You claim I've misunderstood or misrepresented, yet you re-state what I said, exactly as I understood it and represented it.
You are talking about knowledge of p (i.e. Kp) at one time and not-knowledge of p (i.e. ~Kp) at another time. Once again, this is irrelevant to the factive claim regarding positive knowledge of not-p (i.e. K~p).
I won't bother wasting any further keystrokes.
Why would that lead to a lack of surprise though? You're not joining the dots.
Quoting Luke
You didn't say why there should be no surprises using my analogy with "Aragorn was king of Gondor". You just declared that there should be none.
Quoting Luke
Because the hidden states the world is a collective model of may be modelled imperfectly.
Quoting Luke
I'm not assuming though. That conclusion doesn't itself form part of my argument for it.
Quoting Luke
Come on, at least the bare minimum of effort to fairly represent your interlocutors. It's literally written in the very quote you cited...
Quoting Isaac
...so not 'nothing' then...
Because we could never be surprised to find that Aragorn was not king of Gondor, or that "Aragorn was king of Gondor" is false. Surely we know our collective fiction (which is the model, which is the world) in exactly the same way, and with the same level of surety, that we know Aragorn was king of Gondor. So, whence surprise?
Quoting Isaac
Then the model is not equivalent to the world; there is a distinction between them. The world is not the model or a collective fiction, because the world can surprise us.
Quoting Isaac
My point was that I'm not assuming, either. How am I begging the question by pointing out your inconsistency?
Quoting Isaac
I quoted you fairly, didn't I? I could have cut it short and quoted you like this instead:
Quoting Isaac
You also said:
Quoting Isaac
Anyway, I take the position of redundancy to be that there are no matters outside of language, and that the model is equivalent to the world, whether that is your personal view or not.
I
If we have modeled imperfectly some detail of the hidden states, but we never encounter evidence that would encourage us to update our model, were we wrong?
Another question: can our model be properly said to supervene upon the hidden states? That is, can there be a change in our model without a change in the ("underlying") hidden states?
If the answer is "no," if our model is not so tightly coupled to the hidden states as that, what is the source of that relative freedom? And if our model is then, to some undetermined degree, independent of the hidden states, what entitles us to describe changes to our model as updates rather than just changes, which could, for all we know, be arbitrary, or, if not arbitrary, free?
There is nothing, it seems, that we can point to as "evidence" that is outside the model, not even surprise; surprise is not a fact, but part of our model of ourselves.
II
There's an impressive set of studies showing just how constructed our visual perception of the world is, the ones with the flashing lights. Put some people in a dark room facing a screen or a wall and flash a sequence of lights in just the right way and people will report seeing a single light moving, say, left to right. Even better, if you arrange the lights as you would to go around a small obstacle, people will report actually seeing the obstacle -- or at least report that there was "something" there that the light had to go around. That latter result shows just how much "filling in" we do from our priors, as you might say, about how the world works.
But this study requires carefully controlled circumstances. To determine the speed at which to flash the lights and how far apart to space them, no doubt experiments were needed. I doubt they nailed it the very first time, and there's a range -- I don't know how big -- outside of which the illusion of a single moving light would not hold. Similarly, there must be no other sensible information about the space where the light "detours," else people would report that the light behaved as if something were there but there wasn't.
Outside the lab, none of those restrictions apply. The simulacrum we are said to inhabit is so detailed that we can test it however we like. We can prove to our satisfaction that a tree before us is not a plastic model by cutting into it and seeing the rings, the xylem and phloem, all that. We can study a bit of the wood under a microscope and see more, even under an electron microscope if we choose, we can "touch" individual molecules of water in the tree sample. And we can do this sort of thing anywhere to any degree we are capable.
If a map reproduces every last detail of the territory, and does so not with ink on paper, but using the same materials, for all we know, as the territory, then the map is in fact a perfect duplicate of the territory, not a map at all, and to find your way around the so-called "map" is exactly the same process as finding your way around the territory.
What becomes questionable is the claim that the "map" is not the territory but only a map, and the positing of a "genuine" territory out there, somewhere, that the "map" we wander around in is a copy of. That will surely strike most residents of the "map" as an article of faith. Anything can count as evidence for it, and nothing can count as evidence for it.
III
I don't think it will quite do to answer that "data underdetermines theory." What "data" there is, is not just theory-laden; it is crushed under the weight of the theory it's carrying on its back. It could, for all we know, be 100% theory.
You want to call your view a sort of realism because you maintain there is "something" outside our Markov blanket. Is that "something" similar to the non-existent "something" that the non-moving light did not actually detour around?
If this is realism, it is indistinguishable from idealism, if only in some suitably circumspect Kantian sense of idealism.
IV
We seem to have a sort of antinomy here. On the one hand, we claim to know only our conception of the world, loosely enough coupled to it that it can deviate from the world's supposed true state. But (1) nothing entitles us to make any claim that there is such a true state, or to make any claim about how close our conception is to it, and (2) our conception is so complete that it qualifies as itself a world of the sort we claim only to have a conception of.
We have a model that is, for all we know, 100% mistaken, and at the same time, for all we know, all there is and no model at all.
Before you post "pragmatism" and count that as a job well done, plan on explaining exactly how pragmatism answers any of the questions I asked, or shows the questions to be ill-conceived. Jobs to be done, purposes, free-energy gradients, surprise minimization -- all part of the model, after all. You don't get to have your cake and eat it too, not even by saying that pragmatism entitles you to the impossible.
I prefer to say that the world is a collective representation... which is constantly changing. The ways of representation are manifold.
The events surrounding fictional characters are forever fixed...unless further is written about them such as to change, perhaps even contradict, what was previously told in some way. Who but the original author could have the authority to do such a thing?
The situation with history is a little different because it is not simply an arbitrary tale: rather histories purport to, or at least strive to, present past events veraciously. Historical research is based on studying and comparing the accounts of past historians and archived documents. New documents may come to light, so there can be surprises even regarding what happened, or what is thought to have happened, in the past.
When it comes to the collective understanding of the world, this is ever-changing in line with new experience, so of course there may be surprises.
Quoting Isaac
I wouldn't have chosen to make the comparison with fiction, since although there is some sense to it, it will inevitably lead to misunderstanding. The boiling kettle before us is not a fiction. It is indeed a boiling kettle. that it is a boiling kettle is a result of the way it interacts with us and we with it and we with each other. The world is such that we, collectively, make sense of it.
The kettle is not a model of a kettle. Nor is one individual's neurological modelled Markov blanket any substitute for a kettle. The analogy of a collective fiction captures one aspect of reality, but errs in that the things in our world are not fictions, despite our part in evoking them, for want of a better word).
It looks to me that 's misunderstanding of your posts is based on that problem Isaac and I spoke of earlier, of confusing the non-symbolic modelling done by neural nets with the symbolic presentation in "The kettle is boiling".
Since the world is all that is the case, it is also a collective story. That does not meant hat just anything goes. You will still burn your hand if you touch the boiling kettle.
The result is that some statements are true, some false.
Quoting Banno
So then Davidsonian non-reductive physicalism rather than Putnams conceptual relativism? And the moral implications are perhaps that , like the boiling kettle, there is a fact of the matter in social affairs preventing ethical debates from getting lost in interminable relativity?
Yes.
Quoting Joshs
An incautious leap, don't you think, Joshs?
@Isaac - would you actually agree that "you burn your hand if you touch the kettle" would be the same as ""you burn your hand if you touch the kettle" is true" though? I think in @Isaac's world even saying that there is a kettle is problematic. Or whether there "really" is a kettle
Those are scare quotes around "really".
Really? What is it about reality that you are scared of? :wink:
@Isaac has previously expressed acceptance of realism. I think a generous interpretation is in order.
It's the word "really" I'm scared of in this context. Austin derived methodological worries (what the word "really" does to statements and its ambiguous senses) with Kant inspired metaphysical ones at the same time (thing-in-itself = "really", what is the kettle really? Do we need to know what the kettle really is for "the kettle is boiling" to be true? That sort of thing).
At you made use of the Kantian distinction between noumena and phenomena, comparing it to the distinction between neural models and kettles. I don't think that works. It would be an easy, yet baleful mistake if philosophers were to take the developments of neural science and simply interpret tham in Kantian terms. I suspect that this is what is happening here.
What do you see as being a significant difference between the "hidden states" that give rise to our models or collective representations, and the noumena that are represented as phenomena? Or perhaps @Isaac, if he agrees with you, can answer that question in a more informed way than you can.
Yeah. I think there is a distinction between the two; the neural models interact with the kettle, the noumenon is either a limit on possible thought or a cognitive grasp of an object. I imagine our suspicions are the same!
This doesn't seem to be saying anything cogent; can you explain further?
Seems my diagnosis is correct, at least for Janus.
The "hidden state" has nothing to do with noumena. But that confusion is where this thread has wandered.
Easy to assert: can you explain the difference?
By the way; you're jumping to conclusions as usual: I haven't claimed they are the same; I'm asking about the difference.
One is a mathematical simplification, the other a philosophical confusion.
Yeah, I didn't think you could explain it; just a tendentious characterization, which is the sort of thing I've come to expect from you. It's a shame; you could probably do so much better.
It's the difference between a representational relationship ("the kettle" symbols and perceptions of the kettle <-> the kettle), exemplified by a neural model, and the kettle as treated as an experiential object ("imagination", "appearance", "fiction") in a conceptual scheme ("environmental story telling device"). The former is a practical and representational relationship with the states of the environment, in which environment states' content historically+reciprocally determines word semantic content and perceptual content (without necessarily being one to one), the latter is an experiential relationship of what is produce in/by a model to an agent. Is a lens's image in the lens or of what it pictures?
The "hidden state" being "hidden" doesn't necessarily make the claim that the hidden state's "content", whatever it is, is "hidden" from perception or symbolisation since it's used in those processes AFAIK (that needs to be demonstrated or interpreted out of it). That's like placing a semantic or perceptual veil over reality.
From my perspective, what makes @Banno and @Isaac able to agree on a surface level is that they're able to agree that there is a semantic or perceptual veil of some sort; just for Banno it's transparent to the point of non-existence (see sub discussion of the world being English shaped or events taking propositional form) vs for @Isaac the veil is totally opaque, if constraining, to hidden state content in both cases - negative tight constraints ('can't be this...) rather than transmission of content (red approximately equals (these wavelengths for us in this context)).
In my one liner, the cognitive grasp of an object is the interior of a model's state, rather than an environmental one interacting with an internal one (it's the bit in your head), and thus it's not the kettle as it is in the environment (that's the bit in the world). And the limit on possible thought bit corresponds to the claim that neural models place tight constraints on what environmental behaviours are like rather than transmitting a summary of their content.
How we model whatever we are sensorially affected by is hidden, since there is no way to definitively link our conceptualizations with what is pre-conceptual. There would only be a "veil" if we assumed that our models are somehow distorting what they are modeling; which would be an entirely unwarranted conclusion, since we have no way of comparing our models with what is being modeled.
Edited the post a bit to be more explicit, if you're got anything further to add, please do.
As to whether or not the hidden states are hidden from perception, I would say that depends on how you define perception. If we are affected pre-cognitively would those affects count as perception? If you say yes, then surely you would have to then draw distinction between those pre-cognitive "perceptions" and conscious concept-mediated perception, no?
To be sure, neural models are not representational... So that doesn't look right.
Quoting fdrake
So for me there is a veil that doesn't exist...? Again, that doesn't look right.
Hidden states are inputs in recurrent neural networks, not things-in-themselves or some other philosophical notion. Confusing the two seems to be the source of the present impasse.
Quoting Janus
See?
I do, but I'll do it when I'm less tired because it's finicky. I could default to my usual 900 page essays on trivial bollocks, but I'll try and make it briefer than usual.
Ooh. What are they for you then?
Quoting Banno
I don't think you think there is a veil. What I intended to convey (but failed) was the sub discussion we had about "On the Very Idea of a Conceptual Scheme" - that having one shared one is very much the same as there being none at all, so the idea of a conceptual scheme turns out to be too confused to use. Why I think of it as a veil still is because the world ends up "English shaped" due to that shared relation and how it relates to shared environments; whereas I claim we know it isn't "English shaped" and even speak as if isn't. But we can get into that entirely different sub discussion at a later date.
"language shaped" would be better, since firstly a corollary of the argument On the very idea... is that all languages are inter-translatable, hence in effect the same; and secondly whatever we choose to talk about will be, by the fact that we talk about it, shaped by the language we use.
So your claim to know that "it" isn't "English shaped" is either wrong or I've misunderstood it.
If your use here of "hidden states" is supposed to be the same as @Isaac's, then is seems you have made a category error.
I find it amusing to supplement passive insult with active?
Quoting Banno
With no explanation of what you take Isaac's conception of "hidden states" to be...see the problem? I'm trying to draw you into examining your ideas...
Can we please postpone that discussion for now? I don't think our quibble there is too much related to the semantic content and denotation quibbles we're having. We both seem to agree "the kettle" denotes, and that we can say ""the kettle is boiling" is true" asserts the same thing as "the kettle is boiling".
Quoting Banno
My worries for that are kinda orthogonal to the current discussion. I've got two flavours of worries; over reliance on an implicit ontology we create through how we use language. The second flavour of worry is here, (make the interpretation discussed linguistic or linguistically mediated). The first one is maybe related to the discussion; there's perhaps relevance in talking about "the kettle" as a construct of folk psychology vs "the kettle is boiling" being an accurate statement when the kettle boils (I agree that it's accurate because the appropriate court of evaluation for it is the pragmatic context it's in). The second one would take us much farther afield.
My exegesis here for the second quibble is more detailed.
Fair enough; you've so little else to work with.
Quoting Janus
See Quoting Banno
Quoting Banno
...and the conversation with @Isaac back a few pages. That you did not recognise the answer is perhaps indicative of not understanding your own question.
Of course that will never happen, but by all means have your rest. I'm off to lunch soon anyway, but first have to repot a passionfruit blown over by a gale.
Quoting fdrake
Both look very interesting. But on to more mundane things for us both, for a while.
But I said more than that. I said that whatever the proposition means must be related to what is actually the reality of the situation, and through this comparison, it is judged for truth. That's how we determine the truth of a proposition, through judgement. How could the truth of a proposition be determined, except by a judgement?
Quoting Michael
Actually, what you've just stated, that one must be right and the other wrong, is just a judgement itself, made by you, as Mww has already pointed out.
True or not true can be nothing other than a judgement. The question of the thread, I believe, is what exactly constitutes a true judgement. But we cannot remove the judgement aspect without leaving "true' as completely meaningless. That would be like asking what is "red" while insisting it's not a colour.
That's an artificial distinction. Knowledge, and thus epistemology, is grounded in ordinary life and we use ordinary (and, if need be, specialized) language to talk about it.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
That's correct, and no-one disagrees. A flat-earther can claim to know that the world is flat. He nonetheless doesn't know that. So there's a distinction between knowledge and knowledge claims.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Actually, it does. For example, people once said that they knew that Hilary Clinton was going to win the 2016 election. But since she didn't win, they didn't know that at all, they only thought they did. The term knew is retracted because of the implied truth condition.
This is somewhat analogous to Alice saying that "Trump won the 2020 US election". Is Alice misusing the word "won"? Does she need to consult a dictionary so she can correct her mistake? Presumably, the problem is not with her use of the word "won", it's that her perfectly well understood claim is false.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
I see that Oxford Languages lists that as an archaic usage, as in "we appeal to all good men and true to rally to us". But that context isn't propositional truth.
Quoting Michael
Yes. I will have to take a look at the paper. Note that SEP put knew in scare quotes with the above Clinton example, which I think also says something about the ordinary use of the term.
I take nominal to mean that the definition can't be employed to establish which statements are true (see Kant's comments here). That's the case with Aristotle's (classical) definition as with Kant's.
Quoting Mww
As I mentioned earlier, for Aristotle, to say something presupposes cognition. Keeping in mind, of course, that people sometimes do speak without thinking...
That's what you say. He says he knows it, you say he does not know it. It's your word against his. We can move to analyze the justification, and show that your belief is better justified than his, but this still doesn't tell us whether one or the other is true. And if you argue that his is not knowledge, it's not because his belief is not true that it's not knowledge, it's because it's not justified. So we cannot establish the relationship between knowledge and true, in this way.
Quoting Andrew M
If anything which may turn out to be false in the future cannot be correctly called knowledge, then there is no such thing as knowledge, because we cannot exclude the possibility of mistake. This is what Plato demonstrated in The Theaetetus. So, it's much better to allow that what people claim to know right now, is "knowledge", regardless of the fact that it may later turn out to be wrong. It was still knowledge, at that time, before it was proven wrong.. So, if at a later time they decide against it, it is no longer knowledge, but it still was knowledge back when it formed the principles upon which they based their decisions.
It's more accurate to define "knowledge" as the principles that one holds and believes, which they apply in making decisions. That is a person's knowledge, regardless of the fact that it may later turn out to be wrong. This way, we don't have to decide at a later date that the knowledge we held before wasn't really knowledge. And the knowledge we hold now will later turn out to be not knowledge, onward and onward so that there is no such thing as something we can truly call "knowledge" because we can never exclude the possibility of mistake..
Quoting Andrew M
It isn't archaic usage. It is the principal meaning of "truth", employed in courts of law etc., and any time or place where people are asked to "tell the truth".
What are we to conclude here? Modal Realism?
From hidden states.
Quoting Luke
Who said anything about the world surprising us?
Quoting Luke
You said...
Quoting Luke
This is only true if the terms are interchangeable (that truth is about the model being surprising), otherwise your conclusion doesn't follow, hence you begged the question by assuming that relation in your argument for it.
Quoting Luke
I really don't know where you're getting that idea from.
There's a muddle of temporal terms here that I can't make sense of, You say that we "never encounter evidence...", but then ask "were we...". 'Were' from what temporal vantage point? Your first 'never' seems to disallow any point of reflection from which we can look back and ask the question.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Interesting question. Change and chaos. Or, less prosaically - (1) our models are based on priors and priors are necessarily based on historical inferences which will be constrained by previous states of the environment, not the current one, hence a source of de-coupling, our environment changes, our models run behind that change; and (2) there's a lot of noise in the system, neuron firing can be random, so a lot of what neural modelling does, one of the main reasons for backward acting suppression, is to make sure that noise is not mistaken for data, but this system isn't perfect, so sometimes it is. Obviously, there are then magnifying effects of both of these since we do not passively receive data from the external states, but rather we actively harvest data (and even manipulate those states) to match our models, so we're going to act in such ways as to re-affirm the model predictions insofar as that it possible, even if those model predictions have been affected by nothing but noise.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Yes, that's right. We could model our 'surprise' as errors in our models, or as part of the narrative, as evil demons, as the tweaking of the matrix by our cruel AI overlords... The whole of active inference is a scientific model, an activity we undertake to help explain phenomena, just like philosophy. Some explanations seem better than others, but the reason why they do so can only ever itself be just another such explanation.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
You're focussing on material construction, which is not that the model of active inference is about. The model is about data. It simply says that given a self-organising network of data nodes that is greater than a mere ring of nodes, there will inevitably be nodes which are inside a Markov blanket relative to the nodes which don't constitute the system. That has nothing to do with the material constituents of the nodes, only their informational relationship with one another. Thus, as a self-organising system, we must, by definition, have internal states, and boundary states (and there must exist external states). Without these three states we cannot say that there is a system at all, we cannot define it from 'not-system' without defining a boundary and (as far as data is concerned) that boundary must be Markov boundary if the internal network is any more complex than a single ring of nodes.
So the only way we could be informationally connected to 'the world' without a Markov boundary is if we say that we are the world, one integrated system. I don't think anyone is going there...
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
That data underdetermines theory is implied by defining a system, as is raw data. As above, the mere definition of an informational system implies a boundary and external states. Complexity beyond a mere ring implies boundary nodes. Once you have those two elements, it is a necessary fact of the model that external states must be inferred by internal states from the states of the boundary nodes. If you introduce any variable whatsoever (active harvesting, ergodic feedback mechanisms, noise...) then it is a necessary part of the model that this inference will be prone to error - underdetermined by the external states.
So...
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I don't think that's true. I've outline above how the very act of defining a system leads us to the conclusion that there are external, internal and boundary states and that external states can only be inferred by internal states from boundary states.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Yep. I'm not sure what improvement in certainty you're looking for beyond that which we can rationally argue for.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Hopefully avoided pragmatism in my answer... but do check.
Quoting Banno
Yes, this is what I've been trying elucidate, but perhaps you're right and my use of 'fiction' here has only confused matters. There's perhaps a better way to explain.
The idea here (for me) is that despite having to posit hidden states as part of our informational meta-thoery (see my post to Srap above), these states can still be proper objects of reference. "the kettle" doesn't refer to my model of a kettle, it refers to (in the informational model) the hidden state itself. It's like us all speculating what's in the room next door. the subject of our speculations isn't our speculations, the subject of our speculations is what's actually in the room next door. As such, the best way I can find of 'translating' an active inference model to talk of "kettles" is to say that "kettle" refers (when it refers at all, that is - not all uses are referenential, of course) to the hidden state we're modelling, the contents of the room we're speculating about.
The difference is that we have data which more or less coheres with certain speculations (still on the 'room' analogy here) such that the speculation "nothing is in the room" would be difficult to cohere with a lot of noise and shouting coming from it - ie you still burn your hand when you touch the kettle.
So, perhaps more to @Luke than yourself (I may otherwise be preaching to the choir...)...
Kettles and water and boiling might be describable as collective fictions, but the part that needs emphasising (that I ought perhaps to have emphasised) is that they're purposeful fictions. They're not fantasies like the Lord of the Rings, where anything goes, they've a job to do - that of unifying, to an extent, our individual (neural) models so that we can co-operate, and not constantly surprise one another. This hooks them in to the actual external states we exist within in a way that actual fiction need not worry itself with.
(if that's cleared anything up @Luke then you can thank Banno)
Well, yes, to a point. Although the topic here is 'truth' I think the reason we've diverged so much is that the simple redundancy that there's nothing more to "P is true" than "P" tends to lead to an assumption that that's all there is to say on the matter of truth. Whereas, to quote Ramsey "there are interesting problems in the vicinity".
The issue of the degree to which (and implications thereof) external states constrain our use of language that tries to refer to them is just such a 'problem in the vicinity', in my opinion.
I see language as a tool, part of our suite of 'active states', which themselves from part of the Markov boundary, but (by necessity) active states are influenced only by internal states (if they weren't they wouldn't be active states, they'd be sensory states), so we have a chain [hide="Reveal"](actually a cycle since the last link in the chain is external states which is also the first link)[/hide] of external states>sensory states>internal states>active states(language use).
If we accept that model, then the extent to which language mirrors external states is, it seems, not entirely dependant on sensory states, but rather on the intent of active states. To use an analogy with perception, I see language more like saccades than V1 modelling, part of the active state response, not the passive state reception.
I don't feel qualified to comment on the potential differences because I wouldn't claim to know very much about Kant's noumena. From a complete layman perspective though, Kant's noumena are often referred to as the thing-in-itself, yes? Taking that literally (perhaps erroneously, though) I think the difference would be in that hidden states do not posit any 'thing' at all, they are an informational construct, about data, not material composition. As such they can be an implication of a data model, whereas any thing-in-itself would be ontological? But as I say, I'm not sure as I don't have a deep understanding of noumena.
It's quite difficult for me to tell precisely how this limits your agreement with ""P" is true iff P". I can think of two possibilities, but I doubt they are exhaustive.
( 1 ) The first is that because our engagement with the world is simultaneously pragmatic and representational; passive states feed to active states feed to environmental interventions feed to passive states...; representational accuracy is not the only criterion by which the environment is parsed, so the environmental objects and processes which are referred to in "the kettle is boiling" aren't really environmental since what is referred to is part of the internal states of someone's body/brain/mind.
Your difficulty then comes with the interpretation of equating the kettle boiling with a state of the environment. The equation itself could have two subcases:
( 1 a ) Strict identity; this is undermined by the fact that the process is representational rather than presenting a numerical identity between brain-states/body-states. In other words, there is no one-one correspondence between "brain-stuff" (activation patterns, mind states) and "environmental stuff" (water molecules heating up etc) because modelling provides an inferential summary rather than an unfiltered presentation of environmental stimuli.
(1 b) Representational equivalence; by this I term I mean that the aggregate of brain and body states in the inferential summary in ( 1 a ) counts as an environmental object sortally, even though one is a brain-body state and one is an environmental state. You could "count" the kettle and the class of brain-states regarding it as "the same thing", just one is represented (environmental object) and one is the product of representation (internal state). This is undermined because the inferential summary is pragmatic.
( 2 ) It doesn't matter that the modelling relationship is inferential and pragmatic rather than presentational, what matters is that the states identified as perceptual ones are internal (of the brain, body) rather than external (of the environment).
In both of these cases, the content of language is treated as constrained by the how the content of perception is generated, since the semantic content of any expression is a historically informed inferential summary of internal states which is also an internal state. The distinction representation (models) and symbolisation (expression) doesn't matter for your analysis of truth, since they're both either not the appropriate sort of equivalence as in ( 1 ) or merely internal as in ( 2 ).
The distinction between ( 1 ) and ( 2 ) is that ( 1 ) cares about the properties of the internal state (which block statement truth somehow), and ( 2 ) just cares about the property that they are internal (which blocks statement truth by itself).
A proposition being true and a proposition being determined to be true are two different things. There is a correct answer to "how many coins are in the jar?" before we actually count them.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
It's not just a judgement. See above.
That's exactly what I don't agree with obviously.
Quoting Michael
If you think so, explain to me who has counted the coins in the jar and stated the answer. An "answer" is something stated as a reply to a question. If no one has counted the coins, and it was not determined at the time of placing the coins in the jar, and the jar has been watched, then no one knows how many there are, and no one has stated the "correct answer". The "correct answer" will be determined when the coins are counted. Therefore, there is not a correct answer to that question before the coins are counted. The number of coins is undetermined, no "correct answer".
This, I propose to you, is where we cross the line between honesty and dishonesty in our philosophy. We honestly know that unless the number has been determined, there is no correct answer. The correct answer is undetermined, it does not exist. However, we assume that since the coins could be counted, there is potentially a correct answer, and we allow that this potential answer has actual existence, and we say as you do, "there is a correct answer". This, I tell you, is a dishonesty, because we know very well that there is a difference between what actually exists and what potentially exists, yet we allow this division to be nullified, because it simplifies our use of mathematical language. We do not have to account for the process of counting, (See the difference between actually and potentially infinite for example). The abundant consequences of this sort of dishonesty are very evident in the issues of quantum mechanics.
Quoting Michael
That's right, it's not just a judgement, it's a special type of judgement, a dishonest judgement made for the sake of facilitating our language use, especially mathematical languages (See above). When we are well convinced that "the truth" could be determined, we jump to the dishonest conclusion that the truth already is determined, for the sake of avoiding philosophical discussion about the required process of determination. The fact that this is a mistake is fully exposed in quantum mechanics. The particle's location really is not determined before the process of determination, and it is obviously mistaken to think that it is. Therefore it is only the process of determination (the act of measurement) which can determine "the correct answer". And the character of that assumption, that there is a correct measurement, prior to the measurement being made, is fully exposed for the lazy, and dishonest, attitude that it truly is.
I can say "there are 66 coins in the jar" and that claim can be true even if I haven't counted the coins in the jar and even if nobody knows how many coins are in the jar.
It's not the case that my claim retroactively becomes either true or false after someone has counted them. And it's not the case that if two people count the coins in the jar and come to a different conclusion that both of them are right.
We're not talking about quantum states though. It's not the case that the number of coins in the jar is in a superposition of all possible numbers until they're counted.
Your account of truth appears inconsistent with the (meta)physics of the world.
So you say, but as I explained, I think you are being dishonest in your statement. You are using "can be true" which honestly implies possibility, to make it appear as if "66" actually is true. It is not.
To "be true" is very clearly a judgement. And if no one has counted the coins, who do you propose has made that judgement, God? Obviously, you are not even proposing that the judgement has been made, you only say "can be true", meaning it is possibly true. Yes, just like 65, 64, etc., are all potentially true answers. But that does not justify the claim that there is a true answer.
Quoting Michael
This does not address the issue. Prior to being counted your answer, 66, "can be true", meaning it has the potential to be true, just like other numbers. When the coins are counted, there is a correct answer. There is no retroactivity involved. Prior to being counted, all the answers had the potential to be true, and after counting, the judgement is made.
Retroactivity is the mistaken route which the others proposed. After determining that what was accepted as "knowledge" is determined to be incorrect, they propose that we retroactively declare that it was really not knowledge. But then everything which we commonly call "knowledge", may at any moment, be shown to be not knowledge. Retroactive judgements is a mistaken venture.
This issue was very well discussed by Aristotle thousands of years ago. His solution was an exception to the law of excluded middle, to account for the reality of potential. So things which require a judgement, like the famous sea battle example, are neither true nor false, prior to the judgement being made. "There will be a sea battle tomorrow" is neither true nor false. And, after tomorrow passes, we do not retroactively say that there was a truth or falsity to that statement yesterday. We simply must face the fact that there neither is a truth nor a falsity to these statements which require a judgement, prior to the judgement being made.
Quoting Michael
I used quantum mechanics as an example of how that type of dishonest thinking, which you display, causes problems in application. The particle "can" (potentially) have a location, but that does not justify the claim that it does actually have a location.
Ahhhh....now I see how you related classical to nominal. My go-to reference doesnt use nominal to qualify the definition, so thanks for that.
Actually, we end up with...the nominal definition, the one used by classical logicians including Aristotle, ad recounted in Kant, re: truth is that cognition which conforms to its object, cant be employed to establish which statements are true. But what is truth? isnt asking about statements, it is asking after the conditio sine qua non with respect to the truth of our empirical cognitions in general, and insofar as the nominal definition involves a circularity, according to Kant and as stated in last part of the pg 45 comment...there isnt any by means of the use of it.
Hence, the implication of what definitions are supposed to do, re: ...the criterion of the possibility of a conception is the definition of it..., and because truth is a valid conception, hence its possibility is given, it must meet the criterion of being defined. Which is what the ...assumed as granted and thereby presupposed is meant to indicate. What do you think....is there a definition other than the nominal, that defines what truth is?
Perhaps, with our powers combined, we could come up with something that works for us. Obviously to make these comparisons one has to have an interpretation of Kant, so there's going to be some controversy with respect to which interpretation we're favoring. But if we don't mind stirring that pot and wanting to have some kind of rough idea, I'd claim I have some knowledge of the noumena. (EDIT: heh, well... as a philosophical concept, at least! :D I'd be contradicting myself the other way...)
In my understanding of the distinction we have to step back and look at the philosophical landscape of the time to see what sorts of debates were being taken seriously by philosophers: Is space relative, or absolute? Are we free, or are we determined by the laws of physics? Does God exist? Is the soul immortal?
From the particular examples that Kant works through we can see that his target is metaphysical theories. Further, these metaphysical theories are demonstrated to be undecidable since the only way we settle whether some statement is true is by referring to what we collectively experience, and these particular theories and judgments attempt to get "outside" of our experience and assert the truth of things we have no connection to.
By "no connection", I always harp on the fact that one of the categories is "causation", and the noumena is outside of the categories, and so no we cannot make sense of the noumena by applying the category of causation to it -- it does not cause phenomena. With respect to our scientific knowledge, at least, it's a purely negative category (with respect to the other two powers of the mind, practical reason and aesthetic/teleological judgment, the noumena plays a different role -- but with respect to scientific knowledge, it's purely negative)
So given that, from your description of "hidden states" -- I'd say these things are absolutely not connected. First we don't even have concepts with your neural model, that's sort of just "assumed" to ride along with the firing of neurons. And then with all the causal language being used "noumena" seems wholly innappropriate as a boundary condition for this discussion. I'd say this falls under "empirical psychology", so the transcendental conditions of knowledge won't effect what we have to say here even if we are Kantians.
Quoting Isaac
I like this notion of purposeful fictions.
I suppose the error theorist's task, then, is to lay out what discriminates a fantasy from a purposeful story -- "story" in the sense of our ability to parse the world into story form, ala "purposeful fiction". That might go some way to making this notion more appealing.
There is some number n where n >= 0 such that there are n coins in the jar is true even if nobody has counted them.
Your account of truth depends on a (meta)physics that isnt the case. The number of coins in the jar isnt in a superposition of all possibilities until someone has made a judgement.
And how do you account for two people making contradictory judgements, much like you and I here? Is it just the case that we disagree or is it also the case that one of us is right and one of us is wrong?
Thanks for the input. From what I understand of the discussion with @Isaac and @Janus though, a state (or collection of states) being modelled is a precondition of being able to count as knowledge, experience, representation, an object etc. It can be construed to be inappropriate to even say that something is a kettle because, allegedly (if I've read it right), what is related to is not an environmental object but inferential summary of the model's current state. It's something the modelling process is doing, not a direct relationship between mind and world. And we can't 'get behind' the modelling process to "sneak up to the noumenon" so to speak.
I agree with you that it's actually an inappropriate comparison with the noumenon, but my claim is that @Isaac and @Janus seem to be operating under the assumption that such an inferential summary has broadly Kantian import. By that I mean the process of modelling plays the role of the categories+schematism, and the internal+receptive states play the roles of appearance, phenomenon and the modelling process itself plays the role of the faculty of sensible intuition. In total this renders us unable to reach "beyond" experience into the object since experience is equivalent to the modelled state, just as an object is always and only given through/into sensible intuition.
I agree with you that you don't have to interpret the hidden state/internal state/external state/sensory state account with the internal/external split detailed above, but if you do treat it like that internal and external look a lot like phenomenon/noumenon (even when it doesn't have to be interpreted that way). I believe this misalignment is fundamental in keeping this discussion unresolved.
You seem to be missing the point that @Metaphysician Undercover is an anti-realist, and his account of truth is some version of verificationism. (For meaning, it is sufficient that the coins can be counted, but for truth, it must actually have been done.)
Quoting Isaac
I can't imagine disagreeing with any of this.
But it is also evident, to me at least, that our language and how we conceive mentality does not match up, in any simple way, with this description. Now what?
One option is to say, well, we've moved on. Our languages are the ossification of a folk psychology that we know better than now. Of course we'll have trouble expressing this new view of things in the terms of the old paradigm. You can even soften the pitch a little by claiming only that the new view is different, rather than less wrong, but the hope is still that it is a more fruitful paradigm for inquiry. There must be reason to switch, and problems with the old paradigm provide plenty of motivation there.
But I think it's not that simple. There is an almost irresistible temptation to identify mentality with the internal states of such a system -- a sort of "what else could it be?" But much of the last fifty years of philosophy in the English-speaking world has been devoted to showing that this identification is mistaken. This cluster of issues became important precisely because of the promise of early work in artificial intelligence, generative linguistics, and brain science -- everything that would become cognitive science -- and the realization of some philosophers that we might be able to say we had finally found the mind, and it is the brain. [hide="For instance."](I had forgotten that Putnam's "The Meaning of 'Meaning'" opens with a breathless encomium to the wonders of Chomsky's linguistics. Soon we will actually know something!)[/hide] Endless debate ensued, some of which continues, and some of which seems very old-fashioned now. But in the meantime, other philosophers noticed that our mental concepts and all of our language, in fact, seem not to respect this apparently natural identification of the mental with the internal. I find those arguments pretty persuasive.
There's no problem for science here. If you tell a scientist that what he's investigating turns out not to be X, he can shrug and go on investigating whatever it is he is investigating. Whether it's X is not really his concern. He may have been considering writing a popular piece for Scientific American explaining how his work changes our understanding of X, and now he can just not do that and spend his time in the lab instead. (Occasionally a scientist will decide that showing up philosophers is part of the job.)
But there's still plenty for philosophy to worry about. Science, so far, may have failed to straight up solve issues of mentality for us, but it has perhaps sharpened (at least indirectly) what those issues are.
What I think we need to be careful about, is thinking the mismatch between a particular scientific model, on the one hand, and a philosophical one, on the other, indicates that one has not sufficiently slurped up the other yet, but it will. It's that "if all you have is a hammer" thing.
All of which is to say that knowledge, for instance, is not a relation that holds or fails to hold between the internal and inferred external data nodes of a self-organizing system. Apples and oranges.
Will be reading back through this latest run of posts and maybe commenting. Threw in something else in the meantime.
Do you want to keep truth functions?
I'm even more confused by this! Can the hidden state denoted by "the kettle" boil? Even though boiling is a collective fiction? The first predicates boiling of the hidden state, the second predicates boiling of the collective or an agent or a modelling system (the kettle boils vs the collective fiction has the kettle boiling).
One can see why @Joshs mistakes this for the thing-in-itself, or some such.
"purposeful fictions" still contains the problematic "fiction"; I wonder if "narrative" would be better, leaping from non-symbolic to symbolic representation. Or perhaps "invention", we invent the kettle from the hidden state; but that loses something of the cooperative aspect.
I recall a month or so back a conversation in which it was said (possibly Joshs, again) that the mind creates reality, and we asked the obvious question, if mind creates reality, what does it create it from? Here you are answering that question, showing how the kettle is created by a neural net that interacts with stuff outside it.
Thanks for your reply. We must at some stage look for a bone of contention between us; It'll be something to do with the move from a neural net to a narrative. To my eye, building on Searle, at some stage there is a move from a hidden state to a narrative about a kettle, that has a logical form something like "This hidden state counts as a kettle"...
Quoting Banno
If one interprets this in Davidsonian terms, then the thing in itself equates to real physical properties. I agree with Rorty and Putnam that description-dependence goes all the way down.
The difference between a Davidsonian non reductive physicalist and a Rortyan naturalistic pragmatist is that the former does not deny that there really are physical properties at the micro-structural level, because the efficiency of a physical vocabulary is a sufficient reason to extend its claims to ontology. In contrast, the latter thinks that Davidsonian "physical properties" and "the micro-structural level" are just theoretical suppositions that are meaningful only within a description or vocabulary. They think that it is sufficient for a denial of the existence of physical properties at the level of ontology, precisely because they are still description-dependent.(ELIMINATIVE MATERIALISM ELIMINATED:
RORTY AND DAVIDSON ON THE MIND-WORLD RELATION, Istvan Danka)
Quoting Banno
And I would add that if the net is the description, then the outside stuff the neural net interacts with cannot be assumed to harbor any features, properties, substance in themselves that are description-independent.
Yes, you have given so little to work with when it comes to just what you are wanting to say, beyond bare assertion and aspersion, Remember I've claimed no expertise regarding what the idea of "hidden states" entails. That's what I'm trying to find out in order to compare it with what I know the idea of noumena entails; which is basically that we are pre-cognitively affected, and that we have no conceptual purchase on what constitutes that pre-cognitive affect. The "hidden" in 'hidden states' seems to be suggesting a similar idea.
Quoting Isaac @Mww
I believe there is a Kantian distinction between the "thing in itself" and noumena; the former is a purely formal or logical requirement to the effect that if there is something as perceived there must be a corresponding thing as it is in itself. .'Noumena' I take to signify the general hidden or invisible nature of what is affecting us pre-cognitively such as to manifest as perceptual phenomena.
I can't speak for Isaac, but I think you have my position pretty much right, except that I would say that we cannot help in ordinary discourse having the hidden state count as a, for example, kettle. Whether we call it a kettle, a hidden state or a noumenon, though, is a matter of what "language game"; we happen to be playing and is a matter of stipulation, not of fact.
What does seem to be a fact is that we are pre-cognitively affected and that we have, and can have, no conceptual grasp of that process. This is where I lose patience with Banno; as he seems to be simply asserting, ad nauseum, that it is a matter of fact that it is a kettle. But then I'm not sure what is behind his apparent position, since he offers no detailed reasoning.
Neural networks do not use propositions. Hence, some explanation will be needed if they are "description-dependent".
Now this is in agreement with the idea of noumena, which are understood to be affecting us, but not in any way dependent on descriptions (conceptualization), nor in any way amenable to being described.
Neural networks instantiate patterns of normatively oriented practical engagement with a world. One can also think of these patterns in terms of forms of description, accounts, schemes , values. Propositions are one peculiar, culturally contingent linguistic product of such normative patterns.
No, it isn't.
Yes it is. See I can play that stupid game too.
Hey, you win.
One may describe what a neural net does in propositional terms, post hoc. But there are no propositions present in neural nets. Neural networks do not function by making use of propositions.
There is somewhere that propositions are present?
Yes, sometimes we use propositions.
No, they function by instituting normative patterns. This they have in common with our propositional terms, because their organizational basis is the condition of possibility of propositional grammar. You would have to eliminate the net aspect of neural nets, removing the ascription of patterned organization to ones neural model, in order to sever the normative equivalence between neurological and propositional.
I just don't see the point of being gnomic when doing philosophy, but you do you.
For instance, as you note,
Quoting Banno
and you yourself intend someday to tell a story that begins "Once upon a time there was an entity with a neural network,..." and ends "And they used propositions happily ever after."
If you don't know the middle bit yet, that's understandable. I suppose people waiting for the next installment would like some reassurance that there will be a middle bit. "Blah blah blah, the end" is not a good story.
What's that mean?
Neural networks are not von neumann machines. They do not manipulate symbols, they modify weightings.
We agree on that, at least?
You are just begging the question Michael. Sure it is true that someone could count the coins, and determine how many there are. But until someone does, there is no such thing as the number of coins in the jar. This requires that someone draws (judges) a relation between a particular number, and the quantity which the jar contains. Until then, the number of coins in the jar is undetermined.
All you are doing here is mentioning every possible number, and saying that one of them will be the number of coins in the jar, if counted. So you are assuming that it is possible that the coins can be counted and you say that one of the infinite possibilities will match. I would assume the same thing. But I think it's quite obvious that until they are counted, there is no such thing as the number of coins in the jar. No specific number has been assigned to that assumed quantity. Therefore there is no number to that quantity. And what you are saying above, is that out of all the possible numbers, you are quite sure that one will prove to be the correct number. So you apply some logic to justify your claim that the coins can be counted and one number will prove to be the correct number. However, this does not produce the conclusion that there already is a correct number, as you seem to think it does.
Quoting Michael
This is a good question. If the two people honestly believe what they are saying, and are stating it to the best of their capacity, they are both making true statements, regardless of the fact that they disagree with each other. This is why knowledge requires justification as well as truth. We move to resolve these disagreements through justification. Right and wrong are judgements based in justification, whereas "true" is a judgement based in what one honestly believes. You can see a lot of overlap here, and that is "knowledge" as justified true belief.
Quoting Banno
Ok, Ill go with that , even though there are other ways of describing their functioning. Getting away from a computational approach to neural modelling is a good start. Next step would be dumping representationalism.
Absolutely.
Quoting Janus
Ok. I would rather think the ding an sich as merely an ontological necessity; if there is an affect on us by a thing, the thing-in-itself is given immediately by it. The only difference between a thing and a thing-in-itself.....is us. So your notion of formal and logical requirement is too strong, methinks.
Quoting Janus
It doesnt hurt anything to think noumena as you say, but that wouldnt the Kantian distinction. Simply put, phenomena arise legitimately according to rules. Noumena arise illegitimately by overstepping the rules. Noumena are possible iff what we consider as rules by which our intelligence works, are themselves unfounded, which is of course, quite impossible to prove. Which leaves them as entirely possible to another kind of intelligence altogether. Who knows....maybe that stupid lion thinks in terms of non-sensuous intuition, such that for his kind noumena are the standard. Too bad we cant just ask him, huh?
Noumena are not complicated; assembling and comprehending the antecedents against them, are.
That's kicking the can down the road. The flat earther will say he is justified in making his claim, you say he is not justified. It's your word against his.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Infallibility isn't a condition of knowledge, as ordinarily defined and used.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
If it is later decided that your "knowledge" was wrong, then that just is to decide that you didn't have knowledge, as ordinarily understood. Thus we have a translation between ordinary usage and your way of speaking.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
By that argument, there is also no such thing as something we can truly call a "kettle" because we can never exclude the possibility of mistake.
I seem to remember reading Kant where he says that if there are representations, then there must be something that is represented. I had interpreted this as being seen by Kant as a logical entailment. You seem to be saying it is an ontological entailment, so I'm wondering if there is a difference.
Quoting Mww
This is quite a novel way (for me at least) to think of noumena, If the ding an sich is an "unknowable X", unknowable in the sense that what it is in itself cannot be known, then I had thought of noumena as simply the general unknowable. This because the thing in itself is still thought as a thing, but a thing considered not as it is for us, but in itself, whereas I took noumena to signify what is unknowable, beyond even being thought of as thing or things. However, I am no Kant scholar, merely someone who has read some of his CPR and secondary sources about it; and it's also been a while. I'm more trying to tease out what are the implications of Kant's ideas, what we might think is implicit in them rather than explicit.
So, I am struggling to understand what you mean by this: "Noumena arise illegitimately by overstepping the rules. Noumena are possible iff what we consider as rules by which our intelligence works, are themselves unfounded, which is of course, quite impossible to prove."
It is too bad we can't ask him!
Quoting Andrew M
Quoting Andrew M
There seems to be a contradiction here. The second quoted passage seems to be saying that if what we thought was knowledge turns out not to be true, then it was never knowledge in the first place. Doesn't it follow that knowledge (as distinct from what we might think is knowledge) cannot be false; and thus that it is infallible?
I don't think so. Suppose Alice says that it is raining outside. There is no general criterion that we can use to determine the truth of her statement (i.e., independent of its specific context). Instead, we need to look at what the statement is about, in this case, the weather outside.
Regarding your question, what do you think?
Yes, knowledge cannot be false. But human beings, being fallible, are always capable of making mistakes or being wrong.
For example, Alice claims it's raining outside as a result of looking out the window. We can conceive of ways that her claim can be false (say, Bob is hosing the window), and thus not knowledge. But if it is raining outside, then she has knowledge.
So infallibility is not a condition of knowledge, whereas truth is. Another way of putting it is that Cartesian certainty isn't a condition of knowledge.
But isn't truth infallible in the sense of its being incapable of being false? Your reference to Cartesian certainty suggests to me that we may be talking at cross proposes, so I'm not proposing that possessing knowledge means that one knows one is infallibly correct, but that the knowledge we possess, if it is to be knowledge, must be infallible.
I have wondered whether it ought to be said that we possess knowledge in cases where we cannot be certain, that is when we do not know that we know, but that is a whole other can of worms.
I was referring specifically to human fallibility. I prefer to say that a true statement cannot be false, just as it cannot be raining outside and not raining outside. But word choice aside, we agree.
Quoting Janus
I think it sometimes can (@Srap Tasmaner gives some examples earlier in the thread), even if they often are found together. There's an interesting quote by philosopher Timothy Williamson on that subject here.
Quoting Janus
If S's knowledge that p is infallible, then S "cannot be wrong" that p. If that's just to say it is not possible that S knows that p and yet ~p, sure, that's impossible.
If S knows that p, and if we consider only possible worlds consistent with S's total knowledge, then p is true at all of those. p is, for S, epistemically necessary. But that's not to say that p is metaphysically necessary, which means there's a sort of odd gap. Any ~p-worlds that might exist are just epistemically inaccessible to S.
And that strikes me as curious. My knowledge that p creates in me an incapacity -- I become unable to know that ~p. Which is as it should be, but imagine reversing the analysis: suppose I do not know that p, and suppose further that I am, for whatever reason, utterly incapable of knowing that ~p. Then p-worlds are, ceteris paribus, consistent with my total knowledge, and only ~p-worlds at which I do not know that ~p. (At none of those will I know p either, because ~p.) This inability to be epistemically committed to ~p seems to greatly increase the likelihood of my landing at a p-world and knowing it. An inability to be wrong doesn't guarantee that you will be right -- you may never come even to hold a belief regarding p either way, much less know the truth -- but it surely helps.
(It's also curious that because we're interested in the complement, the weaker the commitment to ~p you are unable to make, the better for your chances of knowing that p: excluding worlds at which you only believe that ~p would be better; excluding worlds at which you take seriously ~p but are undecided, better still; excluding worlds at which you merely entertain the notion that ~p, better still.)
David Lewis has a paper that addresses infallibility. I've not read it yet.
++++
Dots I forgot to connect.
There's nothing particularly interesting about being right when you're right. Being right means really, really not being wrong.
But when Roman Catholics say that the pope is infallible with regard to certain, though not all, matters, what they mean is not only that whatever he has said is right, but that whatever he will say is right. He is unable to be wrong in these matters.
So the point I was making above is that when you're right, you pick up -- for free -- that inability to be wrong on this matter, and that feels like it's in the neighborhood of infallibility, though it's really just what being right is.
And that's why the reverse is interesting. An inability to speak ungrammatically doesn't mean you produce every grammatical sentence, but that every sentence you produce is grammatical. If you were unable to make faulty inferences, you wouldn't have every reasonable belief, but every belief you had would be reasonable, given your total evidence.
Maybe that's not much to get excited about though. Sounds a bit like playing not to lose, which is a notoriously bad strategy.
Quoting Joshs
Good. So we agree to moving away from a computational, representational approach to neural networking.
Then in what way does Quoting Joshs
Yes, broadly it's (2). What I'm really saying is that language doesn't seem to me to be very much in the business of 'representing' anything at all so much as the business of manipulating hidden states. It obviously derives from a model of how those hidden states will respond (otherwise the action on them would be random), but I wouldn't, myself, expect to see very much by way of reflection in the language of those motivating models.
So to answer your second post (or just make my position even more confusing!) there's a difference between "there's a a kettle" and "the kettle is boiling" that is not found in the grammatical structure of predication. I see them as two different expressions for two different jobs, rather than see one as reflecting a hidden state and the second a predicating something of it (that same hidden state reflected by the former). Hidden states are whole and dynamic, linguistic entities are discrete and static. So linguistic entities can't really reflect hidden states, but I don't think that prevents them from being about hidden states, just that the 'aboutness' might be two-way (not just reflection but aspirational). "there's a kettle" might mean something like the intention that other's should use the word kettle for that which I model as such, whereas "the kettle is boiling" might be more intended to get people to stand away from the object and it wouldn't have really mattered if I'd said "the pot is boiling" instead.
As such, it's difficult to see any analysis of the truth of "the kettle is boiling" as being based on anything other than a post hoc assumption that the expression predicates something of the same "kettle" we have in mind when conducting this analysis.
Quoting Moliere
Great, thanks for the insight. I think my conversations with @Mww have moved along similar lines (the lack of overlap), but I can also see where there might be space for such a notion in our meta-theories. Hidden states themselves suffer from the same problem in that simply by positing them as causal, we have identified them (and so they're not really hidden). They can't really play a direct role in perception as such, but only in a meta-theory about perception. I can't look inside someone's brain and then look at my hidden-state-o-meter and see the connection, I can only put 'hidden states' as a place holder in my meta-model of how models are made.
Quoting Moliere
Yes. This kind of work (on social narratives and their function) is what I used to do my research on. It's a fascinating field - but then I would say that wouldn't I?
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Well... that's a massive question that deserves more time than I currently have for it. But... I think it leads us back to where I first interjected. If we're not conducting any kind of empirical investigation (nor constraining our models by the results of any such) then we're perhaps constructing an entity more like maths where axiomatic choices are made and consequences follow, but without any hooks in reality (as far as my limited understanding of maths goes). That's certainly as entertaining a pastime as any other, but it leaves us, much like maths, with judgements like 'elegance' or 'coherence' as our targets for a good model, rather than the more boring 'pragmatic utility' of the empirical investigation. All still fine so far, until... I aesthetically prefer my models to be pragmatic. My desire for a system to have pragmatic hooks into empirical sciences isn't dogmatic, it's aesthetic. I just like my theories that way. so any contribution I might make to the purely 'philosophical' constructions of how the world might be is going to end up that way whichever route we take to judging a theory's merit.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I agree. I think where we might differ is that I'd be more tempted to see the rogue philosophical position as a narrative, where you might have it more as an analytical truth?
Quoting Banno
I like 'narrative', but I've been told I use the word too often. I feel a renewed permission to revert to it now, though!
Quoting Banno
Even here though... I like '...counts as'. It covers a lot of what I was trying to get across to @fdrake in answering his questions above. The idea that speech is doing a job, in this case declarative - 'we'll treat this as a kettle'. It's declaring that any discrepancies we might have in resulting from whatever behaviours our neural networks are currently resulting in toward that hidden state, we should put them aside in favour of the more collaborative 'kettle'.
Quoting Janus
Thanks. So 'noumena' might be closer to hidden states in that respect, but I'd be interested to hear what you think of what @Moliere says about the problem of causality. Hidden states are definitely considered causal.
So are you saying that the number of coins in the jar is in some sort of superposition of all possible numbers until someone counts them?
Forget the word "true" for the moment: what kind of (meta)physics are you suggesting describes the nature of the world?
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
I am asserting what our best understanding of the world entails. You brought up quantum mechanics earlier to support your argument, so you appear to accept the findings of scientific enquiry, and the findings of scientific enquiry are that the number of coins in the jar isn't in a superposition of all possible numbers until counted.
I would say that you are begging the question, saying that "there is no such thing as the number of coins in the jar [until counted]" without any evidence or reasoning.
Right, but saying "I'm justified" is not acceptable justification. Nor is an appeal to authority, or to the norms of our society.
Quoting Andrew M
Infallibility is a condition of "truth" as you use it, and "truth" is a condition of knowledge. So infallibility is a condition of knowledge, under those terms.
Quoting Andrew M
No, I don't think that's right. People just change their minds about things, and sometimes if encouraged to, they will admit to having previously been wrong. But they are more inclined to say that their information (knowledge), was incorrect when the mistake was made, than that they didn't have knowledge at the time. This is because having incorrect knowledge allows them to pass blame elsewhere, toward the source of that incorrect knowledge.
If we look back, in retrospect, we see two possible principal causes of mistaken action, one being a lack of knowledge, the other being incorrect knowledge. The two are not the same, and we must maintain a distinction between them to be able to understand and prevent the causes of mistake in the future. You seem to be claiming that there is no difference between these two in ordinary usage of "knowledge", as if people don't distinguish between lack of knowledge and incorrect knowledge when assigning blame, and in other situations.
Quoting Andrew M
No, this is an incorrect conclusion as well. I define "true" with honesty. So if one honestly believes the item is "a kettle" then the person will truly call it a kettle, despite the fact that someone else might truly call it "une bouilloire". Excluding the possibility of mistake is not required for a human being to speak truthfully. That is supposed to be a feature of God, but not human beings.
Quoting Michael
No, not really. I used the example of quantum mechanics to elucidate the type of problems which adhering to your principles brings about. We look at an electron as a particle, and we think, a particle has a determinate location, therefore the electron has a determinate location. The issue at hand is that "determinate" is not the same thing as "determinable".
Now, if you and I look at the jar of coins, you would say that there is a determinate number of coins in the jar, and I would say that there is a determinable number of coins in the jar. I differ from you, because I insist that an act of determination (measurement) is required to determine the number of coins, before we can truthfully say that the number is determinate. You seem to take this act of determination for granted, as if there is already a number assigned to the coins without an act of measurement. That, I say is a mistake. There is no number already assigned to the coins prior to being counted, just like there is no location already assigned to the electron prior to being determined.
Taking things like this for granted is a pragmatic principle which is extremely useful. If we want to know the quantity of coins, we assume that there is such a thing as the quantity of coins, therefore it is determinable, and we are motivated to count them. Further, we can use this assumption to state premises for logical procedures, like you did, which I said was begging the question. However, that there is a determinate quantity is just an assumption, which is not completely justified until after the count. So in the case of the electron, we might assume it is a particle, therefore it has a location which is determinate, and then we could proceed to determine it. In the end though, the original assumption, that the electron is a particle with a determinate location, is never justified. What is justified is that it has a determinable location
What this demonstrates, is that we must be very wary of these pragmatic principles, which we accept without proper justification, for the sake of facilitating our logical procedures. The principles are extremely useful, and even appearing to be infallible in the circumstances where they are heavily used, and so they appear to be universal. But then, when we expand the use of them, because of that appearance of universality, outside their range of applicability, this misleads us. Because the principle is so extremely useful, and infallible in its original application (there is a determinate number of coins in the jar), we are not inclined to use the tool of skepticism, to question that premise and see where it is faulty.
Quoting Michael
Come on Michael, if I knew the answer to that, I'd have reality all figured out. And of course, so would everyone else because when one person gets it right everyone else jumps on board. I think metaphysics is an inquiry into the best way to describe the nature of the world. If one already knew the best way there would be no need for inquiry.
Quoting Michael
Look at it this way, it's very simple really. The truth of the phrase "the number of coins in the jar" implies that there is one specific number attached to, associated with, or related to, the quantity of coins in the jar. Can you agree with that? Now do you honestly believe that a particular number has already been singled out, and related to the quantity of coins in the jar, prior to them being counted? How is that possible?
I think the real problem here is that we've come from a tradition of religious beliefs. We have a religious history. So there are many old principles that we now take for granted, which are only properly supported by the concept of God. Isaac Newton for example, stated that his first law of motion (which we tend to take for granted), relies on the Will of God. This is similar to what I think about your belief, that there is a specific number already associated with the coins in the jar. It is a belief which was developed under the assumption that God has already counted them, and assigned that number to the quantity of coins in the jar.
Hidden states are the world, right? (However, you also say that the model is the world?)
Quoting Isaac
I have been trying to.
Quoting Isaac
That's not at all what I've been attempting to say. I reject this reading that "truth is about the model being surprising".
What I have been saying is that if the model is the world which is a collective fiction, then there should be no surprises. This "collective fiction" view is your account of redunancy, yes? Do you agree that there are no surprises with the truth of the collective fiction that "Aragorn was king of Gondor"? If so, then I don't see why the same should not extend to all (other) truths. According to redundancy, therefore, there should be no surprises. What I mean by a "surprise" is that our expectations are not met. But if it is our collective fiction, then why would our expectations not be met? We should always expect that "Aragorn was king of Gondor" is true, right?
However, in opposition to this, you also state that "the hidden states the world is a collective model of may be modelled imperfectly". This imperfect modelling indicates that occasionally our expectations may not be met. And that indicates a problem for the "collective fiction" view of redundancy. If it is the view of redundancy that there are no surprises and our expectations are always met because of our collective fiction, then there should be no "imperfect modelling".
Quoting Isaac
I'm getting it from my understanding of redundancy. If "p is true" is no more than "p", then the model and the "hidden states" are one and the same. In other words, there are no hidden states, only the model; only the collective fiction. Hence my charge of relativism. There should be no place for a "better model" according to redundancy. I see this as being the reason @Srap Tasmaner asks what makes it a "better" model, instead of merely a free or random change to the existing/previous model.
A better model indicates that what makes "p" true (or "more" true) is having/getting our model of the world perfect, or closer to perfection. It means that "p is true" is not just whatever we call "p" at a given time; but is instead the best version of "p" of all time - the "p" that perfectly models the world.
Once the world and model come apart, then it is no longer redundancy/deflationism (at least, as I understand it).
But as I said, the findings of science are that the position of an electron isn't like the number of coins in the jar. The former is in a superposition, the latter is not. If you want to use science to support your position then you cannot pick and choose which bits you like.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
I'm not even sure what you're asking. If you're asking if somebody has determined the number of coins before somebody has determined the number of coins, then of course not. If you're asking if there is some number of coins before somebody has determined the number of coins, then yes.
Your argument seems to commit a fallacy of equivocation.
Yes. The text is rife with affirmations.
....I cannot rest in the mere intuitions, butif they are to become cognitionsmust refer them, as representations, to something, as object, and must determine the latter by means of the former...
Quoting Janus
Again, no interpretive harm done, even if there is a great contextual and methodological difference. I would still hesitate to agree Kant sees it that way, for the very first paragraph of the text.....
.....For how is it possible that the faculty of cognition should be awakened into exercise otherwise than by means of objects which affect our senses, and partly of themselves produce representations...
.....indicates an ontological necessity, while the logical entailment, re: the possibility of awakening, resides in the system itself. But we see the awakening of the system constantly, and its negation is impossible, both entirely logical entailments, but irrelevant to its theoretical operation.
Quoting Janus
Noumena do represent what is unknowable, but for different reason than the ding an sich is unknowable. The latter merely from lack of immediate access by us, its objective reality being given, the former from the impossibility of its objective reality being given, to which the access is then moot.
Regarding beyond even being thought of as things....
....The understanding, when it terms an object in a certain relation phenomenon, at the same time forms out of this relation a representation or notion of an object in itself, and hence believes that it can form also conceptions of such objects....
....it is clear noumena are thought as things, insofar as thought is the origin of conceptions of things. Briefly, understanding treats phenomena, which are mere representations of objects, as objects themselves, which it has no warrant to do, for the arrangement of the matter of objects into a form is the purview of intuition alone.
Another thing: representation formed out of relation, is not the same as representation formed out of sensation. In effect, when understanding thinks a representation as object in itself, the entire sensory apparatus is bypassed, which means the faculty of sensuous intuition, the kind we actually possess, is idle. For us, then, this has two consequences negating the possibility of experience itself. First, going forward in the methodology, if cognition of objects requires sensuous intuition, and it is idle, no empirical cognition is at all possible. Hence, noumena as un-sensible objects in themselves, are necessarily uncognizable, which is the same as unknowable. And second, when going backward in the methodology, if sensuous intuition is idle, and it is the case that the awakening of our cognitive system depends exclusively on the appearance in sensation of real objects, the objective reality of such non-sensuous objects in themselves can never be given, which is also the same as such objects being unknowable.
....But I can think what I please, provided only I do not contradict myself..., and we can see, thinking noumena is not contradictory, but to attribute substance, reality or even adjoin concepts to them, is a contradiction of the systemic methodology itself.
Quoting Janus
Personally, my opinion is, first and foremost, that a priori conditions are not only possible, but necessary, and second, given from the first, that the human intellectual system has a natural, intrinsic, thus inescapable, duality.
Quoting Janus
Same here. Anything anybody says, even the relation of textual citations, with respect to Kantian metaphysics is no more than his own opinion.
I think Im going to backtrack, unapologetically I might add. While you did get me to think above and beyond my cognitive prejudices, I found support for my original claim, truth is that in which a cognition conforms to its object (A58/B82), here.....
...But although these rules of the understanding are not only à priori true, but the very source of all truth, that is, of the accordance of our cognition with objects...
......found at A237/B296, quite obviously further along in the methodological thesis, so shouldnt it be taken for granted he means an answer to what is truth?, which must be a definition of it, to be just that? To repeat what he doesnt mean would be disastrous.
On the other hand, perhaps one could reject that truth is....., is technically sufficient as a definition, but is rather merely an exposition of the conditions which make all truths possible. But the rejoinder to that would be thats precisely what a definition does, serves as the criterion for the validity of any conception.
Personal choice, then?
A jar of coins either has no coins in it, or some coins in it. For the moment only, assume there is no other possible state for a jar. (We need neither claim nor stipulate that the number of coins in an empty jar is 0.) If a jar has no coins in it, we cannot remove a coin from it; if a jar has some coins in it, we can remove a coin from it, and If we were to remove one coin, then again the jar would have in it either no coins or some coins. This we know because a jar must have no coins in it or some coins in it. We count, from 1, as we remove coins from the jar, stopping when there are no coins in the jar; if the procedure does not terminate, then there is no number of coins in the jar. If the procedure terminates, then the number we have reached is the number of coins that were in the jar before we started counting.
The only difficulty we face is determining what it means for a coin to be in the jar. If the jar is quite full, so that some coins rest on other coins but above the lip of the jar -- that is, outside the space we think of as bounded by the jar -- shall we count those as in the jar or not? If a coin is partially within the space bounded by the jar and partially outside that space, shall we say the coin is in the jar or not? If our jar of coins is in such a problematic state, then our counting procedure is of no use until we agree which coins will be considered to be in the jar. If we cannot agree which coins to count, there is no point in counting them. Similar considerations apply to what is a coin.
But if we do agree what to count as a coin and which coins to count, we know there is a procedure available, and that we will be able to determine the number of coins currently in the jar, even if we have not yet made that determination.
Proof that such a procedure, if it yields an answer, must yield a unique answer, is left to the reader.
....and I can only put noumena as a placeholder in a meta-theory of how other intelligences function.
Risky business, indeed.
I am linking description (space of reasons, account, value system) , to scheme , scheme to pattern and pattern to reciprocal network of relations. Tying all of these together within an enactivist approach are a connected set of concepts characteristic of autonomous living systems: organizational and operation closure and sensory-motor structural coupling between organism and environment.
Organizational closure refers to the self-referential (circular and recursive) network of relations that defines the system as a unity, and operational closure to the reentrant and recurrent dynamics of such a system.
autonomous systems do not operate on the basis of internal representations in the sub-jectivist/objectivist sense. Instead of internally representing an external world in some Cartesian sense, they enact an environment inseparable from their own structure and actions . In phenomenological language, they constitute (disclose) a world that bears the stamp of their own structure.(Thompson , Mind in Life)
It is not as though any particular description or account is split off from the environment it interacts
with and organizes. This is a two-way street. A network of relations defining a space of reasons or the pattern of a neural net is in a relation of reciprocal
causality with the world of material processes.
Can you explain the difference?
So what you were saying is that it is patterns all the way down, but miscalling them descriptions.
Sure, neural networks make use of patterns. They do not make use of names or propositions.
Quoting Isaac
One supposes that this counting as is the result of neural processes yet need not be located in any particular process. There need be nothing in common, perhaps, in the neural patterns that enable one to make a cup of tea and the neural process that enables one to order quality Russian Caravan from an online supplier. Yet both are to do with tea.
Hence, anomalous monism.
And
Quoting Joshs
would be to claim that neural science is imaginary...
Nor I. But I agree with Lewis that the standards of knowledge depend on the context:
Quoting David Lewis - SEP
The flat-earther is not claiming it is. He will point to what he regards as evidence for a flat earth. Is his claim thereby justified?
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Let me put it differently: Cartesian certainty is not a condition of knowledge, as ordinarily defined and used.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
The issue is not about what language one uses to refer to a kettle. It's that someone can conceivably, and honestly, mistake something for being a kettle that is not, or for not being a kettle when it is.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
That's exactly the point. Someone might be mistaken about whether the object before them is a kettle. Similarly someone might be mistaken about whether they have knowledge. People can make honest mistakes. They thought it was a kettle when it wasn't. They thought they knew something when they didn't.
Yes, agreed.
Quoting Mww
Yes, or an open question (which we can investigate the truth of). ;-)
You seem to be missing the point. In each case, there is no measure until the measurement is made. There is no number assigned to the supposed quantity within the jar, until the coins are counted, and there is no location of the electron until the measurement is made. "Superposition" is irrelevant, and something you just brought up as a distraction from the real issue, as if it had some relevance. It's really just a fancy word meaning that the position is undetermined, just like the number of coins is undetermined.
Quoting Michael
I think you are using dishonest language Michael, to avoid the question. "Some number" is a general reference, and it does not mean a particular number. When the coins are counted there is a particular number, a specific number, which is assigned to the quantity of coins in the jar, as "the number" of coins in the jar. That is what I have been arguing is a matter of judgement, the decision as to which specific number gets assigned to that quantity. If you really think that there is a particular number assigned to the quantity before it is counted, I'd like to hear your explanation as to how this occurs.
We are not discussing whether there is a quantity of coins in the jar, in that most general sense, we can see that there is a quantity without counting them. We are discussing whether there is a particular number assigned to that quantity, prior to being counted, whether or not the coins in the jar have a specific number. Do the coins in the jar have a number? So the question is, do you honestly believe that there is a particular number which has already been assigned to the quantity of coins in the jar, prior to them being counted?
Quoting Michael
No, I think it is you who is equivocating, now saying that "the number" of coins in the jar is "some number". See, you have moved from your assertion that the coins in the jar have "a number" to the claim of "some number", where "some number" now means any one of an infinite number of possibilities. Do you see the difference in predication? The quantity has a number, or, the quantity has many possible numbers. The latter is the reality, because the number is determinable, not determined.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Yes, that is a logical conclusion, which validates the act of counting. Counting the coins in the jar justifies the claim that the number of coins in the jar is determinable. Retroactively, after counting, we can now employ a premise about temporal continuity, to conclude that this was the number before counting. But notice, that this number is not produced until after counting, and is applied retroactively. So we still cannot truthfully say that we could have said, that before counting, the coins had that number. The number is produced from the counting and applied retroactively.
This would be the same sort of faulty temporal argument that some determinists try to employ against free will. After a person acts in a specific way, it is claimed that the person acted this way, so it is impossible that the person could have acted otherwise. But it's really just a faulty application of retroactive logic. Yes, after the fact, it is impossible that the fact can be otherwise, but prior to the fact there is a multitude of possibilities. The same sort of thing is the case with the coins. After counting, it is impossible that the count could be otherwise. But prior to counting, we have to admit numerous possibilities. The retroactive application of logic, after the act of counting, to say that there was X number of coins before the counting, does not negate the fact that prior to the counting there was no such thing as the number of coins, only a multitude of possibilities.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I agree, that prior to counting, we can truthfully say that we might count the coins, apply logic, and say how many coins are in the jar now. But that does not mean that the coins in the jar have a number now. The coins in the jar now, prior to being counted have no number, and even though we might apply logic at a later time to say how many coins were in the jar at this earlier time, that still doesn't change the fact that the coins in the jar at this earlier time have no number, because the count, and the logic haven't been applied yet.
It's a very simple principle. After the fact, we can make all sorts of conclusions about what happened, and why it happened, causation etc.. But this does not imply that we could have made the same conclusion before the occurrence of the event. So, after counting, we can make conclusions concerning the quantity of coins in the jar, which we could not make before counting.
I cannot answer this. I cannot judge a justification without seeing the specifics of the justification.
Quoting Andrew M
Sorry, I'm not familiar with "Cartesian certainty". Maybe you could explain how it's relevant.
Quoting Andrew M
I don't see how such an honest mistake is an issue. The person is simply wrong, by the norms of word use. Therefore calling the thing a kettle will create disagreement requiring justification.
Quoting Andrew M
I don't agree with this at all. First, knowledge is not the same type of thing that a kettle is. A person has knowledge prior to knowing that one has knowledge. And, a person may learn how to use the word "kettle" prior to knowing what a kettle is. That's simply the way we learn as children. We learn things before we learn how to describe what it is that we have learned. We learn how before we learn that. Therefore by the time that a person learns that oneself has knowledge, it is impossible that the person does not have knowledge.
So such a mistake, as thinking oneself to have knowledge when one does not, is impossible. And so it is also impossible that the person thought they knew something when they didn't. It seems like it would be more of a case that the knowledge which one had was not quite what the person thought it was. They really did know something, it just wasn't exactly what they thought they knew.
Priming experiments show that there is a great deal
of overlap among neural patterns that are involved in semantically related items. If shown a word to prime ones memory for semantically related meanings, the reaction time to recognize the primed for meanings is much quicker than without the priming. If no such overlap exist between the pattens that are involved in the meanings associated with making a cup
of tea and the ordering of Russian Caravan, then this suggests that we are dealing with only distantly related categories of meaning. If we are actively thinking of both examples as to do with tea, then there will
likely be certain words that act as primings from the one situation to the other, and certain words that will not.
Quoting Banno
not that neural science is imaginary, but that if it is claiming to offer an account that includes the organization of semantic meaning, then it will reveal in its patterning such effects as the ability to prime for overlapping senses of meaning. It doesnt have to , of course. Older neural models couldnt account for priming results because they were the wrong sorts of descriptions. Similarly , a molecular or sun-atomic description of neural nets would fail to make sense of priming , since they are the wrong vocabulary for the task. The most adequate sort of neural description of
linguistic behavior should ENRICH the vocabulary of propositional structures, not make it disappear. This is precisely what the Husserlian bracketing of the naively experienced everyday world via the phenomenological reduction achieves.
Let's return to the beginning of this exchange:
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
That we "exclude the possibility of mistake" is not a condition of knowledge, as ordinarily defined and used.
For example, Alice claims it's raining outside as a result of looking out the window. We can conceive of ways that her claim can be false (say, Bob is hosing the window), and thus not knowledge. But if it is raining outside, then she has knowledge.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
If they were wrong that the object was a kettle, then they didn't know that the object was a kettle, by the norms of word use.
The temporal continuity of what? I don't understand the point you're making here.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
The procedure I described, if it terminates at all, yields a unique value. It cannot do otherwise unless the procedure is undermined by other premises. Did you have such a premise in mind?
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Suppose a jar contains some coins, but for no natural number n is it the case that the jar contains n coins. Then for no natural number n is it the case that removing exactly n coins from the jar would leave the jar empty. If the number of coins in the jar could be determined by counting to be some natural number k, then removing exactly k coins from the jar would leave the jar empty; therefore the number of coins in the jar cannot be determined by counting to be any natural number k.
What do you mean by a number being assigned?
If you're saying that nobody has said that there are 66 coins in the jar then my responses are that a) someone can say that there are 66 coins in the jar without counting, b) there cannot be both 66 and 67 coins in the jar, and so two different assignments cannot both be true, and c) there can be 66 coins in the jar even if nobody says so.
The reasoning for (c) is that it is a parsimonious explanation for why we count the number of coins that we do. Your reasoning appears to be that there are 66 coins in the jar because we have counted 66 coins, whereas my reasoning is that we have counted 66 coins because there are 66 coins in the jar. The problem with your reasoning is that it doesn't explain why it is that we counted 66 coins (and not, say, 666), and also that it can lead to the contradiction which I reject in (b).
That's not the beginning. Prior to this, you were insisting that if something which is thought to be "known" turns out to be incorrect, then we must conclude that at the time when it was thought to be known, it really was not known.
Quoting Andrew M
I know that excluding the possibility of mistake is not a condition of "knowledge", as commonly used. But according to your assertions, excluding the possibility of mistake is very clearly a condition of "knowledge". That's why I am saying you are wrong.
You say that when something which is thought to be known, turns out to be mistaken, then it is not "knowledge". So anything mistaken cannot be called "knowledge". Therefore anything which we can truthfully call "knowledge" must exclude the possibility of mistake, according to what you are asserting.
Quoting Andrew M
I don't see how this is an example of anything relevant.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
We must premise a temporal continuity of the quantity in order to conclude that the quantity at the time prior to being counted was the same as the quantity at the later time of being counted
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Yes, I agree that the procedure if carried out according to standards of what qualifies to be counted, as you described, will turn out a unique value. The point though is that the unique value does not exist prior to the procedure being carried out. The issue is not whether the coins can be counted, I have no problem with that. The issue is whether or not there is "a count", "a measure", 'a number", which corresponds with the quantity, prior to being counted.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I can't understand this example. I agree that when we say that there is a quantity of coins in the jar, we assume that they can be counted. And, this assumption implies that there is necessarily one of an infinite number of possible numbers which will be the unique value. But to say that there will be one number, after being counted, out of a present infinite number of possibilities, is not the same as saying that there is one number presently.
Yes, that's how I see it. The outcomes are 'put together' by an entirely different process ('social construction' in old money), so we'd have no reason at all to think they'd be the same neural networks associating all 'tea-related' things as would be the ones involved in carrying out tea-related interventions to their environment. The curation of 'tea-related' things after-the-facts, tends to be much more stable (even to the point of some researchers showing indications of specific neurons), whereas the the tea-related interventions are less discretely distributed. A classic example is snipping the dorsal and ventral perception streams. Subjects (baboons usually) will be able to manipulate objects functionally without problems, but may well have trouble in identification tasks. To use your example, they'd know how to make tea, but wouldn't be able to say such an activity might take place in tea-shop. The latter being something of a post hoc story, but stored quite discretely in specialised neural clusters, the former being more an 'anything that gets the job done' sort of system.
Gotta love a 3500yo tradition, huh?
I see. No, we needn't take that as a premise. We can argue for it.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Suppose a jar containing some coins at a time t[sub]0[/sub]. We agree that we can count the coins by removing them one at a time, and that doing so would result in a unique natural number m, at some time t[sub]m[/sub], after t[sub]0[/sub].
If we remove a coin from the jar, then there is some time t[sub]1[/sub], after t[sub]0[/sub] and after we have removed one coin but before we have removed another. If the jar is empty at t[sub]1[/sub], then the initial state of the jar at t[sub]0[/sub] was that it contained 1 coin, and 1 is a natural number. If the jar is not empty at t[sub]1[/sub], we go again. If we remove another coin, then there is a time t[sub]2[/sub], after t[sub]1[/sub] and after we have removed another coin but before removing any others (if there are any). If the jar is empty at t[sub]2[/sub], then it contained 1 coin at t[sub]1[/sub], and 2 coins at t[sub]0[/sub], and 2 is a natural number. If the jar is not empty at t[sub]2[/sub], we go again.
For any step of the counting process, there is a time t[sub]k[/sub], after we have removed k coins from the jar but before we have removed another (if we can), and at t[sub]k[/sub] the jar is empty or the jar still has some coins in it. If the jar is empty, then the initial state of the jar at t[sub]0[/sub] was that it had k coins in it, k a natural number. (If the jar is empty at t[sub]k[/sub], then at t[sub]1[/sub], the jar had k - 1 coins in it; at t[sub]2[/sub], it had k - 2 coins in it; and so on, up to time t[sub]k[/sub].)
If there is no natural number n such that the jar is empty at time t[sub]n[/sub], then the process never terminates and the coins in the jar cannot be counted (except by Zeus).
I think this is just too vague.
If S knows that p, then S is incapable of knowing that ~p. But S is still capable of mistakenly believing that ~p in various ways: S may have forgotten for the moment that they know that p and have reason at the time to believe that ~p; there may be some subtlety they have failed to reason through, may believe some q that would support ~p without realizing that p excludes q, and so on. Our knowledge must be consistent, but our beliefs show no such discipline. I think.
The trouble is not our knowledge, but our beliefs, and around here it's our beliefs that we know that p, which clearly can be mistaken even though our knowledge cannot.
And I think there are at least two senses of "fallibility." One is when you hold only partial belief, so you can consistently say "I think he's in the office, but he could be elsewhere." The other is when you are willing to endorse your individual beliefs taken singly, in sensu diviso, but hold something like partial belief with regard to your total beliefs, taken altogether, in sensu composito, that is, when you hold that some subset of your beliefs may be mistaken -- which you are also willing to say of many individual beliefs -- or that some subset of your beliefs is mistaken.
That latter is a little paradoxical, but defensible. (Your belief in sensu composito doesn't entail the corresponding set of beliefs in sensu diviso. You can fall to make an inference, be lacking some connective knowledge, etc.)
It's also possible that generally people only believe that they're probably wrong about something, and that's as much "fallibility" as they're committed to.
++++
One more note: I think people sometimes reason *from* what they take to be reasonable doubt that they're right about *everything*, *to* the conclusion that they should treat each of their beliefs with a certain amount of suspicion. The thinking is, if I'm probably wrong in at least one of my beliefs, some small part of that probability should attach to each and every one of my beliefs. Even though the original claim was that my beliefs are overwhelmingly right, I have the epistemic problem of not knowing which are the good ones and which the bad. (But attaching a modicum of doubt to all your beliefs is so ham-fisted, I don't think anyone actually does it or can do it.)
Yes! This, I believe is the situation. And I think that to coming up with this is a very good example of philosophizing on your part. The use of the term "because" signifies that you recognize that this is a matter of a difference in opinion concerning causation.
What is the cause of this specific numeral, "66" being related to the coins in the jar. I say that it is an act of human will, the act of counting, which causes "66" to be related to the coins in the jar. You seem to be saying that the numeral "66" is already related to the coins, prior to being counted, and this causes the person to count "66". So, I say that the freely willed act of counting causes the person to say "66", and establish this relation between "66" and the quantity, while you say that the relation between "66" and the quantity is already established, and this established relation causes the person to say "66".
Notice that I say the act is freely willed. This is because the difference between your perspective and mine, as a matter of causation, manifests in the difference between determinism and free will. The issue is that I believe we freely choose "66" to represent the quantity of coins in the jar, and we are not caused by the coins in the jar to represent them with "66", as you seem to believe.
Quoting Michael
You never asked me to explain this, but I will say that it is simply a matter of how we as human beings created the numbering system. That we count the coins as "66" is a feature of the system we have devised for measuring quantities.
Quoting Michael
Assignment in this case is a matter of judgement, and it must be an honest or true judgement, or it's not a true assignment.
If, as in the example of (a), a person randomly guesses "66", this would not produce a true statement, because "true" as I've defined it requires the person to state what one honestly believes, to the best of their ability. "There are 66 coins in the jar" would not be a statement of one's honest belief, if the person is just guessing, and therefore is not true under those circumstances.
In the case of (b), it is very common to have contradiction in true statements, "true" meaning a statement of one's honest belief. If one counts "66" and another counts "67", then they both make true statements which conflict, and require justification. In this case, another counting is required. It is also possible that two different people could use two different systems. That's why knowledge requires both, truth and justification. Truth alone cannot resolve contradictions, because two people will both insist on knowing "the truth", even though they contradict each other.
And (c) is simply wrong. For there to be "66 coins in the jar", it is necessary that "66" is the symbol which has been associated with the quantity of coins in the jar. You seem to think that the symbol "66" is somehow magically associated with the coins in the jar, without anyone making that association. How do you believe that this comes about, that the symbol "66" is related to the coins in the jar, without someone making that relation? Doesn't meaning require intent in your understanding of the use of symbols?
Suppose we say that the meaning of "66" is already related to the coins in the jar, prior to them being counted. How could we interpret this? What is that meaning, and where is it if independent from human minds?
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
The point was that to make the logical conclusion that there was the same number of coins at an earlier time, as there is at the later time, when counted, we need some sort of premise of temporal continuity. You can argue for it, saying that the jar was watched for the entire time and no coins disappeared out of it, etc., but in the end all possibilities for change must be covered. If there is no temporal continuity of existence, then the quantity can change randomly from one moment to the next. If the quantity can change randomly, then we cannot say that it was necessarily the same at the earlier time as the later time. Therefore we need a premise of temporal continuity.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
As I said, I do not deny that we can make these logical conclusions, so long as we recognize the required premise of temporal continuity. And the problem with the premise of temporal continuity is that we really do not understand temporal continuity, it's just something we take for granted. Newton's first law of motion is an example of a law concerning a temporal continuity which we take for granted.
That's correct.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
As a result of looking out the window, Alice justifiably believes that it is raining outside. For Alice to know that it is raining outside, her justifiable belief also has to be true. Those are the conditions for knowledge. Let's look at two different scenarios:
(1) If it is raining outside, then Alice knows that it is raining outside. She knows that even though she didn't exclude the possibility that it was not raining and that Bob was hosing the window. She knows it is raining because her belief is both justifiable and true. Alice has satisfied the conditions for knowledge.
(2) If it is not raining outside (say, Bob was hosing the window which Alice mistakenly thought was rain), then Alice's belief is false. Thus she doesn't know that it is raining, she only thinks that it is. Alice has not satisfied the conditions for knowledge.
:-)
OK, but someone has to judge "if it is raining outside", in order for us to call what Alice has "knowledge". We need to know the answer to this. And if we know the answer to this, then we have excluded the possibility of mistake. So we cannot say whether Alice has "knowledge", unless we determine that it is raining and there is no possibility that it is not raining, thereby excluding the possibility of mistake.
Just trying to capture the essential idea here! Apparently not successfully...
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Indeed.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Yes, I think it's a bit abstract otherwise. I think the other issue is that standards can vary according to context. For example, Alice might know that it's raining outside, having looked. But when challenged with the possibility of Bob hosing the window, making that possibility salient, she might doubt it and go and look more carefully. Or when challenged by a philosophical skeptic, conclude that she doesn't know very much at all.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Yes, I think the reality is that we're pragmatic about it. If a problem arises, then we investigate further.
In the first scenario it is raining, in the second scenario it is not. According to knowledge as justified, true belief, do you judge that Alice has knowledge in either or both of those scenarios?
I addressed in my posts a single issue you raised: must the coins in a jar actually be counted, by you, me, God, or anyone, to know that there is a specific number of coins in such a jar?
That question I answered as clearly as I could, and even provided informal proofs to support my position.
If you have no rebuttal besides "maybe coins spontaneously appear and disappear," then we're done here.
Wasn't trying to lay that at your feet!
Quoting Andrew M
I'll have to read the rest of Lewis paper to see what he was getting up to. I think I get the intent of this example, but it feels like we're screwing around with justification and I don't know why anyone would think that road leads to knowledge. It leads to high-quality beliefs, that's it. Maybe Lewis has something up his sleeve...
Physicist Asher Peres once said, "unperformed experiments have no results". Which is to say, he rejected counterfactual definiteness.
Quoting Counterfactual definiteness - Wikipedia
Consider also Aristotle's future sea battle scenario. Regarding whether there would or would not be a future sea battle, he says:
Quoting On Interpretation, §9 - Aristotle (Problem of future contingents - Wikipedia)
If these ideas applied to regular coin jars then prior to the coins being counted, their number would not merely be unknown, but also not able to be meaningfully talked about. So, for the agent, there would be a potential (but not actual) number of coins in the jar that is only actualized in the counting of the coins.
In the sense that the numeral refers to a number and that number is the number of coins prior to being counted.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
It's not magic. We agree to use the word "triangle" to refer to the shape of some object that we have seen. Now every object with that shape -- even objects we haven't seen -- are triangles, even though we haven't explicitly used the word "triangle" to refer to each of those objects individually. They are triangles by virtue of having the same shape as an object that we have referred to as having a shape named "triangle".
The same is true for the numeral "66". We've already agreed that the numeral "66" refers to a specific number, and so any jar containing that number of coins, even jars of coins we've never counted, have 66 coins.
You make the mistake of saying that because we need to explicitly assign a particular word or numeral to a particular kind that we need to explicitly assign that particular word or numeral to every individual of that kind. This is false. We need to do the former to establish meaning, but we don't need to do the latter.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
They can insist anything they like. They'd just be wrong. At least one of them doesn't know the truth. It's really quite simple.
The T-schema is useful here. There are 66 coins iff "there are 66 coins" is true, there are 67 coins iff "there are 67 coins" is true, there cannot be both 66 and 67 coins, therefore "there are 66 coins" and "there are 67 coins" cannot both be true.
This is consistent with how we actually understand the meaning of the word "true". I don't know why you're trying to make it mean "honest belief". What evidence or reasoning is there for that?
I think the mathematical vocabulary is clearer: if they can be counted, then the cardinality of the set of coins in the jar exists and is unique, though we do not know its value until we count.
If that's what's meant by "potential but not actual," then cool. MU's position is that there is no number "associated with" the cardinality of the set of coins in the jar until they have been counted, because no one has made a judgment assigning a number to the set; my position is that if they can be counted, then there must be a specific number of them, though we do not know that number. If the counting procedure can be followed, but will not yield a result, that can only be because it will not terminate, and that can only be because there is an infinite number of coins in the jar, and then indeed there is no natural number equal to the cardinality of the set of coins in the jar. Whether we call aleph-null a number I did not address. Whether a jar can hold an infinite number of coins, I did not address.
There's modal language all over this, and I'm fine with that. In part, that's simply because MU agreed that they can be counted, and if they were to be counted, then we would know how many coins are in the jar. I was simply working within a counterfactual framework already accepted. A possible world in which coins appear and disappear at random is not a world in which coins can be counted, so it is not, as we might say, salient for this case. A possible world in which coins sometimes disappear after I've touched them is a world in which I can count coins, but my count cannot be verified, and in such a world my count applies only to the past, to the coins that were in the jar in its initial state.
Quoting Same wiki article on counterfactuals in QM
A person who has no lap has nothing in their lap. Russell's analysis of definite descriptions works just fine here, but physicists don't read Bertrand Russell. It's also tempting here to give a counterfactual analysis: if a standing person holding nothing were to sit, they would have an empty lap; if a standing person holding a child on their back and nothing else were to sit, they would have an empty lap, until another child scrambled onto it; if a standing person holding a child against their chest were to sit and loosen their grip upon the child even a little, they would have a child in their lap, and they would sigh with relief.
Quantum mechanics may have some specific prohibitions on the use of counterfactual values in calculations, but it is, for me anyway, inconceivable (!) that we could get along without counterfactuals. They're hiding absolutely everywhere.
On the one hand we have the view that there are either 64 coins in the jar, or there are not; that either "There are 64 coins in the jar" is true, or that it is false, but that we do not know which.
On the other, you would be claiming that "there are 64 coins in the jar" is neither true nor false. That is, you are rejecting bivalence, the view that all statements are either true or they are false.
The former is realism, the latter is antirealism.
The former uses traditional logic, the latter must move to more obtuse variations.
To be sure, the choice is simply one of how you would choose to talk about the physical world, what logic you would apply, how you treat words such as "true", "believe", "know" and so on. Bivalent logic works, it will be up to you to choose some other logic and show that it is as functional. You might go with Kripke's definition of truth and a paraconsistent logic in an attempt to avoid exploding. You will have difficulty in maintaining that there is one true logic, once you open those doors. But perhaps you will decide that being consistent is overrated...
It works for @Metaphysician Undercover, who has previously claimed that [math]0. \dot9 \neq 1[/math], that objects cannot have a velocity at a given point in time, and various other eccentric notions. You can decide how much attention to pay such thinking.
This is the point made several times already in this thread, that statements of truth are univalent, while statements of belief or knowledge are bivalent. That is, being true is about a statements while being believed is about the relation between a statement and the believer.
There's no need, of course, for sophistic potential-but-not-actual logics nor for quantum machinations. Their mention should indicate to all that one has already ventured down a rabbit hole.
Keep it simple.
And for all of this there already are exceptions, or we can choose to construct them if we like, some to do with hinges, some to do with counting as, some to do with deranged epitaphs. We construct our language using the shared material around us, and we do it in the plural, as a communal exercise. Others might constructed things differently, but if they do we would still be able to understand most of what they had done, because they used the same stuff.
We might look for the barest minimal point of agreement concerning true sentences, and here we find Tarski's work invaluable. What ever else one might suppose about truth, the kettle will be boiling only if "the kettle is boiling" is true, the coin will be worth a dollar only if "the coin is worth a dollar" is true, and modesty is a virtue only if "modesty is a virtue" is true. Vacillate as you will, the logic of truth favours redundancy.
None of which counts against talk of truth being used as a play for power, as a way to silence disagreement.
@Isaac @Moliere
Quoting Isaac
I think it is an inescapable entailment in Kant's philosophy that the noumenal gives rise to the phenomenal. or it could be said that phenomena are supervenient on noumena. Can we avoid thinking of this supervenience as some kind of being-caused? Even in relation to phenomenal experience, causation is postulated, not ever directly experienced except perhaps in the case of our own bodies acting upon and being acted upon, and even that seems arguable.
As I understand it Kant believes the idea of causation is essential to making sense of what we experience, and since that is the proper ambit of its applicability, he sees it as being incoherent to seek to apply it to what we cannot experience.
Thanks, I'm not sure I'm following everything you're saying about the difference between a noumenon and a ding an sich, but you do appear to be saying that intuition of the objects of the senses (considered as wholes) is impossible, which would seem to suggest equating the empirical object with the ding an sich, if not the noumenon?
The issue is, who determines whether or not it is raining. Here, you are asserting "In the first scenario it is raining, in the second scenario it is not". Do you know whether or not it is raining in each scenario, in an absolute way? If so, I can give you an answer. If not, I cannot. This is because I cannot say whether Alice has knowledge or not unless I know infallibly whether or not it is raining. You have provided no justification for your assertions, therefore I cannot honestly give you an answer. So I do not believe that you know infallibly whether or not it is raining in each of those scenarios
That is, according to your representation of "knowledge", which requires infallibility. I do not represent knowledge like that though. I think Alice has knowledge whether or not you assert that it is raining. These third party assertions, "it is raining", "it is not raining", or "if it is raining", are actually completely irrelevant to whether or not the person has knowledge, because as mere assertions they do nothing to justify one's belief.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
What I said, is that your logic is not valid without a premise of temporal continuity. That a coin might disappear without one noticing, is just a simple example as to why such a premise is necessary. If you do not agree, and think that your logic which concludes that the number of coins in the jar at a later time will necessarily be the same as the number at an earlier time will be valid, without such a premise, then so be it. But I think your refusal to continue is just a recognition that you are wrong. The premise of temporal continuity is a requirement for a valid conclusion.
Quoting Michael
Well, here we have an ontological difficulty. What is "a number"? Are you taking a position of Platonic realism here? If not, maybe you can explain what you mean by "a number". I tend to think that a numeral refers to the situation in application, through the medium of some mental ideas, rather than through the medium of "a number", just like other words do.
We can however, use mathematical symbols, like numerals, in practise, without any particular situation of application. This is like when we practise other forms of logic, using symbols without any referent. The symbols have meaning, but they effectively refer to nothing. So in mathematics when we do practise exercises like "2+2=?", the symbols have meaning, but they effectively refer to nothing. And it is a mistaken notion, that "2" refers to a number in this sort of exercise. In reality "2" has a complex meaning of order and quantity, which cannot be represented as a simple object, the number two.
Quoting Michael
I don't understand how you can truly believe this. How do you honestly believe that there are objects called "triangles" which have never been called by that name? This is blatant contradiction. There is an object called a triangle which has not been called a triangle.
It appears to be a simple confusion of what is potentially the case, with what is actually the case. I might agree to the possibility that there are objects which if seen, and named, would be called triangles. That's a type of potential, a possibility. Obviously, I cannot say that any such potential is actually a triangle, because no one has apprehended these things and designated which of them are triangles. You clearly conflate the potential for triangles with actual triangles.
Quoting Michael
No, we haven't yet discussed this premise of Platonic realism. The problem, as I said above, is that numerals have multiple uses and therefore complex meaning. I learned from fishfry on this forum, that modern mathematics assumes order as the primary defining feature. Then, to establish consistency between order and quantity, quantity is assumed to be a sub-type of order. The problem which I see is that order is a concept based in continuity, while quantity requires discrete entities. So there is a fundamental incommensurability between order and quantity which makes it so that one numeral, "66" for example, cannot refer to one coherent intelligible object, the number. There is a dual meaning and the two are not consistent with each other.
Quoting Michael
The issue is, that the thing must be judged to be of that kind. because a "kind" is something artificial, created by human minds, a category. A natural object isn't just automatically of this kind or that kind, because it must fulfill a set list of criteria in order to be of any specific kind. And, whether or not something fulfills a list of criteria is a judgment. So a natural object really does not exist as any specific kind until it is judged to fulfil the criteria. We cannot claim that a thing is judged to be of a specific type, without it actually having been judged to be of that type.
That this is truly the case is evident from the fact that there is continuous disagreement as to whether some objects are of this or that kind, disagreements which sometimes cannot be resolved. And the fact that all people might agree on some things, doesn't prove that kinds are naturally occurring. However, the fact that some people do not agree on some things demonstrates that kinds are artificial, and things just aren't naturally of this kind or that, they are judged. Things are classiified, and placed into categories, through judgement. They do not just naturally exist in categories.
Quoting Michael
This does not tell us whether "there are 66 coins" is the product of a judgement, or whether it's something independent from judgement. Nor does it tell us if there is 66, or 67 coins. It really tells us nothing. It is a useless statement. And, since it is possible that the person who counts 67 is using a different numbering system, in which "67" is equivalent to "66" in the other system, it is actually your claim, that there cannot be both 66 and 67 coins, which is incorrect. That is why my proposal, that when both 66, and 67 are both claimed as true assertions, we must move to justify and understand, rather than simply asserting that one person must be wrong.
Quoting Michael
This is how "truth" is most commonly used. When someone is asked to tell the truth, the person is asked to state what they honestly believe. Epistemologists have attempted to give "true" a meaning which is independent from this, signifying what is the case, in some absolute sense, independent from human judgement. But it really makes no sense at all to argue that there is some type of true correspondence, or true relation between a group of symbols, and the reality of the situation, without a judgement in relation to some criteria for "true". So this proposed form of "true" is really nonsense.
Quoting Banno
That's right, in cases where a human judgement is required, we ought to reject bivalence. This was argued extensively by Aristotle, in order that we can account for the reality of potential, and the nature of the human will. He proposed that we reject the law of excluded middle in these situations, while some modern philosophers propose we reject non-contradiction. Aristotle's famous example is the sea battle tomorrow. There may or may not be a sea battle tomorrow. It has not yet been decided, so there is no truth or falsity to "there will be a sea battle tomorrow". And, we cannot turn retroactively, after tomorrow, and say that one or the other was true the day before, because there simply was no truth or falsity to this matter at that time, due to the nature of the human will.
His argument, was that since we all deliberate on our decisions, we act as if there really is not truth or falsity concerning those questions we deliberate on. And if it really was ture that there was already a truth or falsity to the questions which we deliiberate on, we would have no need to deliberate, we would just let the event occur the way it is predestined to.
You'd be a terrible weatherman.
Weather forecaster is a good example. Does the weather forecaster actually know something, or just pretend to know what is actually not known?
Does anyone actually know anything, according to you?
By Andrew's definition, we can't honestly call anything knowledge, because we can't really know whether it actually is knowledge or not. I don't agree, that's why I argued against that.
There's your problem. No one determines whether or not it is raining. :roll:
Then, how do, or could, we know that something is knowledge, according to you? (A concise, short-winded answer will do just fine).
If you mean that my argument is only valid in a world very much like ours, I agree. If you wanted to discuss jars of coins in a hypothetical world in which coins randomly appear and disappear, that's rather different from the discussion I believed we were having. I understood you to be making a point about the necessity of a free human judgment that assigns a number to the coins, but it appears I was mistaken.
To return to the issue at hand: I consider my arguments valid in worlds very much like this one. In worlds like this, if the number of coins in a jar can be determined by counting them, then you can know, without counting, that there is a specific number of coins in the jar.
Do you agree?
No. A number is a value. It is the "propositional content" of one or more mathematical symbols. For example, [math]0.25[/math], [math]1\over4[/math], and [math]2\over8[/math] are different mathematical symbols that refer to the same mathematical value/number.
Being called a triangle and being a triangle are two different things. Something can be a triangle even if it isn't called a triangle. The word "triangle" has a meaning, and objects can satisfy that meaning even if we do not talk about them. Something that satisfies the meaning of the word "triangle" is a triangle even if we do not call it a triangle.
Decapitation is going to kill me even if I call it a non-fatal injury. Saying something doesn't make it so, and not saying something doesn't make it not so.
This is where we disagree. Objects exist and have properties even if we are not aware of them. We define the word "triangle" such that an object is a triangle if it has such-and-such a property. If some object exists and has such-and-such a property then it is a triangle, even if we are not aware of this object and/or it having this property.
I think the relevant metaphysical dispute is regarding the claim that objects exist and have properties even if we are not aware of them. Your argument depends on this claim being false. Are you, then, assuming something like idealism?
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
It's not a useless statement. It's a sound argument.
1. There are only 66 coins iff "there are only 66 coins" is true
2. There are only 67 coins iff "there are only 67 coins" is true
3. There cannot be both only 66 and only 67 coins
4. Therefore, "there are only 66 coins" and "there are only 67 coins" cannot both be true
Do you disagree with one of the three premises, or do you disagree that the conclusion follows?
Lots of people do. I do it every day before I go outside. Don't you? I do not see how you could be using "determine" in any way other than this here. So let's not regress back to the dishonesty.
Quoting Janus
Your question is misleading. We do not judge if something is knowledge or not, because we do not see, or sense things which might be judged as knowledge. What I think is that "knowledge" is something which we infer the existence of, through people's actions.
As I said earlier. "knowledge" consists of principles used for willed actions. If a person acts intentionally then the person has knowledge. What is required is to judge actions, and if they are judged as intentional, then the person has knowledge.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
No, that's not what I mean. I mean your logic is only valid if you state that premise of temporal continuity. You seem to have a habit of thinking that valid logic can rely on unstated premises. That is not acceptable. The premises required for inference must be stated.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
You don't seem to understand the reality of "a world very much like ours". In our world, time passes, and things change as time passes. Change is primary, and change is what we take for granted, as we take for granted that time passes. Since time passing, and the associated "change", are what we take for granted in "a world very much like ours", the proposition that something stays the same as time passes, cannot be accepted without justification.
Because of the reality of change, we cannot count the coins in a jar at one time, and logically conclude that the number of coins in the jar was the same at an earlier time, unless we premise that there was no change in the quantity over that period of time.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Obviously not, your argument is not valid because it is missing a very significant premise which is required to make the conclusion that you do.
Quoting Michael
OK, I'll agree with "a number is a value", but I think that "propositional content" is somewhat vague or ambiguous, so I'll leave that for now. I understand "a value" as a principle which a human being holds within one's mind, concerning the desirability or utility of different types of things. Values often serve as principles by which we make judgements. So a value, as I understand "value", very clearly cannot exist independently of a human mind.
Quoting Michael
This is something which needs to be justified. If "a number" is a value, then "a triangle" is also a value. So "triangle", as a concept is a simplified version (a representation) of an underlying complex concept, just like 2, as a number. is a simplified version (a representation) of an underlying complex concept.
So we have multiple layers of representation here. We have the word "triangle". We have the value 'triangle' (which is other than the word, like the number is other than the numeral). Then we have the underlying complex concept, three sided, straight lines, 180 degrees, different types, and all the associated mathematical principles.
Further, we now have the application of the value (the principle of action), which is the naming of a thing "a triangle". You seem to be asserting that a thing which a person might name as a triangle, has an independent property, which you call "being a triangle", which is separate from being named a triangle. How could you justify such a claim?
What you are saying, in effect, is that when you name something as a triangle, you are correct in an absolute sense, because the thing already has the property of "being a triangle" before you name it as such, therefore you cannot be wrong in your naming. And if you accept the reality, that you might be wrong in your naming, then if the thing does have that independent property, how would you ever know this? And if you cannot ever really know if the thing has this independent property or not, how is your assertion that it does, ever justified?
Quoting Michael
Yes, we disagree here. A "property" is a concept, usually quite complex, like the mathematical concept of "triangle" referred to above. We simplify the complex concept by naming it with one word, like "triangle", "large", "hot", "red", etc.. The word is supposed to represent "a concept" which in Platonist words is an intelligible object. The intelligible object represents the underlying complex concept. So a property is a complex concept. Objects do not have properties, as properties are concepts, and in application we assign the concept to the thing. It's called predication.
The independent property is having three edges and vertices.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Properties are something that objects have. Objects don't just exist as some property-less simple. They have a nature, including a mass, an extended position (i.e. a shape), and often a certain kind of movement.
That we decide which words refer to which properties isn't that the object only has these properties if we refer to it using these words. This is the fundamental mistake you keep making. If something has three edges and vertices then it is a triangle even if we do not call it a triangle.
Do you just not understand/disagree with how reference works, or the use-mention distinction?
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
If I ask someone to tell me the truth of where my kidnapped wife has been hidden I'm not interested in where the person believes my wife has been hidden; I'm interested in where she's actually been hidden. The request to "tell the truth" is premised on the notion that things actually are as this person believes them to be. I have no interest in an honest belief if it's erroneous.
Yes, but it still assumes counterfactual definiteness. Which makes total sense for coins in jars (I'm not disagreeing with your argument with MU).
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I think Strawson's presuppositional analysis is a closer fit. To make a different analogy, if a pointer is measured to be pointing North along the North-South axis, then what direction is it pointing along the West-East axis? A counterfactually-definite East or West direction presupposes that the pointer is also aligned along the West-East axis, but it isn't. Yet a measurement along that axis will give a definite result (in QM, West or East with equal probability).
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
"You keep using that word. I do not think it means what you think it means." But, yes, it's difficult to imagine a world without counterfactuals.
They are hypothetical scenarios, and you know up front whether or not it is raining in each scenario. In the first scenario, it is raining (that's a given premise of the hypothetical). In the second scenario, it is not raining.
In the first scenario, Alice has a justified, true belief that it is raining, i.e., she knows that it is raining. In the second, Alice's belief is false, so she does not know that it is raining.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
No, as demonstrated by the first scenario, Alice knows that it is raining not because she is infallible (or because she had ruled out all other possibilities such as Bob hosing the window), but because she had a justified, true belief.
Close enough. To get closer, change if not to but not.
I feel like I'm doing something wrong because I keep wanting to refute the examples. (Also, it reminds of my first my earliest experiences in philosophy, when I kept thinking that old-timey philosophers just didn't know enough math.) I'll try to think of an example after I do this one.
In this example, since you're only interested in direction from a point, defining that relative to a pair of orthogonal axes is at best an intermediate step (if you defined a location first and then converted it). What you ought to be saying is that the pointer is 0° off North. For jollies, you can throw in that it's 270° off East and 90° off West, but why bother? The extra axis adds nothing.
You didn't even have to align your direction right on the North-South axis to get here: if it were pointing exactly Northeast (45° off North), or, you know, almost anywhere, it's not aligned on either of your canonical axes! Oh my god! Its direction is undefined!
The only measurement always available is how far off a given axis it is. So just start there, and only use the half-axis from origin to North. Or take that direction as the default, define it as 0° and do other directions relative to that, whatever, but why would you define more than one axis in the first place? (Put this way, East-West is, to begin with, defined as passing through 90° off North and 270° off North, or 90° off South, defined as 180° from North.)
I think it's presented as pointing exactly North to support the illusion than some measurements could be made and some couldn't. But that's not what's happening here. We have a system that is useless for measuring anything but one or maybe two directions, which means we're not measuring at all, we're classifying directions as "North" (and maybe as "South") and "not North". That's not measuring.
I'm doing all this because it looks like this was a purely verbal conundrum. It seems to present a genuine problem (like the lap) but does not, and one way you know it doesn't is that it doesn't even do properly what it was pretending to do. The suggestion seems to be that directions generally have a North-South component and an East-West component, except for the degenerate case where you're actually on one of the axes, and then the other value doesn't go to zero but is suddenly undefined and maybe can have any value at all! Horrors! But the system supposedly breaking down only works for the case of pointing exactly North or, I guess, exactly South. This wasn't a genuine question but an intuition pump.
Isn't this like asking for the z coordinate of a point plotted on a plane?
For instance, if there were so many coins in the jar that I would die before I could finish counting them, then I would have to pass this sacred duty on to my son, and no doubt him to his daughter, and now we're writing a Kafka short story, not doing philosophy.
The issue here is not all of metaphysics but a simple conditional: if they can be counted -- if -- then there must be a specific number of coins in the jar right now. All of these other issues are different ways of saying that as a matter of fact they can't be counted. (And that doesn't tell us whether the jar has a specific number of coins or not.)
I say the conditional is true. Do you say it is false?
But didn't a human being have to design the machine, so isn't it just an embodiment of human judgment? Since we designed the coins and what values they represent, we have to design the machine to, you might say, take that into account; but you could also say that we design the machine to factor out (not in) complications we have added to the process of counting, to keep them from interfering. We tell the machine that objects of roughly the same size and weight are to be counted as the same thing so that it can count without the need for it to make such a judgment. (The machine, for instance, tallies only the nominal value of the coins, and won't notice if a rare coin worth a thousand dollars was mixed in with the dimes.)
I count money using a machine every day I go to work; the machine is easily fooled, and its mistakes are sometimes interesting. (A roll of nickels that is a little over, IIRC, is very close in weight to a roll of dollar coins, but a $23 difference in value. This has caused some head-scratching in the cash room now and then.) But it is easily fooled because all it does is count, and counting doesn't require -- so the machine doesn't offer -- judgment.
When I wrote "something" I did not have sense objects in mind; I think that should have been obvious. So your objection that "we do not see, or sense things which might be judged as knowledge" is irrelevant.
My question was concerning how to distinguish between belief and knowledge. Beliefs can be understood to be "principles used for willed actions". So "being intentional" cannot be a sufficient criterion for saying that someone has knowledge as opposed to merely having belief.
Bear in mind I am not concerned with "know-how" but with 'knowing-that' (knowing how to do anything does not seem to have anything to do with justified true belief). So, do you have a way to distinguish between knowledge and belief, or do you reject the distinction?
Quoting Mww
OK, if I understand you correctly, then you would say the ding an sich, being the empirical object, is empirically real? The usual interpretation seems to be that it, like the noumenon, is thought by Kant to be transcendentally ideal.
It has occurred to me in the past that there seems to be a sense in which the empirical object, from our point of view, understood to be a whole and unified entity, and since it is not known as such by us, but is known only as sensorially acquired images and impressions (themselves empirically real), is transcendentally ideal. The flip side being that the noumenon would be transcendentally real (in itself, but not to us, obviously).
Yes, it is an ontological given, real in the sense of being necessary for our perceptions. But to say it is empirically real is to say we can know something about it, contradicting the predicates of the philosophy to which it belongs. Space and time are attributed empirical reality because we can say something is known about them, to wit: we can know how and why they relate to the possibility of experience.
Ooooo....transcendental ideality. If noumena are tough, this one is damn near incomprehensible. Transcendental anything is the mode of pure reason from which synthetic a priori cognitions are given necessarily. Transcendental this or that simply means a priori conditions are necessary for judgements on them. A concept is transcendental merely from the very restrictive mode of how we think about it.
Given all that, we cannot arrive at a priori cognitions with respect to the ding an sich, insofar as any knowledge whatsoever about them is itself impossible. Therefore, they cannot be attributed transcendental ideality. Same with noumena, which can be thought a priori, so are knowable merely as a transcendental conception, as are all the categories, but still cannot be considered as have the attribute of transcendental ideality.
In keeping with the text, there are only two transcendental idealities, our ol pals, space and time. Some, in particular Schopenhauer, say causality too, but Kant does not.
Anyway....this is far too complex to get into here, because the concept is spread out over so much stuff. And sorry this doesnt help much.
Thanks, grist for the mill; and I don't expect anything to be cut and dried when it comes to Kant. It seems to me the transcendental/ empirical dichotomy opens up paths for whole suites of different ways of traversing the territory. What more could we ask of good philosophy than such fertile ambiguity? Unless we are one of those seeking a sterile clarity.
That something has "three edges and vertices" is a judgement. Who makes that judgement?
Quoting Michael
As I said, these are all things which we say about objects. And all you are doing is confirming this by saying it. How are you going to justify your assertions? What makes you think that mass, extended position, and movement, are anything other than concepts?
Quoting Michael
All these shapes and things which you say are the real properties of objects, are just products of our perceptual apparatus. These images, like edges and vertices, are created within the mind, There is no reason to believe that they are part of the objects themselves. The images created in the mind are just representations, like symbols, and there is no reason to believe that the symbol bears a likeness to the thing it represents. We can learn this from language. Words generally are not similar to whatever they represent. So whenever the mind creates an image, like a taste, a sound, or a visual image, we ought to believe that the image is a representation, like a symbol, and there is no reason to believe that the thing represented is anything at all like the symbol.
Science has been very good to demonstrate the reality of this to us. A taste, or smell, consists of molecules, which have no similarity to the smell or taste. Sound consists of waves, which is nothing like the image we hear. And, since the light which reflects to our eyes is the result of an interaction between electrons and photons, the boundaries between objects are nothing like the edges of a triangle (these are presumed to be straight lines).
Quoting Michael
Sure, you are interested in where your wife is hidden. That's obvious. But you are asking the person to provide you with what they honestly believe when you ask them for the truth. Remember, the person honestly might not know where your wife is. This is the way communication works, you cannot demand of others, to give you what you want. Such demands get you nowhere. So you must ask them to give you what they are capable of giving you, rather than demanding that they give you what you want. You want to know where your wife is hidden. The best that the other person can provide you with, is their honest belief, whether or not they know where she is. That's a simple fact. Therefore it is a mistaken approach for you to demand that the person give you the information you want, when their honesty provides you with the best that they can give you anyway. This way you respect the fact that the person might not be capable of giving you what you want. So the proper approach is to encourage them to give you their honesty. And that is to encourage them to tell the truth (honesty), rather than demanding The Truth (absolute, what is the case).
Quoting Michael
This is incorrect. The request to "tell the truth" is clearly a request for honesty. This is evident because it is most commonly used to determine whether or not the person knows the information which is wanted. You do not necessarily know whether the person has correct information concerning the whereabouts of your wife, so you need honesty to determine this. In relation to the subject you are interested in, your wife's location, you must get people to speak honestly, before you can even determine who has the beliefs which you are interested in. And that is what "tell the truth" is premised on, the attempt to determine whether the person has beliefs which are relevant to your interest.
Quoting Andrew M
You're missing the point. Unless you explain how one could "know up front" whether or not it's raining (someone might be hosing the window), you are just begging the question.
Quoting Andrew M
It's only justified by your begging the question, which is not justification at all.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I've agreed to this already. We see a quantity of coins and we assume that they can be counted. If they can be counted, there is a specific number, as you say. So we are inspired to count them, assuming that there is a specific number, and therefore they can be counted. Then we do count them. And after we do, we need to rely on a premise of temporal continuity to say that there was the same number at the earlier time as there was at the time of the count.
Do you still have trouble with this?
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Your counting machine does make judgement. That's what an algorithm is, instructions for making judgement. As human beings, we have created machines designed to make these simple judgements for us. But machines are now making more and more complex judgements for us. The AI is designed to be adaptable in its judgement capacity.
Quoting Janus
I follow the traditional formula, knowledge is a particular type of belief, justified and true. Justified is having been proven, and true is honest (that's my difference, how I define "true). Generally, being intentional shows knowledge, because we do things in set ways (justified beliefs), and we honestly believe in what we are doing.
Quoting Janus
Knowing -that is a type of knowing-how, just like knowledge is a type of belief.
That's almost exactly the point. Suppose that you live in a grid world where you can only move and measure things along the North-South or West-East axes. Now an unobserved arrow might be mathematically represented as North-East in grid world (i.e., a linear combination of North and East arrows). But an arrow is only ever observed pointing along one of the grid lines. Thus raising the question of which direction the arrow is actually pointing (if it has a definite direction at all) when not observed.
I'll give a real-world example now. Suppose that you have an interferometer (see Figure 3) and a photon travelling East hits the first beam splitter. The photon could reflect and travel North, or continue East. Since we don't know which way the photon went, let's represent it with a North-East arrow. But, assuming counterfactual-definiteness, it's definitely travelling the North path or definitely travelling the East path. In fact, if we place detectors on those two paths, we will indeed measure the photon on one or the other of those paths.
So far so good. Now suppose we don't measure which path the photon takes. In this case, the photon will arrive at a second beam splitter where it will again either reflect or continue in the same direction. The classical prediction is that the photon will end up at either detector 1 or detector 2 with equal probability (i.e., a North path photon will either reflect or continue in the same direction; same with the East path photon). But what actually happens is that the photon is only ever measured at detector 1, as predicted by QM.
QM represents the photon as being in a linear combination of travelling both paths which results in interference at the beam splitter. One could say that the linear combination (the North-East arrow) is just a mathematical representation, and that the photon took one and only one definite path (a hidden variable that is definitely North or definitely East). But there are various no-go theorems that say, in effect, that that purported solution creates more problems than it solves.
Quoting Michael
Not quite, since one can conceive of a z coordinate even if it is not plotted. For example, a bird (at z altitude) that casts a shadow (point) on the ground (plane). Or if there is no z-dimension, z is always 0.
Whereas in the analogy, there is only one arrow pointing North. So there is no sense in which that arrow points definitely either West or East.
You and I know up front because I created the hypotheticals that way. The question is not about what you and I know, which is a given, but about what Alice knows.
I don't think you can claim to follow the traditional formulation, because your understanding of what constitutes justification and truth is not in accord with the usual understanding. The usual understanding does not demand "proof" to underpin justification, and does not consider truth to be dependent on human intentions, honest or dishonest.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
JTB is a definition of propositional knowledge, not know-how. Even if propositional knowledge could be, at a stretch, considered to be a kind of know-how; there are many other kinds of know-how which have nothing to do with truth or justification.
Preamble
Well, this is humbling. I wrote a rambling, exploratory post last night that I thought ended in a pretty good place, a really interesting place, but with a problem, one I've been interested in for a long time. Then this morning it occurred to me that there might be a sort of solution suggested by how I arrived at the problem, so I wrote an addendum to last night's post. And not until I was actually writing the words this morning did it occur to me what I've been talking about for days.
TL;DR
What I have been claiming about the number of coins in a jar is simply that we can know a priori that if they can be counted then there is already a specific number of coins in the jar; we can only know a posteriori what that number is.
I do not think I have ever had occasion to make a claim to knowledge that so clearly fits the definition of a priori. Whaddya know.
[hide="Archive"]Quoting Andrew M
Does it? Your QM example gets there, I guess, but I've got nothing to say about that.
What isn't clear in your grid world example is what would motivate this question. If you sometimes observe an arrow pointing North and never observe anything else, what would make you think that it exists the whole time but the rest of the time it's pointing somewhere you can't observe? As you say, we don't seem to be able to distinguish pointing somewhere else from not pointing at all, or, as I put it before, we're really talking not about measuring but about two classes, North and not-North, which would also include just not pointing at all.
You must have some reason for positing that the arrow is pointing non-northwards when unobserved, right? But by stipulation, you don't. So I'm still at a loss. If the point is just exactly this, that if you, in essence, only imagine a situation, then you can't make measurements, that seems indisputable. You had a pithy quote to that effect.
---- Enough of that. I think I have better answers below, toward the end, or part of an answer anyway. ----
My claim, as you know, was not that I could figure out how many coins are in a jar by imagining counting them. That's clearly false. It was a claim about the nature of counting, that it does not "create" the cardinality of the set, that the cardinality of a set does not fail to exist until its members are counted, but that counting (to borrow a phrase from the wiki you linked) reveals a pre-existing unknown value.
What I have imagined happening here is, roughly, the mathematization of a physical problem: counting in the real world is a physical process, taking time, consuming energy and so on, but the result -- well, I suppose I can't really finish that sentence the way I want, because clearly what we're talking about now is information. I want to say that there is an aspect of what's going on that it is mathematical, and thus non-physical and non-temporal, but information is after all physical. Yuck. But there is also a mathematics of information, so maybe I come out okay. Gonna leave that alone for the moment.
What I'm trying to say is that if the math didn't work the way it does, then the physical process of counting could not work the way it does. It's not that the mathematics constrains your actions, but it does constrain the results. Performing a physical task such as counting or measuring or dividing, all this business and much more, in a way that doesn't respect the mathematics won't reliably produce the right result. (Hence engineering.) And therefore the mathematics can give you some insight into what the right procedure must be.
And that seems right. Philosophy and mathematics are old friends. Plato will refer to this cluster of disciplines -- philosophy, mathematics, music, astronomy -- as if it's perfectly obvious why they go together, and indeed it is, if you think this way. The impulse to mathematize a problem is sound. It's what we do.
To come back to our issue -- I suppose I think of the physical counting of the coins as counterfactual, but mathematics, after all, is what it is at all possible worlds, and is never counterfactual. That's why it seems so clear to me that I am entitled before counting to make only the claims about an unperformed count that mathematics would entitle me to make, that the result I will get exists and is unique, though I do not know its value. If I follow an incorrect procedure, that's not true. If I cannot follow the correct procedure, that's not true. But I can know what a correct procedure is and what result it must produce if it can be followed. And that claim is based on the mathematics, so not counterfactual.
What remains -- and it's too big for me -- is some explanation of how mathematics (non-physical, non-temporal) is implicated in the performance of a physical task in the actual world.
Does this make any sense? I could go back and edit, but maybe it's clearer if you can watch me stumbling toward figuring out what I want to say...
+++
The last problem mentioned --- roughly, idealization, the function of ideals in our thinking, and so on --- does have a possible solution here, of a sort.
I suggested that I can know some things about counting a set of objects without counting them because there is mathematics that constrains how counting works, and I can know the mathematics because, unlike the counting itself, it is never counterfactual.
The little puzzle here, of what this mathematics is and how it connects to physical processes like counting coins, could be dissolved by reversing my description above: suppose instead we say first that there are things I can know about counting objects, without doing any counting, because they must be so (and thus are not counterfactual). And this sort of knowledge --- of just those aspects of a situation or process that must be so --- is more or less what we call mathematics.
If that's defensible, then we may be able to find our way back around to questions about truth, because truth appears to come in varieties, which is slightly disconcerting, and I've been presenting an analysis that relies precisely on a distinction between a priori and a posteriori knowledge, and have offered a half-baked suggestion for how you might get the former out of the latter (thus perhaps re-linking some sorts of truth, if not quite re-unifying them).[/hide]
What type of knowledge do you assume that a "hypothetical" gives someone? It's not true knowledge. When you assume hypothetically that it is raining, this does not mean that you have knowledge that it is raining.
Quoting Janus
I don't see that you have a point. Justified, in general does mean proven. To justify means to demonstrate the correctness of, and that is to prove. And the meaning of "true" is very problematic, as demonstrated by this thread. Some posting here want to reduce truth to a special form of justification, but that leaves knowledge as simply justified belief. And others want to consult common usage. That's what I did, and common usage of "truth" is grounded in honesty. If we tell the truth when making a proposition, we propose what we honestly believe. A proposition which does not present what the person honestly believes is not a truthful one.
Quoting Janus
As I said, I do not respect this separation. Knowing-that, or propositional knowledge is just a special form of knowing-how. Using language and logic is a type of acting, so this is a type of know-how.
Quoting Janus
In categorization, if there is a category with sub-groups, then all the sub-groups have something in common which makes them all members of the broader category. So if all types of know-how are all types of "knowledge", then they all have something in common. To say what "knowledge" is, we need to determine what they have in common. I think that JTB, if understood in the right way, is a good proposal. It has been around for a long time, and stood the test of time. The most difficult issue is to determine what "true" means. As the title of the op suggests, we often ask, "what is truth?", without sticking around to determine the answer. And so JTB is rather useless if we do not understand what T means.
The way I'd put it is that the thing-in-itself is a noumenon, i.e. something that can be thought but cannot be empirically encountered, but noumena is the general category while thing-in-itself is one particular noumenon.
I believe it was mostly invented to make a distinction between transcendental idealism and the pure idealism that Kant is concerned with criticizing -- it's absurd to think that the moon stops existing when no one looks at it, but we'll never encounter the moon-in-itself either. So thing-in-itself is more like a place-holder concept to guard against treating metaphysical (non-empirical, and unbounded by the categories) judgments about objects as knowledge -- such as objects are material/ideal, which cannot be determined through collective empirical judgment.
This isn't to disagree with anything you've written, which I've agreed with, but to complement it.
Funny, innit? Dude spends 700-odd pages telling us how there is but one way to traverse the territory toward knowledge, but his one way requires an abundance of cautions about what were not supposed to do in order to get there. Which makes sense in its own way, for what were not supposed to do is what the philosophers before him told us to do.
Try this on, see how it fits, as to why neither the ding an sich nor noumena can be transcendental idealities.
Just take as accepted we cannot know anything of noumena because they require a non-sensuous intuition, yet ours is always and only possible from perception, which makes our intuition necessarily sensuous. So....regarding the path to knowledge, scratch noumena.
Now, objects of perception are given, so no need to look at those. But those objects are said to affect us, but they really only affect our sensing apparatus. Sounds objects make affects our ears, odor of objects affects our nose and so on, and we call these sensations. Each one of us has his own sensing apparatus; I cant see with your eyes, so we can say that which affects the senses changes only the condition of the subject to whom the apparatus belongs. I hear something you dont, my subjective condition is changed relative to yours.
But you could hear what I heard, everything is in place to make it possible, except the occasion for it. All this is physically determinable in its entirety, as any medical doctor will tell you, so this part ends here. Nonetheless, your subjective condition is changeable, even if it doesnt change, so there is that which makes changes in your subjective condition possible, whether or not there is an occasion for it, and therefore this cannot be counted in the physical part.
Just take as accepted, anything not counted as physical is not counted as empirical, and anything not counted as empirical in some way is counted as a priori, and anything not counted as empirical in any way whatsoever is counted as pure a priori. It follows that whatever is there that makes changes in ones subjective condition merely possible, is pure a priori. But it must be something, and thus is established and justified, a precursory condition.
The sound a lead ball makes is different than the sound a rubber ball makes, and the sound a ball makes is different than the sound a trash compactor makes. That all these make a sound is determined by the the matter of each, but the matter of these, while affecting the senses with sound, do not carry the information of what form the matter has. It is impossible for us to get ball out of the sound an object makes when it hits something solid. Without antecedent experience, you cannot get telephone out of some arbitrary ringing/clanking/buzzing sound.
Just take as accepted, there is now what we call phenomenon, which is only a representation of a change in subjective condition caused by the affect of an object on sensory apparatus. OK, so...eventually we get to know what these objects are, but there still needs be the matter arranged in a certain form such that the present phenomenon subsequently becomes a specific experienced, known....named....object. But dont forget...were still in the early stages, just past having been affected by an object of perception. In Platonic fashion, we know that there is a sensation, but we do not know how the sensation is to be represented because as yet It hasnt been. It happens that just as your subjective condition can be changed, so too can the matter of objects be arranged into a certain form, which must be the case, otherwise wed never be able to distinguish one from another. Thus, all matter is arrangeable, which makes explicit there is that which makes the matter of an object arrangeable in its particular form, again, even if there no object present to affect the senses, which makes whatever that is, a pure a priori whatever. And this whatever must cover everything perceived, from the matter of the object of the moon arranged as a mere simple circle, all the way to, e.g. a pine cone, the matter of which is arranged in the form of a complex Fibonacci sequence.
But there are virtually innumerable objects, any one of them distinguishable from any other and any one of them possibly an experience, which suggests there is something common to the arrangement of matter, common to all objects without exception. So it is that the pure a priori whatever can be given a certain name, can be thought as a certain conception, can pertain to nothing else at all, and has no other purpose, except the possibility of arranging the matter of every single object of a possible experience in accordance with the manner in which we are affected by them.
Because we have constructed this entire scenario in a speculative, or intellectual, fashion, it is pure a priori. Because we have constructed it with absolutely singular purpose, that is with respect to our subjective condition alone, it is ideal. And due to the mode of its construction, from pure reason alone, it is transcendental.
That conception which meets these criteria is space; space, therefore is a transcendental ideality. And at the same time, because it has to do with empirical conditions of real physical objects, logically space has empirical validity. But theres still something further along to consider, because all thats been accomplished so far, is the exposition of the relation of an object to us, which says nothing of the relation of objects to each other, for which account must be made insofar as we actually can be simultaneously conscious of more than one object. And, while we always sense an object as it is in one space, we can also sense the same object in a different space. Something lurks in the shadows of the mind.....
Neither the thing-in-itself nor noumena, while being transcendental conceptions a priori, never affect our subjective condition sufficient to change it, their matter is never subjected to the ideality of space such that representation as phenomena are given necessarily, hence neither can ever be a possible experience, which thereby makes them unknowable in its most exact sense.
Cut and dried. Obvious to even the most casual observer. Yeah, right.
Now....about that rational part of the system. No? Maybe in another life, then. With an endless supply of gin and tonic. Or maybe some serious Matanuska Thunderfuck ganja maan. Play Black Sabbath at 78, talk to Lord Immanuel Himself. (Sigh)
This....
Quoting Moliere
.....complements rather well, I must say.
Quoting Moliere
While I cant refute that, as people are certainly entitled to think whatever they wish, but Im reluctant to agree with it. Standing prejudices, doncha know.
Justified cannot mean proven. When it comes to empirical beliefs, nothing we consider ourselves justified in believing can be proven. The provenance of proof is in logic and mathematics, not in inductive reasoning.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
I haven't disputed that, but it does not follow that all kinds of know-how are forms of knowing-that, which is why I have been trying to point out to you that there are kinds of know-how that have nothing to do with justification, truth or even belief.
I cannot find anything to disagree with there, but I still cannot say that I'm entirely clear on your view of just what the distinction is, according to Kant, between noumenon and ding an sich. Maybe I'll have to go back to reading the CPR again (when I can find the time).
Regarding the rejection of the idea of intellectual intuition, would you say that is on account of the impossibility of inter-subjective and cross-sensory corroboration?
It seems you have a misunderstanding of justification. Empirical evidence, along with logic comprise justification. All logic requires premises, and most are grounded in empirical evidence. Justification is not limited to empirical evidence alone. I don't even know how empirical evidence without some form of inference would work as justification for a belief. You just observe evidence with no inference?
Quoting Janus
I fully understand that, but I don't see the relevance. As I said what I was looking for is what is common to all knowledge. Depending on how one defines "justified", justification may be conceived of as what sets knowing-that apart from other forms of knowing how.
That's a very clear explanation.
Quoting Mww
This points directly to what I said to Janus above. Empirical evidence in itself does not justify a belief, what is required is empirical evidence plus logic.
Of course evidence is such on account of inference; inductive or abductive inferences are not certain, and hence do not constitute proof. Deductive inferences if valid are certain, so they do constitute proof.
You meant dont constitute evidence right?
Right, they don't constitute evidence for anything, if the premises are not certain to be true, but they do constitute proof within the context of the premises or provided the premises are true, although they don't prove anything beyond what the premises do in any case, but merely unpack what might at first not be obvious..
Cool! Yes, I think that crystallizes the discussion.
Perhaps this also says something about how the word "count" is used. For example, if Bob was randomly adding and removing coins from the jar while Alice was endeavoring to count the coins, would we be willing to say that Alice was actually counting the coins in the jar?
The way I'm thinking about this is that we have a conceptual scheme for how things work (a priori), but this is continually informed by our experience (a posteriori), such that it is possible for our conceptual scheme to change. As part of that, our mathematics can also change. Not necessarily in the sense of x being wrong and y right, but instead that we find that y is a more natural fit than x in particular situations.
I'm reminded of Rovelli's paper that argues for the contingency of mathematics:
Quoting Michelangelo's Stone: an Argument against Platonism in Mathematics - Carlo Rovelli
So to apply this to counterfactual-definiteness, here's a hopefully simple example of what might motivate the questioning of it based on experience (at least for some scenarios).
Suppose that we have a coin, a measuring device (or just observing is OK) and one or more black boxes. When we measure the coin, it is always heads or tails. When we send the coin through the black box and then measure it, it has the orientation it started with only half the time (and not with any discernable pattern). We put this down to the black box having a randomizing element that sometimes flips the coin, sometimes not. Regardless, there's no need to question counterfactual-definiteness.
One day, someone decides to link two black boxes together, send a coin through them both, and then measure it. To their surprise, they find that the coin is always measured with the same orientation that it started with.
As evidenced by their surprise, this is a case of experience potentially bringing their conceptual scheme into question. So the challenge is to come up with a natural explanation for all the above measurements (which may either preserve their conceptual scheme or require a change to it).
A hypothetical (or thought experiment) shows the consequences of particular premises.
Quoting Thought experiment - Wikipedia
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
No. But the hypothetical shows the consequences that follow when it is raining. Namely that Alice knows that it is raining when, in addition to it raining, she has a justified belief that it is raining.
That's not what we were discussing though. The issue was, if it must be raining in order for Alice to know that it is raining (i.e. true in your sense), then knowledge is infallible. How does this example show that knowledge is fallible?
It doesn't. The example shows that human fallibility doesn't preclude Alice from knowing that it is raining.
Of course, and this is what I was trying to show in a roundabout away. It was moderately fun to do, and counterfactuals are interesting, but we dont need any of that, all we need is this:
(Card) If and only if there is a one-to-one correspondence between the coins in a jar and the set of natural numbers less than or equal to k, for some natural number k, then the number of coins in the jar is k and there is a definite number of coins in the jar.
Thats just the definition of cardinality for finite sets plus existential generalization. We dont need counterfactuals for that, and we dont need them for this:
(Count) If and only if a jar contains k coins, then counting the coins in the jar yields the value k.
This definition of cardinality for finite sets might as well be a description of counting; theres almost nothing else to say.
*
Ill check out the Rovelli. My path suggested that the necessity of mathematical truth is the tipoff; if you go backwards and collect the sorts of things you can know a priori and that are true across any set of possible worlds, the first things youd find would be what weve been calling mathematics, and the rest would be disciplines that aspire to be like mathematics. Thats why math is special, thats why math is what you can count on, thats why problems and theories should be formalized mathematically. (If its not math, its just stamp collecting.)
*
I see how your coins and boxes are analogous to photons and interferometers, but Im still not getting the point here.
But! I think I have thought of the perfect example, because it also involves making calculations based on values that you should not be using: the two envelopes problem.
Refresher: The only right way to do this is to treat the envelopes as X and 2X; you dont know which one you got, so you stand to gain X or to lose X by switching, and the expected value of switching is 0. But if instead, you call whatever you got Y, and then reason that if its the bigger the other is Y/2, and if its the smaller then the other is 2Y, then the expected value of switching is Y/4.
It could be that exactly whats wrong with this analysis is that it relies on counterfactual definiteness. (Oddly, like the black boxes and the interferometers, there are points in the defense of this analysis that rely on the principle of indifference giving equal chances to events, and then relying on those chances as if they were real values. Among many many other issues.)
Im still not sure it hooks up with the sort of counterfactuals Im used to thinking about.
Talk of switching in either the X or the Y analysis is counterfactual. Why does one of them work and the other not?
Looks good to me!
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Assuming the coin always has a definite heads or tails state, even when not measured, what definite state could it have had when it was between the two black boxes? It seems that the coin couldn't have had a definite state, contrary to assumption. (Which is why it is modeled with a wave function, or a linear combination of definite states, or a sum over histories, etc.)
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Definitely interesting to think about.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Because the Y analysis solves a subtly different problem. Namely, when you choose an envelope, suppose the unchosen envelope is emptied and then randomly filled with half or twice the amount of your chosen envelope. So you should switch in that case.
In terms of counterfactual definiteness, in the original scenario the envelopes have a definite and unchanging state throughout the experiment. Whereas the in latter scenario, the state of the envelopes can change, depending on your choice, so in a sense is indefinite. Though, of course, at each point in time the envelopes have a definite state.
If you didn't know which scenario was in play then you would have to collect data, compare the switching strategies and come up with a model of how the envelopes were filled.
The example cannot serve this purpose, because it premises that we can know up front, infallibly whether or not it is raining. You claim to be disproving what is given. Read what you said:
Quoting Andrew M
See the deception? You claim the argument is about "what Alice knows", but you assert a conclusion about "human fallibility". However, your argument has already excluded human fallibility in its premise, as "a given". (That's why my first response was that you begged the question, becauseI thought you were trying to use the argument to prove the infallibility of knowledge). So when you use the example for the purpose you claim. the argument defeats itself, because contrary to begging the question, you ask the person to premise exactly what you are arguing against.
Easy part first....cross-sensory collaboration is a physiological impossibility, and inter-subjective collaboration is impossible within the reference frame of its occurrence. We do inter-subjectively collaborate, which is at that point merely a euphemism for post hoc relative agreement.
The denial of intellectual intuition I dont think involves either of those. The objects we know about are external to us, but the knowledge we have is of representations of those external objects, and we are not conscious of the transition from one kind to the other. All we know is that it happens and happens necessarily, that is, it is impossible that it doesnt happen. If we are not conscious of what happens, we are permitted to speculate about it, legislated by the LNC alone. From that, in the speculative construction of a system.....
(Overlooking the fact the system under construction in speculation, is concurrently in use for the construction)
......when this does this and that does that, it is necessary that this cannot be allowed to do that. When the system for knowing things is constructed, and a part of it is of this type, it is self-defeating to then say that part is of a different type, because it then becomes possible that this can do that in violation of the LNC. The idea of an intellectual intuition is reject-able simply because the system has already been constructed in which intuition is governed by the senses.
Technically speaking, with respect to Kant, that which is intelligible is that which is presented to understanding of a non-material nature, which simply means presented to understanding by itself, absent sensibility, which makes explicit, absent phenomena. In other words, we can think it, which is exactly what noumenon are, re: objects of the intellect. But intelligible, intellectual, does not necessarily imply conceivable schema, that is, representations, subsumed under the thought, which are necessary in order to for a judgement to be forthcoming regarding such intellectual object. We can judge the concept of noumena, because it is a valid conception, but we have nothing by which to judge a noumenal object, because there is nothing by which it is represented.
Going back to the development of phenomena, the arrangement of matter into a specific form, in conjunction with object of the intellect in which there is no matter to arrange, it is clear that for a representation to become schema for an intellectual object, requires that which does not consider matter, making the arrangement of it moot. This, then, would be an intellectual type of intuition, the type, in accordance with the method of the constructed theory, we do not have.
All it amounts to in the end, is that we cannot have an intellectual intuition because if we did, the theory itself is logically self-contradictory and internally inconsistent....the very cause of its own destruction. So saying, intellectual intuition, intellectual representation, and therefore a particular noumenon derivable from that, cannot be considered impossible, insofar as the entire speculative system as it belongs to us could very well be wrong, and furthermore, it cannot be said our type of intelligence is the only intelligence there is, which implies noumena are possible conceptions with their own empirical representations, in some other kind of intelligent being.
One thing I wish Id accomplished here.....is that over the years of our communications, I had convinced you, or at least persuaded, to disassociate noumena from the ding an sich. In all honesty, on the other hand, I almost wish youd have convinced me why you havent.
Absolutely, and shouldnt be contentious. Empirical evidence is contingent, therefore any empirical belief legislated by it, is also contingent. But each empirical belief, in and of itself, in its own time, is nothing but a logical conclusion regarding relative certainty, determinable only by empirically given premises antecedent to the conclusion but concurrent with the evidence.
But its more than just that. The premises themselves, being of the subject/object propositional construct, must have had their subject/object relation already determined logically. If I believe X about Y, I must have already concluded something under logical conditions about X, such that the relation of it to Y, makes my belief coherent. The premises X and Y must logically relate to each other, or I end up with whats called ...pitiful dogmatic sophistries.
Empirical evidence is what there is presented to me; justification is the manner by which the evidence is treated, belief is one of three possible results of the treatment, the other two being opinion and knowledge.
We can describe a situation in which someone knows that the guess was correct, just not the person guessing, and so we presume that even if no one knew whether the guess was correct, there would be a fact of the matter about the quantity of coins, that some sentences about the quantity of coins would be true and some would be false, even if no one knew that, even if no one ever knew that, even if no one ever could know that.
There was, I believe, a definite number of living spiders on my porch last night at 11 pm, but no one can ever know what that number was, because they werent counted and the opportunity to count them is gone forever. If I simply listed all the numbers between 0 and some implausibly high upper bound like 10[sup]9[/sup], one of those numbers would be right, and all of the others wrong.
Besides the intuitive plausibility of the distinction between truth and knowledge, there is the Church-Fitch argument, which shows that there must be truths (like the spiders on my porch) that are not only unknown by me, but unknowable by anyone, unless you're willing to say that everything that is the case is known. Which is just to say that there is no comfortable resting place partway between identifying truth with knowledge and not doing so.
Quoting Andrew M
Still not getting it, so I'll just ask.
Is this the claim? If each coin left box 1 with a definite state, then it would enter box 2 with a definite state, and if all of the coins entered box 2 with a definite state, then we should see some coins not in their initial orientation? Since we don't, it must not be true that coins leave box 1 and enter box 2 with a definite state.
What I don't get is that the behavior of the boxes is defined only for coins entering with a definite state, and as emitting coins only in a definite state. What are the boxes doing if not that? Isn't this a way of saying that the behavior of the boxes is not entirely definite?
I think I can see your reasoning in the rest of your post not quoted above. If I understand you aright, you are saying that since our very notion of intuition (intuition in the Kantian sense, of course) is constructed from reflection on sensory experience, it would thus be contradictory to attempt to apply the notion of intuiton in a context, pure thought, where it would lose its sense. Something like that?
Regarding what is quoted above, I was talking about inter-subjective and cross sensory corroboration, not collaboration. So, my idea is that our sensory intuitions can be corroborated by others, and it is on the basis of that corroboration, that we posit the existence of external objects, and are able to distinguish between perceptions of real objects and hallucinations. Cross sensory corroboration also allows us to confirm our sensory intuitions. Say, for example I think I see a tree; I can walk up to it and touch it, put my arms around it, tap it and hear its dull resonance, climb it, cut a limb off and so on, none of which would be possible if the tree were an illusion.
Neither of these procedures would be possible with so-called intellectual intuitions; they would thus have the same status, epistemologically speaking, as hallucinations. So, to get back to the OP, truth seems to be an essentially inter-subjective idea involving common experience of what is external to us. Even our a priori understandings come only from reflection on, and only have their sense in, our culturally mediated experience of a common world.
As to the distinction between the ding an sich and the noumenon, I see a distinction in that the ding an sich is the empirical object, which is known only by images and impressions, and thus never wholly, but only in glimpses, so to speak. In that sense I understand the ding an sich to be a kind of formal or logical collective representation. That is we think that the external object, which we know only through sensory contacts, and thus only partially and as it appears to us, must also have its own existence; an existence of which we cannot form any substantive conception. I think it is in this sense of the external object as being, in its own existence, wholly alien to our experience, that we think of noumena.
So, it's not a matter of my not being convinced by your explanations, but of my failure to understand clearly where your explanation differs from mine, as outlined above. I think you understand Kant much more thoroughly than I do, so there must be something I'm not getting. I also acknowledge that what I outlined above is more my own thoughts than it is an attempt to correctly interpret Kant (a task which, judging from the disagreements among Kant scholars I have encountered in my fairly limited reading, is not so easy).
Yep, just like that.
Quoting Janus
Oh damn. I never once noticed that, until you just brought it up. What a dumbass.
(Note to self: make more effort to distance braincase from anal cavity)
The rest...all good.
:lol:
Quoting Mww
:cool:
No, not infallibly. One can possibly be mistaken about what the premises of the hypotheticals are. But since they are clearly stated, there's no good reason why anyone should be mistaken.
:up: I agree with all you said there.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Yes.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Correct (given plausible assumptions, namely locality and no-conspiracy).
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Not quite. What is defined is what happens when a coin in an initially definite state goes through one or more black boxes and then is finally measured to be in a definite state.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Not necessarily. The boxes may operate in a well-defined (definite) way, but are instead able to input and output coins in an indefinite state. But that can't be directly confirmed since a coin is always measured to be in a definite state.
You seem to have lost track of the point (if you ever followed it). The point was that we cannot say whether or not "Alice has knowledge" under your description of "knowledge", unless we infallibly know whether or not it is raining. Otherwise we could find out later that it was not knowledge. A hypothetical doesn't provide us with the required knowledge. Therefore, in your example, we cannot truthfully say "Alice has knowledge", or "not knowledge", in either instance.
Quoting Andrew M
See, in neither case can we say "Alice has Knowledge", nor "Alice does not have knowledge", because we do not know whether or not it is raining. Even if you assert "it is raining, therefore Alice has knowledge", your assertion does not make it the case that it is raining.
So the reliance on counterfactual definiteness is here? That perhaps a coin was emitted in an indefinite state but we cant observe indefinite states, only definite ones. This is like your grid-world example with the direction of the unobserved arrow.
So the issue is that in some cases there might be no fact of the matter, no definite state, but if we take a measurement, well always find that there is. And then counterfactual definiteness is specifically the claim that since our measurements always show definite states, then what we measure or, more specifically, what we intend to measure or consider or imagine measuring, must always be in a definite state because indeed thats what measuring it would show.
A hypothetical is a conditional, isnt it? Suppose I give you a million dollars is not me giving you squat.
When I point out that a premise of the hypothetical is that it is raining, I'm not claiming that it's actually raining outside, here in the real world.
Yes, exactly.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Yes.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Yes, and this is a reason why some physicists and philosophers are not so happy with the term "measurement" here, because it seems to imply that the coin (or particle) is in a definite state prior to measurement.
Here's physicist Asher Peres on this:
Quoting Quantum Information and Relativity Theory - Peres, Terno
Then your hypothetical does squat, as Srap says, toward justifying your claim. We still cannot ever correctly judge that what Alice has is "knowledge", in the real world, because any such judgements could always turn out to be incorrect. Your example only applies to a hypothetical world, in which it actually is raining. What good is it, if it doesn't apply to the real world?
Your argument seems to be that if we cannot be certain that it is raining then it is not actually raining and that if we cannot be certain that it isn't raining then it is not actually not raining. This doesn't follow and is even a contradiction.
Sometimes, in the real world, it is actually raining, and sometimes, in the real world, it actually isn't raining, irrespective of our certainty and judgements and justifications.
This is an assumption. You can invite people to share your assumptions, but you can't really bang them over the head with them. Assumptions have no weight.
It's also true.
If it were false then it's negation would be true, irrespective of our certainty and judgements and justifications. Which would be a contradiction.
Antirealism is about the world, not metaphysics.
Read through the whole discussion. It is the same discussion as this one. Every (philosophical) discussion on TPF becomes the same discussion, if it has enough time to get there. Its kinda depressing, to be honest.
That's not depressing, it's brilliant. You've discovered the attractor of philosophical discourse.
It's been done before, many, many times. (And whether I discovered it or invented it is exactly the debate.)
I suspect it's really selection bias. Out of the entire population that might post here, the vast majority keep on walking, a small number are interested in academic philosophy, a tiny number of those become academic philosophers, an unknown number create an account here, a fraction of those read some of the site, and a fraction of those post. Certain interests, and certain sorts of arguments, seem to be over-represented in those who post, relative even to the population of those with an interest in academic philosophy.
Yes. It is comfy though. The best thing to happen is for a thread to burn bright and die early, before the assumptions underlying the assumptions get doubted, and fundamental points of reference of our discussants don't come into conflict. I think we often get to the same thing, whereas academic discourse maybe doesn't, because we get the luxury of doubting arbitrary assumptions while remaining in the same discourse.
Also yes to selection bias.
Back when I was a tournament chess player, it seemed to me that the style of play of serious players -- that is, who studied, practiced, and played a lot, regardless of talent -- was a generation or so behind what the world's top players were doing. This shows up in opening repertoire too: things current GMs aren't playing are still common in weekend tournaments among amateurs. Some of that is really a matter of knowledge and technique: GMs might avoid an opening as black because the current state-of-the-art for white forces a very favorable endgame. That's not the kind of advantage amateurs can reliably convert, and so it's not the kind of advantage they think about much or know much about.
I think something similar happens with us. We advocate positions professionals consider to have nearly fatal flaws because we don't know that -- don't even know what counts as that sort of flaw -- and because the people we talk to don't know it either, don't know that there is such a case to be made or how to make it. Thus even when a discussion here lands right on such a point -- about as close to dispositive as philosophy gets -- no one knows this is enough to call the bout and move on.
Philosophy and chess are similar in this sense, that they are driven by fashion, but fashion that is shaped by an arms race. Obviously not an infallible procedure for approaching truth, but also one that is easily misunderstood. Grandmasters will abandon a line in an opening because of one specific move (initiating a variation) available to their opponent. The technical details matter, and they are what drive the shifts in fashion. New ideas in old openings have surprise value (the Theoretical Novelty), but it also has to be a good idea. Sometimes a great player will refute a TN over the board, in real time.
So I see professional philosophers in part as engaged in rather technical issues because it's how you push alternatives toward the possibility of decision. Absent such technical knowledge and expertise, our choices of fashion are somewhat arbitrary, and there are never any decisive encounters of one view with another.
You are right, of course. But there are takeaways that make the discussion not entirely useless. I came across a novel approach to the logic of truth - revision theory; although the material is difficult and I was unable to garner much interest from anyone else. I also enjoyed the rare agreement with @Pie early in the thread and with @Isaac later on, including some surprise that Isaac found the discussion of "counts as" useful. There's something of the neurological basis for language hiding in there.
The discussion with you was intriguing for a while, although disappointingly it petered out without issue. @Michael drew attention to a few issues with T-sentences that are well worth keeping in mind.
Other views, summarised here, were predictable.
The last few banal, meandering pages are down to folk trying to take an absurd view seriously. They are not a typical of the thread.
Think I was otherwise occupied when you mentioned that. I'll take a look.
The hypothetical shows the logical consequences that follow when it is actually raining in the real world.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
:up:
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Also :up:. In which case she mistakenly thinks that it's raining when it isn't.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
We can know the answer to this by doing just what Alice did, namely, by looking and seeing that it's raining outside.
:up:
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
As is the option that they are false alternatives, thus giving rise to the strange attractor. I'm reminded of the Greg Egan short story "Unstable Orbits in the Space Of Lies". Maybe that's the philosopher's fate...
It does not actually show the logical consequences which follow when it is actually raining in the real world, and the problem is that your assertions that it does, and attempts show that it does, are nothing less than deception. The hypothetical shows the logical consequences which follow from the assumption that it is actually raining in the real world. And, there is a very big difference in meaning between "it is actually raining in the real world", and "I assume it is actually raining in the real world". The latter recognizes the possibility that it is not raining in the real world.
Quoting Michael
No, I'm not saying anything like that. What is at issue here is the nature of possibility, and particularly the possibility that it is not raining, when it appears like Alice knows that it is raining. This is because Andrew claims that if people appear to have knowledge, then it turns out later that what they knew at the time (or thought they knew) was incorrect, we ought to retroactively say that what they had at that time was not knowledge. This means that unless we are absolutely certain, we ought not call something "knowledge", because it could turn out not to be knowledge. This assumption forces upon epistemologists the necessity of considering fallibility (the possibility of incorrectness), when discussing what qualifies as "knowledge". Do you not agree that as epistemologists, if there is a possibility that the thing which appears to be knowledge is not actually knowledge, then we ought not call it "knowledge"?
So my argument is that if it has to be actually raining out for us to correctly call what Alice has "knowledge", (as Andrew asserts), then we ought not label what Alice has as "knowledge" unless we are certain that it is raining out.
It looked to me like it fell to the same problem as any other theory of truth, but with more interesting results. The "interesting results" were definitely beyond me, so no noise from me. But that you landed on "false" just meant it had the same problem as any theory of truth, as I understand the liars.
Why? I don't need to be certain that something is true to assert that it is true. I will have Weetabix for breakfast tomorrow. I'm not certain that I will, but I'm still going to say that I will.
We don't require certainty to assert things. If that were true then we ought stay silent on everything except anything that is necessarily true. It would make for a very quiet, impractical world.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
No. I'm happy with fallibilist knowledge. It's consistent with ordinary use. The list of things we claim to know is greater than the list of things we claim to be certain about, and so clearly what we mean by "know" isn't what we mean by "certain".
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
And this doesn't follow.
You start by saying that it has to actually be raining for Alice to know that it is raining. You then conclude by saying that we have to be certain that it is raining for Alice to know that it is raining. So as I said in my previous post, you are asserting that if we are not certain that it is raining then it is not actually raining. What evidence or reasoning is there for this? Most of us accept that sometimes we are not certain but it is actually raining.
Not necessarily. From the fact that its raining, you cant conclude that it might not be; for all you know, it might necessarily be raining.
I dont think any of that affects how a hypothetical works. It can be quite natural to construct a hypothetical with an assumption that is at least counterfactual, for explanatory purposes: if this thingy werent here, this other thingy would blah-blah-blah; if squirrels couldnt climb trees so quickly, then cats would catch them easily.
You can even do this with an assumption that is necessarily false, and thats roughly how proof by reductio ad absurdum works. Must it be the case that a space with properties A, B, and C has property D? Assume A, B, C, and ~D and then derive a clear contradiction. That means the entire set of premises, taken as the conjunction A & B & C & ~D, is necessarily false.
But in all these examples, the important thing about a hypothetical is that you must discharge your assumption. So the conclusion of a hypothetical is always, at least implicitly, a conditional. Suppose I have a dollar bill and 2 quarters. Then I have $1.50 total, is to be understood as If I have a dollar bill and 2 quarters, then I have $1.50.
Thats the whole point of hypotheticals, to see what follows from the assumption, to see whether something in particular does, not to make a claim about whether the assumption holds or not, or even whether its possible or not. Sometimes in informal reasoning, people miss the step of discharging their assumptions, so theyll end up claiming something like But I just proved that I have $1.50!!! when all theyve proven is that if they had $1.50 then theyd have $1.50.
Since Ive cited Margaret Wise Brown, Ill cite another of my favorite works of philosophy, Open House for Butterflies:
[quote=Ruth Kraus]If youre pretending youre a lion, its good to know if youre pretending youre really a lion.[/quote]
I for one would appreciate it if you stopped saying things like this. Andrew and Michael are clearly not trying to deceive you. If they are mistaken, then they are mistaken, but theres no deception here.
To me, certainty sounds like a psychological state, something like maximal confidence, and its irrelevant. It could turn out I was wrong even if I was certain. Would you like here to do the same thing you dont like with the word knowledge and say that if that were to happen, then it must be that you werent really certain, but only thought you were?
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Knowledge is just actual knowledge, and knowledge of the actual. It doesnt have to be necessary, and neither does the proposition known. What is cannot not be, but in many cases it might not have been. There are different sorts of necessity at work here. We can say that it is possible for something that is not to have been without denying that it is. I know that its raining but maybe it isnt is incoherent; I know that its raining but it might not have been isnt.
The rewrite rules make this really clear. If you have a propositional attitude ? toward a proposition P, ? is factive just in case you can, with no change in truth-value, rewrite S ?s P as P and S ?s that.
I know that it is raining = Its raining and I know that
Steve thinks that it is raining ? Its raining and Steve thinks that
The interesting thing people keep saying is that it might turn out that P isnt or wasnt the case, that I was right or wrong. No worries when were just dealing with belief, because that suggests that there is newly acquired evidence. No one bats an eye at I thought she was at the store but it turns out she wasnt. For all I knew, she was at the store, but now I know more and my knowledge now includes that she wasnt.
No one seems to bring up, I thought she was at the store and it turns out I was right. Here the speaker is still not claiming to have known she was at the store, but to have had the belief, a belief which was true, without his knowing that.
But I knew that water freezes at 32°C but it turns out it doesnt is incoherent. Why? Because knowledge is factive, so something is entailed about the state of the world by what you know; water either freezes at 32°C or it doesnt. If you know that water doesnt freeze above 0°C, then its not your knowledge that rules out the possibility of water freezing at 32°C, but what is entailed by your knowledge.
But that would run counter to things like understanding the meaning of a poem, wouldn't it? Perhaps the whole approach of specifying rules of interpretation is what's wrongheaded? We get by without explicit reference to rules quite frequently. It's just not some kind of universal rule or something.
Which is a perfectly good prior. What do you do next?
Quoting Moliere
That would be one thing to do next. If the theory has entailments that are false, it's toast. But arguments for and against at this level of abstraction tend to be question-begging, so this is tricky. (I know I didn't find Derangement at all convincing, even though my sympathies then were different from what they are at the moment.)
Quoting Moliere
This would be the other thing to do next. Try specifying some rules and see how it goes.
If it can't be done, that ought to become pretty clear at some point. Linguistics is littered with failed theories, even failed research programs, like any other science, but not all of them.
My first response was "No idea" :D -- but that's no fun:
To get back at truth, it seems to me that if there's no ur-Language, or at least rules for all languages which count as Language in general, then we'd have to put aside any semantic theory of truth (if we hoped that theory was universal, at least). There'd be nothing of truth as much as we're talking about the English predicate "...is true", which does have a history and all, but clearly we'd be picking out the "good cases" in that history and so we rely upon -- even if indistinct -- some notion of truth that is bigger than the English predicate "...is true"
But then you say here:
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
And I have a great respect for the sciences (as well as philosophy, for that matter).
So I'll lay out my suspicions --
It seems to me that in order to generalize about language you'd have to have a representative sample. But no one person knows enough languages to even come close to that (think about how many languages have already perished up to now, and how the kinds of societies which don't prioritize capital and conquest might have very different dialects than us), so you kind of just have to assume that the languages you do know are at least related to this general picture of language -- that real language use instantiates the general features of language, and it does so so strongly that the specifics of any one language don't obscure it.
And when it comes to even the small number of languages I'm familiar with I'm having a hard time picking out much similarity when it comes to meaning such that we'd have a rule which translates the meaning of one language to another. Really you just have to know both languages in order to perform a translation. Knowledge of a particular language is about as "deep" as knowledge of language goes -- and translation is an art of understanding two languages, rather than a rule.
But that's all just based on my mere experience with language learning and such. I have a hard time conceptualizing what Language, in general, could possibly mean other than "whatever it is we mean when meaning with means" -- so my suspicions are likely just based on my small impression of things, and there's much more to the story that I'm unaware of.
Proof is in the pudding. There are lots of linguists doing lots of fieldwork. Maybe they'll find something, maybe they won't. Arguments that they must, or that they cannot, hang in the air exactly the way a brick doesn't.
I don't think it would be the end of linguistics if there were no universal grammar but several kinds of language, but we all came from the same place and probably had language before we left, so it's a reasonable expectation that there is some unique capacity for language (since evolution *usually* but not always solves problems once).
Is that a proposed formulation somewhere?
It doesn't work in ordinary mathematics. A sentence is either true or false but not both. And a sentence is true if and only if its negation is false. But with our ordinary mathematical axiomatizations, there are sentences such that neither the sentence nor its negation are derivable.
Yeah, that makes sense to me. I certainly don't want to be read as saying either that they cannot or must -- if anything I've been pushing against notions like that. I certainly don't expect the meandering thoughts I have to in some way impinge on a project people have dedicated their lives to. I'm sure these thoughts have been thought by people better educated on the matter than I :D
I guess, for us -- .or really, for me, since I think you're still pretty much on board with correspondence theory -- I have to think on your question and get at another approach that does utilize something that I'm more confident in.
(EDIT: "Homebase" for me is Kant, but I'm also confident that he's wrong :D -- so who knows)
Is 7 + 5 = 12 derivable?
Of course it is.
But in any "adequate" system, there are statements such that neither the statement nor its negation is derivable. So derivability doesn't work for defining 'is true'.
I wasn't defining "is true", only stating that "7 + 5 = 12" being derivable is the necessary and sufficient condition for "7 + 5 = 12" to be true.
'7+5=12' is true iff '7+5' is a theorem
is the case because both sides of the biconditional are true.
But that is not an instance of a substantial theory of truth.
Quoting Michael
When I say something like "snow is white" is true iff snow reflects all wavelengths of light I'm not also implying that "it is raining" is true iff snow reflects all wavelengths of light. I'm simply trying to provide more substance to the truth of "snow is white" than what the trivial T-schema offers.
The example of "7 + 5 = 12" was just a hypothetical, like the three examples of "snow is white" above. I'm not committing to any one of them as a matter of fact.
Meaning is not governed by conventions.
And yet we do make sense of what folk say.
Hence our error was to suppose that we make sense by using conventions.
I'm curious as to how this matches with pattern recognition in neural networks. Attempts to explain language use by listing conventions to show the patterns of the symbols. are fraught. But neural networks work with patterns without making use of symbols. A neural net can make sense of language without making use of conventions. Our wetware allows us to transcend any supposed algorithm, to make sense of nonsense, hitting the nail right on the thumb.
We are not limited to algorithms.
@Isaac?
To risk resurrecting our previous discussion, can we have knowledge but not have maximal confidence? "I know that p but I am not certain" could be seen to be something of a Moorean sentence.
We are aren't talking about whether we should call it true or not. We are talking about whether epistemologists should call it knowledge or not. If they do not know that it is knowledge, why would they call it "knowledge"? You would think that an epistemologist should know what qualifies as knowledge.
Quoting Michael
You are in agreement with me here. It was Andrew M who said that if what we currently know (or seem to know) later turns out not to be true, then we have to say that it wasn't really knowledge at that earlier time. I argued against this, saying it isn't consistent with fallibilist knowledge, because under this presumption, what seems like knowledge cannot be real knowledge unless it cannot later turn out to be wrong. Andrew was trying to argue that his position is consistent with fallibilist knowledge, with an example which did not work.
Quoting Michael
That it has to be raining for Alice to know that it is raining, is Andrew's argument, not mine.
Quoting Michael
No, this is not what I concluded. I clearly said "we ought not label what Alice has as 'knowledge' unless we are certain", under Andrew's conditions. This is because truth is a criterion for knowledge, and if we do not know that this criterion is fulfilled we ought not make that judgement, that what Alice has is knowledge.
Quoting Michael
No, this is completely incorrect.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
But we do not have "the fact that it is raining" we have the premise, or proposition that it is raining, which is just the assumption that it is raining, not the fact that it is raining.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
You discharge one assumption, for the sake of another, the assumption of the hypothetical. You do not move from assumption to fact.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
But Andrew was saying that the hypothetical shows what follows "when it is actually raining in the real world". And that's what I argued against, because it really only shows what follows from the assumption that it is raining, as you agree with me here.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
But I'm arguing the other side. I say we ought not say retroactively, that I really wasn't certain, just like we ought not say retroactively that we really didn't know. I say that we ought to allow that when I know, or when I am certain, it may turn ought later that I am wrong. This is more representative of what knowledge really is. And we should allow that I really did know, and that I really was certain, despite the fact that things changed, and what I was certain of, and knew, later became incorrect.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
The subject we were discussing is the issue with the use of "true", in the formulation of "knowledge" as justified true belief. If "true" here means what is actually the case, then when it turns out that what appeared to be known is actually not the case, then we must say that it was not knowledge. So, I suggested that "true" is better defined in relation to honesty, what one honestly believes. Then there is no requirement for what is actually the case, in "knowledge" as justified true belief.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Knowledge is not factive, it is pragmatic, that's why I said it's the principles we employ in our actions. This is derived from Plato's "the good".
See Bulverism.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
No, the hypothetical shows the logical consequences which follow from the condition that it is actually raining in the real world. People make assumptions. But whether it is raining or not is a condition that is independent of people's assumptions.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
The former statement doesn't exclude the possibility. None of your statements to me are prefixed with "I assume". Should I conclude that you do not recognize the possibility that any of your statements could be mistaken?
Thanks!
I really dont think so, but I wouldnt base that entirely on what people say, their reports. We can say of the shy schoolboy or the forgetful grandfather that he does know something, even though we would not classify them as highly confident that they know. If, with a little goosing and a little encouragement, they can come up with the right bit of info, then they did know, but thought maybe they didnt. And indeed theres nothing so unusual about people expressing doubts about whether they know something, rather than what they know. I think I remember locking the door can be said in a case where you do remember locking the door, but youve done it so many times, youre not sure youre recalling the right event. Especially under emotional stress people may flatly deny, in all honesty, that they know something they do: I swear, I have no idea where your book is, I never touched it! But it would have been in your way when you were putting the groceries away. Oh. Right. I put it on your nightstand.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Im sure I dont agree with you.
There are ambiguities here we could try to clear up:
(1) If I, in the course of my daily life, assume that its raining, thats to say I honestly hold the belief that it is raining, without having gone to a great deal of trouble to find out.
(2) If, for the sake of a hypothetical bit of reasoning, and with some concern about the weather but no access at the moment to a weather report, suggest that if it is raining, we wont be able to go for a walk, I hold no belief either way about whether it is raining; I only mean to suggest how we should act if it turns out (that is, if at a later time we actually know) that its raining. Quite different from (1), in which the assumption is what I honestly believe. Thats simply not the case here. NB: these are the sort of assumptions that must be discharged; its just the terminology of natural deduction.
(3) If I make an assumption of any kind, the word assumption does multiple duty: (a) it can describe my mental action, somewhat like assuming, of taking an attitude toward a proposition; (b) it can denote the object of my mental attitude, the proposition itself, what I assumed; (c) it can be used just to mark the status of the proposition and my relation to it But thats just an assumption!
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Which I for one have not defended, and would not defend, but @Andrew M has said some things along those lines. I claim only that knowledge entails truth, not that truth is a component of knowledge. Make of that what you will.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
You may of course do as you like, but the rest of us have not invented some special usage for know or for true; Im using them exactly the way everyone I know uses them, this being the population that is also perfectly comfortable saying I could have sworn I knew where I left it, but its not there, so I guess I was wrong.
Here, Ill give you a good one. When I was a kid, I was taught, and I learned, that there are nine planets. That is no longer true, but it was true at the time, because there is a specific body of astronomers who make the official determination of whether a solar object is a planet. In such a case, I might be able to say I used to know that there were 9 planets, but now I know that there are 8. Note that I have made no mistake and have no reason to retract my knowledge claim. But suppose it was a couple weeks before I heard that Pluto had been demoted; during that time I might get into a heated argument with someone I think a fool because he says there are only 8 planets. At this point I will be wrong; I will be in the position of thinking that I know how many planets there are, and I will be wrong about that. Once he points out to me that there was a change in Plutos status, I will readily admit that I thought I knew, but that he was right.
I'm curious about the distinction you're making here. Isn't the above just saying that knowledge entails those conditions (i.e., JTB)?
The claim is that knowledge is a first-class mental state, distinct from belief, not a particular variety of belief. If S knows that p, that also entails that S believes that p, and entails that p, but for all that, believing that p is not a component of knowing that p and neither is p being true. Its Timothy Williamsons knowledge first program, and I find it pretty persuasive, though I havent gotten through all the technical stuff yet. On his account, knowledge has no such components, and cannot be analyzed into, say, justified true belief.
Its a position also associated with Oxford dons of yore like Cook Wilson and H. A. Prichard. For Williamson, its largely a straightforward extension of an externalist approach to mental content.
OK.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I see that there's a lot of literature on the subject. At first glance, a knowledge-first view looks OK to me, but I'm not really clear how it differs (at least operationally) from JTB, since it still seems to hold that knowledge entails those conditions.
Do you have any good links that would clarify the differences?
Given a general principle, after PI §48, that what counts as a simple depends on what one is doing, One must be open to such a reorientation. It's not so much which ir right as which works.
So, on Williamsons account, is truth defined in terms of knowledge?
So how do we make sense of "I know that p but I'm not certain"? If we take knowledge to be justified true belief then surely it is one/some/all of these?
1. I know that p but I have some doubt that p
2. I know that p but I have some doubt that I am justified
3. I know that p but I have some doubt that I believe that p
If we take (1) as an example, how do we make sense of doubting that p?
Or is it the case that even though I can be correct in saying "John knows that p but he is not certain" it would be irrational for John to say "I know that p but I am not certain"? That would seem to make it a Moorean sentence.
.....Methodologically, Williamson (....) defends instead the use of armchair methods to answer substantive questions....
(https://www.rep.routledge.com/articles/biographical/williamson-timothy-1955/v-1/sections/knowledge-first-epistemology)
I like this guy.
Yes, and the hypothetical consists of statements which someone makes, therefore, assumptions. Do you understand that there is a separation between the hypothetical, which states the condition "it is actually raining", or "if it is raining", and the real world? You put these together as "the condition that it is actually raining in the real world". But they don't belong together, and in producing the illusion that they do belong together is where the deception lies. The real condition of the hypothetical is the assumption that it is raining, while what is actually happening in the real world is completely independent from this assumption, unless we account for a person's act of judgement.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
As far as I know, meaning involves intent, what was meant. So in the use of statements such as the above from Andrew M, where the speaker blatantly refuses to recognize the separation between what is said (the hypothetical in this case), and a real world situation represented by what is said, when this separation is pointed out to that person, I cannot conclude anything other than intent to deceive. I suppose the person might simply misunderstand, but why would a person keep insisting on something they have no understanding of?
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Do you recognize that #2, the hypothetical itself "if it is raining, we won't be able to go for a walk", is an assumption, just like #1 consisted of an assumption. It's just more complex. This says nothing about the real life consequences of it actually raining in the real world, it says something about your attitude toward your assumption stated in #1 if you assume that it is raining you will not take a walk.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Neither am I inventing any special usage, "tell the true" is common usage, meaning speak honestly. The problem is in the ambiguity of the terms, not in an individual inventing idiom.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
OK, so you say at one time it was true that Pluto is a planet, and at a later time it is not true that Pluto is a planet, though nothing significant changed in the object itself, there was a change in attitude toward the object. This allows that "Pluto is a planet" was true knowledge, and at the later time, "Pluto is not a planet" is true knowledge.
I go further, and ask the question, what is it about this use of "true", which allows that something which is true at one time, later ends up being not true, without any change to the object itself. And I answer this with, it is the subjective nature of "true", that "true" represents the attitude of the subject, more than anything else, which allows that what is true can change to being what is not true, in this manner. This attitude expressed by "true" is an attitude of honesty.
I think this is right, but there might be limits. There's nothing algorithmic about the phrase "put the kettle on" which somehow forces my brain to understand the request. Someone standing next to the hob at around 4 o'clock and saying "put the cat on" would do the same job, or if they Yoda-like decided to say "the kettle put you on". Id' still get it, despite the weird grammar. But if they said "the sun is bright", I might not think they mean for me to put the kettle on no matter what the contextual clues.
So the question (I think) is whether the language provides certainty or uncertainty in that scenario. Does some expression like "put the kettle on" clue me in to what's going on, or did I know what was going on anyway but an expression like "the sun's bright" would throw me off, make me doubt. My feeling is generally the latter, not the former. It's difficult to see how we could enter a perceptual environment without expectations (perception doesn't really work without expectations, including aural perception - it's a mess without it). So, given we have expectations about what's going to be said, what's expected of us, how all the components of a scene are going to behave, we're simply then in the business of harvesting data from the most pertinent sources to confirm the hypothesis. With speech, we're going to be listening for key words and vocal tones, we're not going to even be taking in the rest of the sentence, it's wasted processing power.
As such, I don't see much of a role for externally specific patterns governing the meaning of speech, it seems a completely superfluous layer of specificity, it's just not required for the job.
No, sorry. Im reading his book, Knowledge and Its Limits.
Theres a whole lot I dont know yet, but my understanding is that a number of problems in epistemology present somewhat differently if you take knowledge seriously. One of the best-known claims of the book is known as E = K, that is, your total evidence is your total knowledge. When it comes to rational belief formation, for instance, it is your knowledge you rely on in deciding what to believe. Theres a similar transformation with assertibility, because we can specify the maxim as Do not assert what you do not know, rather than something about honest belief, evidence, justification, warrant, all that business.
Quoting Banno
Not to my knowledge. I have no idea what Williamsons views on truth are.
Quoting Michael
The cases I was talking about were ones where a subject who does know is unwilling to assert that they know because of their uncertainty; your case starts with I know that p. It is so common as to be unremarkable for people to say, I think I know ... so people evidently do recognize that knowledge and uncertainty about their own state are compatible. People also recognize that the bald claim to know implicates something about their knowledge of their own state of knowing, and can cancel that implication: I know how to fix this at least, I think I do. Your case is a little odd to my ear, but not substantially different from these, I think.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Not sure where youre going with this. As a bit of reasoning, its a little compressed there are a lot of steps between antecedent and consequent, mostly background knowledge, which you could certainly characterize as assumptions. (That if it rains people get wet, that people dont want to get wet, and a dozen others).
Still not sure what point youre making though.
I understand that, but my point is that if one can know that p but not be certain then it should be acceptable to say "I know that p but I am not certain", although prima facie it isn't.
This is much like Moorean sentences. Even though it is possible for it to be raining and for me to believe that it is not raining it isn't acceptable to say "it is raining and I believe that it is not raining."
Perhaps the assertion "I know that p" is implicitly the assertion "I know that p and I am certain" and so the assertion "I know that p but I am not certain" is implicitly the contradictory assertion "I know that p and I am certain but I am not certain"?
Ive written and deleted screens of analysis of your problematic sentence. I doubt you (or anyone else) are all that interested.
Let me ask you this: are you interested in this sentence because you think it tells us something important about knowledge? If so, I doubt it, but youll have to provide more analysis than This sounds wrong. Do you, for instance, think that such a sentence is necessarily false?
Or are you interested in this sentence because it strikes you as a bit peculiar, and youre curious what makes it strike you as peculiar. I think there is no simple answer to that, but Ill point out that saying either I know that 7 x 9 is 63 or I am uncertain that Topeka is the capital of Kansas is already peculiar. Its peculiarity may not bear on its truth-value.
Addendum:
Quoting Michael
The upshot of which was all about assertion. Theres nothing to learn about the nature of belief from Moores paradox.
Just demonstrating the faultiness of Andrew's example.
Quoting Michael
I think this is a sort of self-doubt, a form of skepticism related to one's own beliefs. Sometimes it is acceptable to say, I know that such and such is the case, but I'm not quite ready to accept it. Or something like that. For example, after something really bad happens, and you wake up in the morning and have to remind yourself that it really happened. It's a sudden change in your life, and you know that it's true, but it takes a while to permeate your entire mental capacity, so your old self in its usual habits, is still pushing you to doubt it, though you know it ought not be doubted.
Obviously it is an assumption of the hypothetical that it is raining. But Alice makes no such assumption. She instead forms the justified belief that it is raining because she looked out the window and saw what looked to her to be rain. (Or, for @Srap Tasmaner: in knowledge-first terms, Alice knew that it was raining because she looked out the window and saw that it was raining.)
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Yes, of course. What the hypothetical shows is that knowledge is possible on a JTB view. Alice's belief was justifiable in both hypotheticals even though there was the possibility (from her point of view) that she could be mistaken (as she was in the second hypothetical).
BTW, as a general observation, you and I are, in effect, speaking in two different languages. What makes it especially difficult to translate is that we use the same words to convey very different ideas, such as "know" (which is ordinarily used in a factive sense), "true", "assumption" and I suspect a few others.
And we do not know whether it is raining or not, if knowing requires truth in your sense, despite the assumption of the hypothetical. The hypothetical gives us an assumption, not something about the actual world. So it does not give us truth. My belief is that if we pretend that something said, which says nothing about the real world, actually does say something about the real world, this is deception. Lying is the common form.
Quoting Andrew M
There is no truth though, in the hypothetical, because the hypothetical gives us assumptions, not truth. So there is no truth to Alice's supposed knowledge, just a hypothetical truth.
Quoting Andrew M
There is a lot of ambiguity in these words, and I agree it is a problem.
What I tend to say when Im uncertain is I dont know or I dont know for sure, rather than I do know but Im uncertain.
In my searching around, I found this helpful:
In my view, it has a very Rylean feel to it (e.g., "success" and "try" verbs).
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
It would be interesting to compare that maxim with Grice's maxim of quality (truth).
This has occurred to me. It might be simpler to call a spade a spade here.
An assumption H for the purposes of hypothetical reasoning picks out a set of possible worlds at which H is true. That set may or may not include the actual world. We may or may not know whether it does.
The goal then would be to discharge the hypothetical assumption in a true counterfactual conditional, which may be degenerate in the sense of having an antecedent that is true at the actual world. I understand those are tricky to deal with, but oh well.
For example, the hypothetical assumption Suppose I have lost my copy of Lewis 1973 picks out a set of possible worlds at which I have indeed lost my copy of Lewis 1973. If I determine that in any such world (or only in nearby worlds, or in sufficiently similar worlds, etc., whatever the appropriate restriction is) I would be a miserable cuss, and I would prefer not to be, then I can discharge the assumption by concluding, for example, If I were to lose my copy of Lewis 1973, I would have to replace it.
Pretending is a very interesting subject, but the sorts of hypotheticals were interested in around here are probably best analyzed in the obvious way, as counterfactuals.
(IIRC, Frank Ramsey scratched his head over hypotheticals in a footnote somewhere, suggesting that entertaining a hypothetical was like temporarily adding it to your set of beliefs I always wondered how he imagined we did such a thing.)
Well, if one were to take a Wittgensteinian approach to language then surely the use of the assertion "I know that p but I am not certain" has something to do with the meaning of the proposition "I know that p but I am not certain", and so if there's something problematic about the former then there's something problematic about the latter, and so the claim that one can have knowledge without being certain is problematic.
You accept that we sometimes wrongly attribute knowledge to ourselves and others. Perhaps it's wrong to attribute knowledge when the subject lacks certainty. Getting something right obviously isn't sufficient for knowledge, else any true belief (e.g. a lucky guess) would count as knowledge. Maybe justification isn't a sufficient addition. A justified true belief that lacks certainty might just be a justified guess.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
For example this. Perhaps they didn't know; perhaps they just made a successful justified guess.
In knowledge-first terms, I know it is raining because I already know what it is to be raining.
A precise reduction to the threads original question. I know what is true because I already know what it is to be true. I know what is true because I already know what truth is.
The problem I see with the possible worlds scenario, is that if we assume possible worlds, and we want to assign "actual world" to one of them, then we need some principles to support the "actual world" as distinct from the others. Then, the actual world is a special world, and cannot be one of the possible worlds, because it has that special status which sets it apart as distinct. So if hypotheticals assume "possible worlds", we must maintain that none of these possible worlds is the actual world, because the actual world would necessarily require a separate category, as having the distinction of being unique and different from the set of possible worlds.
So in conclusion, if we are applying "possible worlds", we must maintain that we necessarily do not know whether the set of possible worlds contains a world which accurately describes the actual world, because this would make it distinct from the others, and therefore not one of the others. If we allow that we know one of the possibilities to be actual, this would be a prejudice, and it would support a disguised sort of begging the question, a dishonesty.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
According to the principle described above, the "counterfactual" is completely wrong, in principle. It proposes a possible world in which the actual world is already assumed to be distinct and known as distinct, hence counter to fact. So unless we describe all the details which distinguish the proposed possible world from the actual world, and account for each one of the relevant differences, the proposed counterfactual provides us with nothing valid toward our assumed actual world, and is likely more misleading than anything else. In other words, the usefulness and reliability of the counterfactual is completely dependent on the principles whereby the actual world is related to the counterfactual world.
The "true" option would be to relate the counterfactual only to other possible worlds, and produce conclusion completely in the realm of possibilities, with no reference to anything actual, as explained above. But this removes any usefulness. And to produce usefulness, we'd have to assume an actual world, and then relate each counterfactual world to the actual world. And that's where the problem lies, the prejudice which constitutes any proposed "the actual world".
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Taking this example, in order for it to be useful, you need principles to relate the possible world to an actual world. Otherwise nothing grounds "my copy of Lewis 1973", and "I would be a miserable cuss", etc.. The "true" way to proceed with the hypothetical would be to relate the possible world to an endless number of other possible worlds, you don't have a copy, you have one and you hate it, etc.. Then each aspect of any proposed "actual world" which might be introduced, to narrow the field of possible worlds, would have to be assessed, and valued for 'probability of accuracy', through the application of standards, before any aspects are accepted as true aspects of the actual world. Now, in this scenario, we still fall back on the basic principle of judging the truth and falsity of the propositions. However, the truth of the proposition is judged as a 'probability', rather than bivalence. The whole structure hinges on maintaining the separation between possible worlds and actual world, and enforcing the principle that any aspect of a possible world has only a probability of accurately representing the assumed actual world.
Your argument is that if theres something odd about saying I know that p but I am not certain, then (perhaps) knowledge requires certainty.
Except thats not an argument. From S asserting I know that p, it does not follow that S knows that p; from S asserting I am uncertain, it does not follow that S is uncertain; we cant infer that if S were to assert the problematic sentence then S would have to be in a problematic mental state.
But we can argue directly.
You suspect that S knows that P entails S is certain that P. (No one is claiming the converse.) Thats not implausible; I just dont think theres been any argument for it yet. And I find the contrapositive dubious.
Heres another example, A and B fighting about a book of As that she cant find:
B: I swear, I dont know where it is, I never touched your book!!!
A: I might have left it in the kitchen.
B: Were in the kitchen, and I dont see it, so you left it somewhere else.
A: It would have been in the way when you were bringing in the groceries.
B: Oh. Right. Yes. I put it on your nightstand.
In this case, B flatly denies knowing where the book is. (Note this construction: its knowing-what rather than knowing-that.) As it turns out, B does know where the book is, because B herself put it there. What do we say about Bs certainty in such a case?
B is certain that her mental state is not that of knowing where the book is and shes wrong but were not interested in that. What is Bs certainty with respect to where the book is? B is certain that that location, whatever it is, is not a member of in the kitchen! Still not what we want. (B is probably also convinced that A knows but cant recall or should know where the book is, because she is responsible for its current location, not B.)
We want Bs attitude toward the proposition The book is on As nightstand. This is a proposition that B knows, as it turns out, but cannot at the moment produce. If asked, that might be enough to jog Bs memory, so she might assent to the proposition. Might not. But certainty? Would you say B is certain that the book is on As nightstand?
I suspect certainty that the book is on As nightstand attaches the moment B remembers putting it there. Before that? I dont know.
Maybe your conception of certainty is different from mine, but I always think of it as a more or less fleeting psychological state, so its only in evidence when what youre certain about is present to mind. Thats clearly not the case with knowledge.
Maybe you have a better or a different conception of certainty.
So if I have a stack of boxes and put an X on one of them with a Sharpie, its no longer a box. Cool. Nice job.
Or maybe your argument is that if I have a stack of boxes and a toaster, then the toaster is not a box. That is certainly a stronger argument.
I'm aware that I haven't presented an argument as such. I'm just looking at a potential line of enquiry that may lead us somewhere interesting (or maybe nowhere at all). If you're interested in considering it then I'll repeat and add to something I said earlier.
"I know that p but I'm not certain" presumably means one/some/all of these:
1. I know that p but I have some doubt that I believe that p
2. I know that p but I have some doubt that my belief is justified
3. I know that p but I have some doubt that p
These in turn can be simplified to:
1. I believe that p but I have some doubt that I believe that p
2. My belief that p is justified but I have some doubt that my belief that p is justified
3. p but I have some doubt that p
I'd like to address (3) first. How do we make sense of a claim such as "p but I have some doubt that p"? What does it mean to doubt that p? I suppose we could define it circularly as not being certain that p, but that seems lazy.
In the previous discussion on the matter, I interpreted it as accepting the possibility that not p, and not just in the "there is a possible world where not p" sense. I couldn't really explain it any further than that, although you interpreted it as not knowing that p.
But if "p but I have some doubt that p" means "p but I do not know p" and if "I know that p but I'm not certain" means (sometimes) "I know that p but I have some doubt that p" then "I know that p but I have some doubt that p" means "I know that p but I don't know that p", which is of course a contradiction.
Now, it might very well be that there is a distinction between the assertion "I know that p but I'm not certain" and the proposition "I know that p but I'm not certain" such that the former is the aforementioned contradiction but the latter is not, although I wonder if a Wittgensteinian approach would allow for this distinction. He does spend three pages addressing Moore's paradox (which this seems to be a variation of) in the Philosophical Investigations, but I can't really glean much of an answer to it.
But even if we were to accept a distinction between the assertion and the proposition, it still needs to be explained what "I'm not certain" actually means, as it may very well lead to the same conclusion above; that "I'm not certain" means "I don't know".
And In fact the third-person claim "John knows that p but he is not certain" presumably avoids having to draw a distinction between an assertion and a proposition. Does "John knows that p but is not certain" mean "John knows that p but has some doubt that p", and does this mean "John knows that p but does not know that p"?
And even if it is used, on some occasion, with that intention, what does that tell you?
Ive already presented a case in which someone flatly denies having knowledge that they do in fact have. Its not so odd. (And its another reminder that from someone asserting P, you cant deduce P.) I gave my intuitions about whether and when we should say they are certain. Unless we intend to define certainty or knowledge, thats about all weve got so far. Can we improve that situation? Does certainty at least entail something else we could check for?
Ill give another example: people sometimes downgrade their claims to knowledge for non-epistemic reasons. (Women on this forum are no doubt familiar with this maneuver.) I know the answer! At least, I think I do. I could be wrong. That could be a genuine expression of uncertainty, or a political move. It cant help us explain the connection between knowledge and certainty.
That might be begging the question. They were right, but does it then follow that they knew? It might have simply been a successful guess.
"Oh, I know where the keys are, they're in the cupboard! Wait, they're not here. Oh, I know where they are, they're in the drawer! Here they are!"
We might say that they knew all along, but maybe they didn't. They just happened to be right in the end.
And in fact we could introduce something like a Gettier case here. They were actually in another room, but moments before Jane checked the drawer John found them and put them in the drawer without Jane knowing.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I know but I could be wrong? I was the one saying that last time and you spent days telling me that was nonsense.
(Sorry, couldn't resist)
Well, yes, that's exactly what I'm trying to do. What does "but I'm not certain" actually mean? It might be that when we tease this out we are confronted with the conclusion that "I'm not certain" actually means "I don't know", in which case our initial assumption that we can have knowledge without being certain is mistaken, and that such cases were simply successful guesses (with or without some degree of justification).
It doesnt follow, but it was implicitly stipulated in my scenario. That was the point of having B suddenly remember that she moved the book; A suggested that her book would have been in the way, and B then remembered that it was in the way and she moved it.
Quoting Michael
But here Im talking about what someone might say, not about the fact of their knowing that P being consistent with ~P.
Quoting Michael
But were not just interested in what people mean by what they say.
From Im certain that Trump won, we cant infer that Trump won. We cant infer that you know that Trump won. We cant even infer that you are certain that Trump won. Its a thing you are saying. What it means, what you mean by it, what you mean by saying it, all that might be interesting, but is not the same as addressing the question of whether knowing that P is equivalent to being certain that P, or if theres some other relation or what.
Heres an example, a sort of cartoon version of Hume:
Hume argued directly that reasoning about matters of fact is merely probable. He didnt argue that what people mean when they say I know that ... is I think it highly probable that ... As far as I can tell, he assumed people meant that they know, and he believed that in all such cases they are actually wrong, that what they do know is only that something is probable, not that its fact.
Why not? If "I'm not certain" means "I don't know" then "I know but I'm not certain" means "I know but I don't know" which is, of course, a contradiction. So it doesn't make sense to say "I know but I'm not certain".
And if it doesn't make sense to say "I know but I'm not certain" then it shouldn't make sense to say "I can know without being certain".
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Well, I was never arguing that knowing that p is consistent with ¬p, only that "I know but I might be wrong" can be true, which you appear to have now accepted. I think you just misunderstood what I was saying. But then let's not rehash that old argument.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I wasn't trying to suggest that knowing that p is equivalent to being certain that p. Rather I was trying to see if certainty is a necessary condition, such that if I'm not certain then I don't know (much like if I'm wrong then I don't know).
My reasoning for this is based on my translation of "I know but I'm not certain" which I don't think you've addressed. To repeat:
1. I know that p but I'm not certain, which is:
2. I know that p but I have some doubt that p, which is in part:
3. p but I have some doubt that p, which is:
4. p but I don't know that p, and so (1) is:
5. I know that p but I don't know that p
What's strange here is that I accept that "I am certain" doesn't mean "I know" but it does seem to me that "I am not certain" does mean "I don't know". I suppose ordinary language just isn't always consistent.
She didnt know where it was before being reminded, and after being reminded she had certainty, so Im not sure what the relevance of that argument is.
Unless you want to say that she knew all along, despite not have the relevant justified true belief all along? Where exactly do you stand on the JTB definition?
Yes. I am saying exactly that.
Are you claiming she *discovered* that she herself put A's book on A's nightstand? That she *inferred* it from the evidence of her memory?
Im saying its strange to suggest that she knew that it was on the nightstand at a time that she didnt believe that it was on the nightstand.
Jane knows p but doesnt believe p and Jane knows p but believes ~p strike me as wrong.
What exactly do you think forgetting is? I would say something like the loss of knowledge. I once knew the first 100 decimals places of pi. I dont anymore. I forgot. Jane forgot where she put the book. That she later remembered doesnt change this, does it?
Nevertheless. B knew where the book was, but that knowledge was unavailable to her for the moment. It seems clear that the belief was unavailable as well. In my scenario, I didn't suggest B formed the belief that it was not on A's nightstand, but she might have. She seems to have formed the *incorrect* belief that she never touched the book. Our total knowledge must be consistent, but our total beliefs needn't.
So she believed that it was on the nightstand, but that belief wasnt available to her? That just seems very farfetched.
I think it far more sensible to say that, at the time, she didnt believe that it was on the nightstand, and so didnt know that it was on the nightstand. Further prompting then elicited the memory, and from that spawned the belief and the knowledge.
Jane: Is this my pint or yours?
Michael: Mine
Jane: Are you sure? Pretty sure youre drinking faster than me.
Michael: Yes, youre right, my mistake
Youre saying that at the time that I believed that the pint was mine I knew that the pint was Janes? I knew something that I believed was false?
I should clarify that it wasn't the case that I inferred from her comment that the pint with less beer must be mine; rather her comment prompted me to reconsider and in doing so I explicitly remembered which glass I had been drinking from.
Is every belief you hold present to mind all the time? No. Are all of your beliefs available to you on demand? I don't think so. There's plenty of reason to think we have beliefs that are strictly unavailable to us, that are unconscious. Even for beliefs that are in principle available to us, we sometimes cannot call them to mind. I see nothing farfetched about any of this.
Quoting Michael
"Spawned"?
So B went from (1) a state of knowing that she herself put the book on A's nightstand, to (2) a state of not knowing that, and then, by *remembering* that she did, to (3) a state of knowing again.
So what's up with the memory? Did she, between (1) and (3), have a memory that she put the book on the nightstand while somehow not knowing that she did? Or did she not have the memory while it wasn't present to mind? But she has to have the memory or she can't get from (2) to (3). How do you propose she did that? And what was going on with her between (1) and (3)?
Quoting Michael
Yes. You held, for a moment, a belief that was false and inconsistent with your knowledge. It happens.
From the SEP article on belief:
Maybe we need to make a similar kind of distinction for knowledge; dispositional and occurrent knowledge. I've only been considering occurrent knowledge, whereas you also appear to consider dispositional knowledge.
Yeah there you go.
That is not what I implied at all. The point being that "possible" must be taken ais a value judgement. So to make your analogy accurate, we'd take a bunch of boxes, and assign the same value to each of them, "possible". Then we take one, mark it with an X, and assign to it a special value, "actual". We cannot say that the one with the special value still has the same value as the others.
The difference, which makes your analogy unacceptable, is that the X is not just an X, being a property of the box, as you propose. The X signifies something. And what the X signifies is that the thing has a value unique from the others which all have the same value, therefore it cannot be categorized with the others as having the same value.
Not *only* the same, because it's the one with the x on it, but it's still a box. You forgot to give an argument that putting an x on a box makes it not a box, or that you have to erase "possible" in order to write "actual".
What's odd here is that the complement of possible is impossible. Me, I assumed actuality implied possibility. I'm puzzled why you think actuality implies impossibility.
Meant to reply to this.
The obvious explanation is that S knows that P entails that S is certain that P, in which case S is not certain that P entails that S does not know that P.
You know, there are other things we could say here. I think it's plausible that if and only if S knows that P, then S is entitled to be certain that P. It's like saying that certainty ought to be backed by knowledge. (It's also a way of acknowledging that there is a factive use of "I'm certain" right next door to "I know for certain." Other factive uses pull in knowledge with them, so some uses of "certain" ought to as well.)
I can even imagine there being particular circumstances or situations in which we would say you *ought* to be certain, to be without doubt or reservation. Not sure though. But if we're going to give certainty an epistemic, rather than merely psychological, role, we'll have to consider the sorts of norms that attach to knowledge at some point.
:100:
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
We don't know with deductive certainty. But that's not the relevant or appropriate standard. The relevant standard is to look out the window and see whether it's raining.
As Gilbert Ryle puts it:
Much earlier in this thread (I think it was this thread) I purported to draw a distinction between being certain and feeling certain, My thinking was that if knowledge is thought of as being JTB, then if I am justified in my belief, then my belief must be certain, and I said this because a justification must be true (that is truly a justification) or else how could we say that it counts as a justification? But then how can we know that a belief is justified, or on this view the same thing, certain?
In answer to that we might say that justification is a matter of feeling certain because I have ticked the conventional boxes when it comes to "having no good reason to doubt" or something like that, But then I could not be justified without feeling certain that I am justified, which doesn't see to allow for cases where I am justified in that sense of "having no good reason to doubt" but nonetheless do not feel justified. There doesn't seem to be any way to arrive at a clear conception of just what it is that constitutes justification.
Since all of this seems unsatisfactory, then perhaps that invokes the possibility that JTB is not a good formulation of what constitutes knowledge after all.
Quoting Mww
I should probably say something here. Williamson argues that there are several factive verbs (see, remember, regret, and so on) and that know is the most general factive verb, so every instance of one the others also entails knowing. Entails is not quite right though; its that any factive instance of one of the others is necessarily also an instance of knowing.
The gist of which is that if I see that it is raining, I also thereby know that it is raining. If I remember that I have an appointment, then I thereby also know that I have an appointment.
You could nearly say that remembering, perceiving, regretting, and so on, are particular ways of knowing.
Insofar as the point being made by @Mww is about our conceptual apparatus and its role in our mental acts, Ive got nothing helpful to say about that.
Quoting Mww
On this sort of thing, I could say that the old argument, from Cook Wilson, against any analysis of knowledge, was that there is no non-circular way to carry out such an analysis. Insofar as think about things, were stuck with relying on what we know and that we know it. Williamson takes a rather different route.
Btw, I believe I read somewhere that Ryle once described himself as an old-fashioned Cook-Wilsonian.
The problem is that you have no argument for me to address, your analogy does not relate. Look at it this way. I'm not saying the actual world is no longer a world. It's still a world just like the box with the X is still a box. The X signifies that the box is not in the same category as the unmarked boxes, just like "actual" signifies that the world is not in the same category as the possible worlds. In other words, putting an X on the box separates it from all the rest, in a way which gives it a unique status so that it is no longer an unmarked box, like the others. Likewise, designating one world as "actual" gives it a unique status so that it is not one of the others, the possible worlds.
You cannot have your cake and eat it too, unless you employ ambiguity and equivocation. Try this way of looking at it. Suppose "possible world" means that if we identify all the possible worlds, one of the possible worlds must be the actual world. That is, we assume such a thing as the actual world, and we assume we've identified all the possible worlds, so necessarily one of the possible worlds is the actual world. Then we proceed to identify one of the possibilities as the actual world, the real world. As soon as we do this, we negate the defined status of "possible" from all the other worlds. They can no longer be the actual world, because we've identified the actual world and it's something else. Since we've named one as "actual", the others can no longer be classed as "possible", without changing the original definition of "possible".
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I never used "impossible", you are putting words in my mouth;
But actuality does not imply possibility. Check your categories. Actual and possible are distinct categories. What is actual is what is, and opposed to this is is not. "Is" and "is not" are of the same category, being. What is possible is what may or may not be, and that is a distinct category from being. Because possibility, by this definition, violates the law of excluded middle, it has no opposite. So the common use of "impossible" places it as outside the category of "possible", as not within the realm of what is possible. This is not to say that it is the opposite to possible, because there is no opposite to may or may not be.
It is a common misunderstanding to think that impossible is the opposite of possible. Consider the example above. When the actual world is identified, all the other proposed worlds must be removed from the category of possible (by that definition), because now it is impossible that any of them is the actual world. But this is not the opposite, of possible, as possibility has been removed by designating an actual. Impossible therefore, is the opposite of actual.
Quoting Andrew M
But this is just going around in a vicious circle. The example says that someone might be hosing the window. So according to the example, looking out the window doesn't give us the certainty required to know whether it is raining.
Jolly, then its just semantics.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Fine. Its not my usual usage, but if you want to reserve possible for non-actual, it makes no real difference. It makes world carry a little more of the burden, but thats also fine.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Yes, I was. But I can adapt to your usage. All I need to say, using your terminology, is that the actual world is a world. Done. In my usage, if the actual world is not a member of the class of possible worlds, its a member of the complement, which would be the class of impossible worlds if there are any such things, depending on the accessibility relation.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
I have no need for impossible worlds, so thats that.
*
I can now rephrase my account of hypotheticals for you.
An assumption H, for the purposes of hypothetical reasoning, picks out a set of worlds at which H is true. The actual world may be such a world. (The set of all worlds at which the Allies won World War II includes this world and quite a few others where the course of history was slightly or largely different, but the good guys still won.)
The goal of hypothetical reasoning is to discharge the initiating assumption by means of a true counterfactual conditional, meaning that at all accessible H-worlds, the consequent of the counterfactual conditional is also true, with the usual fudging of the accessibility relation. Standard stuff. (Its just no P without Q with a necessity operator that acts as a restricted universal quantifier over worlds, and the terms of the restriction depend very much on what youre doing. For our purposes, its usually going to be more restrictive than logical or physical necessity but not so restrictive that we shrink our set to the actual world.)
All good?
"Possible" is not defined as non-actual, it is defined as what may or may not be. And, since actual is defined as what is, it is a logical conclusion that the possible is non-actual. it is impossible that something which is said to be possible, could also be said to be actual, without logical incoherency, inconsistency. The proposition that X may or may not be (is possible), is inconsistent with the proposition that X is (is actual).
This is the issue discussed earlier in the thread, with the number of coins, prior to the count. Prior to the count, the true proposition is "it is possible that there is 66 coins in the jar". After the count, the true proposition is "there is actually 66 coins in the jar", because they've been counted. But we cannot turn around and say that there was actually 66 coins in the jar, prior to counting, because the true proposition at this time was that it is possible that there is 66 coins in the jar. And to say of what may or may not be, that it is also at the same time, what is the case, is incoherent. And this is, at the same time, the time prior to the count, but just from different temporal perspectives.
In modal logic "possible" is defined as "not necessarily not": ?p ? ¬?¬p. Therefore if something is true then it is possibly true: p ? ?p.
I don't understand your use of "complement". You need to explain how there is a "complement" to "possible". As I said, there is no opposite to "possible". And to use "impossible" as the opposite to "possible" is to stray from the definition "what may or may not be". What "impossible" means is outside this category, not a member of "what may or may not be", and this is completely distinct from opposite to, and what I believe is your meaning of "complement."
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
You have a double layer of actuality here which needs to be clarified. First, H is true, or actual, in a set of worlds. Then, "the actual world" is one of these worlds. If we assume that the set of worlds is possible worlds, then we cannot say that H is true in these worlds, because "possible world", as "may or may not be" excludes truth. Since you say H is true in these worlds, then I conclude they are all actual worlds, and you have given no possible worlds.
Perhaps you need to define "true".
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
No, very bad.
Quoting Michael
Obviously, this is the problem, we are working on a different definitions of "possible". I define it as what may or may not be, consistent with common use. You define it as "not necessary". Your definition is a problem, because not only is modal logic working with a sense of "possibility" which is completely inconsistent with common use, but your definition is completely circular, leaving modal logic irrelevant to the real world.
You defined "possible" relative to "necessary", and "necessary" relative to "possible worlds". Therefore you have no real grounding to either of these terms, they simply exist and are used relative to each other, having no real meaning. This is why, as I explained earlier, we always need to establish a relationship between the possible worlds, and the actual world in any such application.
This relationship restricts the set of possible worlds, through the determination of "what may or may not be", which is derived from a determination of what is necessary, according to a judgement of the real world. In application, we determine what is necessary through judgement of what is assumed to be the actual world, and from this is created a set of possible worlds. So "possible" then is grounded in what may or may not be, in relation to an assumed real world.
When I say "the book is possibly in my room" I'm not saying "the book isn't actually in my room".
Otherwise telling you where something might be is telling you where not to look.
Your position doesn't appear consistent with common use.
Cool part about watching these discussions is the pleasure of finding finding things out (tip of the pointy hat to Feynman). To wit: I never heard of fractive verbs. Is there any verb that isnt fractive? How would One become apparent to me? And.....what benefit in them is there for me?
-
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Then dont analyze it. Rather, call it an end, and analyze the means. Nevertheless, circularity is a given, recognized as such, like....forever. At the end of the day, though, it is reducible to the very nature of the investigating beast, and therefore inescapable when the investigative program (the finding out of things) undertaken by him, exceeds its warrant.
I use a different definition, but the ends are the same. Possibility is merely one of the ways to think about things; a thing is possible or that thing is impossible, but that does not make the conceptions themselves opposites. All they do is condition the thought of the thing. Just as cause is not the opposite of effect; just as necessary is not the opposite of contingent.
On the other hand, I would agree they are complimentary, in that if one is given, the other follows immediately from it.
My two cents .....which I had to borrow, by the way.
Sorry couldnt resist the opportunity to sic you. Its factive. Fractive sounds cool though. I wonder what it will turn out to mean. Maybe something related to fractious.
Yes of course there are non-factive verbs, and verbs used in both ways. Earlier I gave a rewrite rule that I think captures the difference. For a proposition P and an attitude ?, if
(A) S ?s P
can be rewritten, without changing its truth-value, as
(F) P, and S ?s that
then ? is factive.
Obvious example is believes vs knows:
(1) Joe knows 7 x 6 is 42 ? 7 x 6 is 42, and Joe knows that
(2) Joe believes 7 x 6 is 44 ? 7 x 6 is 44, and Joe believes that
(1) is true and (2) is false.
+++ Correction +++
This is just wrong, for a couple reasons.
The right way to say this is the usual way:
? is factive if and only if S ?s P entails that P.
++++++
Its related to the de dicto/de re distinction, and the two sorts of readings of Joe is looking for a spy (I think the example is Quines):
(3) There is a spy, and Joe is looking for it. ?x(x is a spy & Joe seeks x)
(4) Joe is looking for something that is a spy. ?x(x is a spy ? Joe seeks x)
It matters that ? doesnt have existential import: there may be no spy for Joe to find.
I think the upshot here is that a propositional attitude report is factive if it has the same truth-value as its de re reading.
+++ Correction +++
This is also questionable. Not sure what got into me this morning. Maybe I'll take some time and figure out how this stuff does relate.
++++++
Quoting Mww
If I know that P, then it follows that P. Thats helpful for you, because it means you can learn about the state of the world from my reports of what I know, without having to go see for yourself. If you dont know, your only option is reasonable belief. But whose testimony is more valuable to you: someone you believe knows whether the dam has broken; or someone you believe thinks it has or hasnt?
Quoting Mww
So if I have a stack of boxes, and I'm going to mark one of them with an X, then it is true of each of the boxes that it may or may not be the one I'm going to mark. Once I have marked a box, it is no longer true of any of the boxes that it may or not be the one that I'm going to mark: it is true of one that I have marked it and of the others that I have not, and that's it.
As a temporal sort of modality, that seems fine. Once I have marked a box, would either of you say that it is true of each of the other boxes that, though it is not the box I marked, it might have been the one that I marked? If actuality is the closing off possible futures, can we not imaginatively consider an early time at which the actual present was only a possible future, one among many?
Above I spoke hypothetically of having a stack of boxes one of which I intended to mark. How do you conceptualize what we are doing when we reason in this way? Am I talking about a possible future in which I do have a stack of boxes?
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Helpful, I suppose. If your P is the bridge is out, and the bridge is out....might be helpful fo me to know that iff Im on the road the bridge is out of. If Im not even driving....your P tells me about a state of the world for which I have no interest, hence is not helpful.
But I get the point.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Intention alone cannot afford an determined end, that isnt a potential post hoc ergo proper hoc logical subterfuge, yet herein were providing an exercise for imagination, which can. What we should be doing, so says this armchair (which after all these years has earned the right to speak for itself).......mark a box or dont, leaving intention out of it, or on the other......intend to mark a box, leaving a marked box out of it.
As stated, I cant conceptualize what we doing, insofar as it appears were operating under two separate and distinct conditions forced somehow into relating to each other.
Not deductive certainty, certainly. In the window hosing scenario, Alice would need to look again, or more carefully. But that doesn't preclude her from having knowledge when it is raining, as long as she does look.
From the earlier Gilbert Ryle quote: "All it requires is what familiar facts provide, namely that observational mistakes, like any others, are detectable and corrigible; so no empirical fact which has in fact been missed by a lapse, need be missed by an endless series of lapses."
On factive verbs, or, ordinary language use gone irredeemably haywire:
we believe every foot deserves a comfortable pair of shoes
....says so, right on the door into the self-proclaimed oldest shoe store in America, opening in 1832 in Belfast Maine.
What can ya do, huh?
Yes, that's right.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
@Mww's comment reminded me of your earlier comment on a priori and a posteriori.
That is, we already know what it is to be raining. When we look outside and see that it's raining, we are identifying what we see with our idea of what it is to be raining, and labelling it accordingly.
Similarly, we already know what it is to know something, the rain scenario being a typical example.
From there, we can think of ways that someone can fail to know something, say, because they haven't looked out the window. In that case, we suppose it's nonetheless raining or not (just as to count the coins in the jar entails a prior number), so we use the terms "true" and "false" to register that idea ("to say of what is that it is ..."). They may then go on to discover the truth of the matter ... by looking out the window. [*]
So knowledge is the intended target, with truth defined in terms of it. (@Banno) From Williamson:
--
[*] Where discover is yet another factive verb. It's easy to see how the acceptance or rejection of factivity leads people in philosophical threads to literally talk past each other.
Factive, fractive, fictive ... ;-)
factive
/?fakt?v/
adjective LINGUISTICS
denoting a verb that assigns the status of an established fact to its object (normally a clausal object), e.g. know, regret, resent.
Spellchecker. Thats my story and Im sticking to it.
As I said, the two (possible and actual) are not opposed to each other. But obviously, saying "the book is possibly in my room", is to say something completely different from saying "the book is actually in my room". I think you'll agree that these two each say something distinct. And what I am saying is that the two beliefs expressed with these sayings are not consistent with one another. If you believe the book is possibly in your room, you do not believe that it is actually in your room. And if you believe that it is actually in your room you do not believe that it is possibly there.
To assert that the book is possibly in your room when you beilieve that it is actually in your room is to be dishonest. And, to assert that it is actually in your room when you think that it is possibly in your room, is to be dishonest. That these are instances of dishonesty indicates that the two are incompatible with each other.
I admit that there is a way to formulate things, so that we say that one of the possibilities is what is actually the case (one of the possible numbers is the actual number of coins in the jar). But as I explained earlier, this is just based in the assumption that one might be determined to be the actual. It doesn't mean that one already is the actual, because that would be deceptive. They must all be equally possible, and when one is determined as the actual, then all the rest lose their status of "possible", and therefore become impossible. So no matter how you look at it, one cannot be the actual while the rest are possible. They must be all possible without an actual, or one actual and the rest impossible.
Quoting Michael
In common use, telling me where something might be, is completely different from telling me where it is. And if you know where it is, and I ask you, and you tell me "I don't know where it is, but I know where it might be", you are being dishonest. Likewise, if you don't know where it is, but know where it might be, and you tell me you know where it is, you are being dishonest. Clearly, it is your position which is not consistent with normal usage. Common usage demonstrates a healthy respect for the difference between what is actually the case, and what is possibly the case. And we do not mix these two up, to say that we think something is possibly the case, when we believe that it is actually the case, or vice versa.
Quoting Mww
But the issue is the relationship between what is possible and what is actual, and the fact that one is not a special case of the other, such that the actual would be one of the possible. What we believe as "actual", is what is, of necessity, and therefore not one of the possible. But being not one of the possible in no way implies that the actual, or necessary, is impossible.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I think this is the common misconception of free will, which leads to all sorts of problems. After you have marked the box, engaged in the free will act, we cannot, from that temporal perspective, say that you might have marked a different box. From that temporal perspective, after the fact, it is impossible that you might have done otherwise. You did what you did, and at this time it is impossible that it might be otherwise. And this misconception (straw man), that if you had free will, you might have done otherwise, when you really can't because what's done is done. gives fodder to the determinist argument, . However, this does not change the fact that prior to the act you have many choices, and there are many possibilities for boxes which you might mark. So free will is very real from this perspective, despite the fact that you cannot have dome other than what you did. What this indicates, is that the two distinct temporal perspectives, prior to an act, and posterior to an act, are very different perspectives.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I would say that this is simply imagination. However, I would also say that imagination is closely related to the way that we anticipate the future. The principal difference being that we anticipate the future in a way which is grounded in the reality of the past, so it is a disciplined imagination, but we may allow our free imaginations to escape this grounding in an undisciplined sense.
What you said was:
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
This is false. That the book is possibly in my room isn't that the book is not actually in my room.
You are not adhering to the definitions Michael. "Possible" refers to what may or may not be. "Actual" refers to what is and is not. If you say that the book is possibly in your room, then you are saying that it may or may not be in your room. This is logically distinct from saying that it actually is in your room, or actually is not, according to the definitions. Therefore the conclusion I stated is sound.
I have no doubt that there is much common usage which is represented by your examples. People say that if there is a multitude of possibilities as to how many coins are in the jar, one of these possibilities is the actual number. And, people also say that if the book is actually in your room, then that it may or may not be in your room is true. But the issue is, whether speaking like this is correct. And I use "correct" here in the sense of what we ought to do, rather than in the sense of what is common practise. Sometimes habits of common practise are not what we ought to be doing.
As I explained above, this habit you describe is the manifestation of a sort of dishonesty. When you say "the book is possibly in my room", this would be a dishonest statement if you believed that the book is actually in your room. Therefore the belief represented as "the book is possibly in my room" excludes as inconsistent with, the belief represented as "the book is actually in my room", in an honest discussion of whether or not the book is in the room. What "the book is possibly in my room" means is distinct from, and excludes as inconsistent with, what "the book is actually in my room" means.
Furthermore, if in the instance of the coins in the jar, we allow that one of the possibilities is the actual (what is actually the case), then all the others must be designated as impossible. Therefore, it should be very clear to you, that if we allow that one of the possibilities is what is actual, this would negate the status of "possible" from all the others. So to correctly maintain the status of "possible", in an honest way, we must not allow the idea that any one of the possibilities is the actual, thereby maintaining the categorical separation between possible and actual. Allowing the separation to be closed contaminates the idea or concept of "possible", in the minds of each of us, rendering us susceptible to deception through that type of usage which has a dishonest base. (I'm trying to appease Srap by not calling your particular use dishonest, rather saying that this type of usage has a dishonest base).
Not it isn't.
There's a difference between saying "possible" doesn't mean "actual" and saying "possible" means "not actual".
You asserted the latter, which is false.
You misquoted me. I said "non-actual". I suggest you read my post before replying. Your rapid response indicates a strong probability that you did not allow yourself to understand it.
So what's the difference between "not actual" and "non-actual"? What's the difference between "not human" and "non-human"?
That aside, either if something is possible then it isn't actual or something can be both possible and actual. So which is it?
1.) considering real objects, and 2.) confining the possible to what may be, and 3.) what may not be and belief both being utterly irrelevant.....
Aristotle says so...that which exists, exists necessarily. That which exists cannot not exist.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Kant says no....That which exists is in the sum of the possible. The sum of the real, the actual, cannot exceed the sum of the possible, therefore is contained by it.
Youre correct in a way...the actual ascends from the sum of the possible, therefore is contained in the sum of the real. Even if the particular real is no longer listed in the merely possible, it remains a member of the modal class of logical categories. It just switches over to the necessary.
The schema of necessity is existence in all time, the schema of possibility is existence in any time, the schema of the real is existence in a determined time.
You know....for clarity.
That is explained in the post. Iif you will take the time to read it, you can ask me what you do not understand. Depending on what you mean by "not actual", "possible" does mean "not actual". This is because the two concepts are mutually exclusive, inconsistent with one another, such that if something is truthfully said to be possible, it cannot at the same time be truthfully said to be actual. That's what I explained to say one when you believe the other, is to be dishonest.
Quoting Michael
The former, as I explained, and described how this is a logical conclusion derived from the definitions. You can go back and read the posts if you want to understand why this is necessarily the case.
Quoting Mww
The idea that the possible can be summed can be shown to be incoherent, because the possible can be assumed to be infinite. So it is also incoherent to say "that which exists is the sum of the possible", or to speak about "the sum of the possible" in any way.
Having said that, the actual, as we know it, is definitely contained, and it may be the case that it is contained by the possible. But if there is a limit to the possible (a sum of the possible), then the limiting thing must be some sort of actuality. This is a sort of version of Aristotle's cosmological argument, where he demonstrates that in an absolute sense, the actual must be prior in time to the possible. It just isn't the same sort of actuality which is known to us, as this sort is contingent actualities, and these are preceded in time by the necessary possibility. It's a special type of actuality known by theologians.
This says {x: x is possible} is a subset of {x: x is not actual}. What's in the rest? What is neither possible nor actual? (Asking for a friend.)
I don't know, to be honest. We always describe things through terms of actuality, what a thing is. So possibility, being not actual, must be something other than this, something which does not submit to description. I believe this makes it impossible to say what "possible" is a subset of, because that would be assigning it some sort of actuality. Therefore, I believe that "possible" must be understood in ways other than descriptive ways. The best way, I think, is with reference to time. Like I said before, prior to the free will act, the act is a possibility. After the act it is an actuality. So possibility is likely some sort of feature of time. And, since the concept of "time" in the way I spoke of it here, encompasses both possible and actual, then we can say that it is neither possible nor actual, but both.
Whats incoherent in the successive accumulation of the real? When the accumulation is the content of the possible, the quantity is irrelevant. It is whatever it is.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Agreed. That in quotation marks and taken from my comment, indicates I said it. But I didnt. I said that which exists is in the sum of the possible.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Agreed. The entire human system of experience is predicated on perception, which makes the real temporally antecedent to the experience of it.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Agreed. The real of perception isnt known at all, insofar as that real thing, whatever it may be, has yet to be subjected to the system that determines how it is to be known.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Yes, it is merely a given real something, and is contingent on the system for its identity.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Aristotle restricted it to theologians, but since then, its been opened up to every human subject, in accordance with a specific metaphysical theory. On the other hand....what was a theologian for Aristotle, compared to a theologian for us? If the concept changed over time, then probably the applicability changed along with it. Dunno......
When you are talking about "the sum", quantity is not irrelevant. And, a successive accumulation without end, does not produce a sum.
Quoting Mww
Sorry, my mistake. Regardless, it is "the sum of the possible" which is incoherent.
A lot of what we want to say using the alethic modalities clearly does have to do with time, and we do readily make these identifications, future = possible, present = actual, past = necessary. But to say that the future is as yet undetermined, for instance, or that we cannot change the past, if those are to be substantive claims, have to mean something besides the future is future and the past is past. What underwrites that understanding of the temporal modalities?
I think we can say more, and the way to say more is to turn to mathematics, from which time has been deliberately excluded. See what you still have without time. What we find is that there are ways to make issues we are familiar with most often in temporal terms tractable for reason in non-temporal terms.
I would have thought the opposite to "may or may not be" was "must or must not be".
If what is actual is not (also) what is possible, then what is actual is (also) what is necessary.
If what is actual is (also) what is necessary, then this precludes free will.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
So you're saying that if the book is possibly in my room then it isn't actually in my room, and so if I tell you that the book is possibly in my room then you know to not look in my room.
Clearly this is opposed to common use.
I think what underwrites these modalities is experience. But it isn't direct experience, like we tend to say that sensation is experience, it's more like an analysis of what constitutes experience. This is a philosophical approach to experience. So it is a philosophical activity of the human being, which reflects on its own living experience, recognizing that experience is complex rather than simple, and seeing the need to break it down into its constituent parts.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
To simplify the complex by ignoring the difference between the distinct parts which make it complex, is to produce misunderstanding.
Quoting Luke
I don't' think this would be a proper expression. I believe it is very similar to the mistake which Michael was making, when you try to oppose possible with necessary. The problem is that when we turn to the temporal nature of reality, what is, is what is necessary. And what is, is in the same category as what is not, as its opposite. Now we would have two very distinct opposites of "necessary", what is possible, and what is not.
So if we accept your proposition, "necessary" becomes very ambiguous. There is the "necessary" which is opposed to "what is not", related to empirical description, and there is the "necessary" which is opposed to "possible", related by your definition, as a proposition for logical proceedings. These two senses of "necessary" are very different, yet very difficult to distinguish.
The issue is that opposites are members of the same category, hot and cold, big and small, positive and negative, etc.. But in a philosophical examination of reality, we find that we need to allow for the reality of things which have no opposite. These are the categories themselves, heat, and size, for example. They have no opposite. And, we've come to know, through experience, that the categories provide the potential (possibility) for actual description. They've been given this name.
But even in the description I just provided, "possible" might be understood as a further category, the category of categories. But this type of description is how the problem of sophistry which Socrates and Plato exposed arises. If we understand this as a category of categories, then this category of categories must be the same as the other categories, being a itself category. Then we want to make sure it is like the other categories, for the purpose of deductive logic, and we represent it as consisting of opposing extremes for the purpose of description. The category of categories is then a category. But it's unsound.
So you would propose that we oppose "what may or may not be" with "what must or must not be", thereby opposing "possible" with "necessary", so that we have an unsound category of "the possible" allowing the possible to be described for the purpose of deductive logic. But all this does is defeat the purpose of putting "possible" outside the categories of logic, thus rendering the reality of possibility impossible to understand through this faulty definition. At the same time, you produce a fictitious, or completely imaginary conception of "the possible", which is totally misleading.
Quoting Luke
Yes, this is exactly the problem with defining "possible" like you propose, which I explain above. It renders "necessary" as extremely ambiguous and misleading.
Quoting Michael
To the contrary, it is exactly consistent with honest use. When you say that the book is possibly in your room, you imply that the book may be elsewhere. When you say that the book is actually in your room, you imply that it is not elsewhere. So when you say that it is possibly in your room I must decide whether to look there or elsewhere. or how long I should spend searching your room, etc.. But when you say it is actually in your room, no such decisions are required.
This is why it would be deception for you to say that the book is possibly in your room when you believed that it is actually in your room. These two beliefs are inconsistent with each other. So you would be misleading me by telling me something inconsistent with what you honestly believed. Therefore if you continue to insist that this is common usage, I will insist that you commonly deceive.
Said Pilate who wouldn't stay for the answer. Come on, jump in! Or is it a little too frigid for you?
But I'm not implying that the book isn't actually in my room.
Ehhhhh.....I dont have a problem with it. The notion of adding to the totality of the possible is quite absurd, from which I can deduce the sum of the possible is given.
Right. That's the problem I'm pointing out to you, which results from your claim that what is actual is not also what is possible.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
I never claimed that "necessary" is the opposite of what is not.
I could equally say that we have two very distinct opposites of "possible" with your claim: what is impossible and what is. However, if I recall correctly, you made the absurd claim earlier that "possible" is not the opposite of "impossible".
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Then you have likewise rendered "possible" as extremely ambiguous and misleading.
What you don't seem to understand MIchael, is that whether or not the book is actually in your room is completely irrelevant here. These statements have nothing to do with whether or not the book is actually in your room, because you could be lying, mistaken, creating a fiction, whatever. The statement refers to what you think, what you believe. And, by stating that the book is possibly in your room, you are implying that you do not believe that the book is actually in your room. "The book is possibly in my room" represents a belief distinct from that represented by "the book is actually in my room. And the one is inconsistent with the other.
If you honestly state that the book is possibly in your room, you imply that you do not honestly believe that it is actually in your room. Therefore your statement "the book is possibly in my room", implies that you do not think that the book is actually in your room. If you belief that the book is actually in your room, and you state that it is possibly in your room, you are being dishonest in your statement. Whether or not the book is actually in the room, or possibly in the room (whatever that might mean independent of belief), is completely irrelevant, so there is no point for you to keep bringing this up. It's just a distraction. We need to focus on the beliefs represented by the statements.
Quoting Luke
That's right, imposible ought not be considered as opposite to possible, because it leads to the ambiguity of "necessary" which I described and you don't seem to understand.
Quoting Luke
Yes, "possible" is extremely ambiguous and misleading. But it has been this way for a long time, so it is not I who has rendered it thus.
It's a conversational implicature, that's all. To say "It might be in my room" suggests that you don't know where it is. A good paraphrase is "The book is, for all I know, in my room." This is an epistemic modality, and all it says is that the book being in your room is consistent with your total knowledge. Obviously if you know it's in your room, its being there is consistent with what you know! And that's the thing about the implicature: it suggests that you don't know, but your knowing doesn't make what you said false.
But we don't have to be talking about what people know, what they say, what's implied by what they say, and all that. None of that is implied or relevant if the modality is alethic. Considering only physics and geometry, for example, we might say truly that it is possible for any normal-sized book to be in your room, including this one, and impossible for any normal-sized (non-toy) semi-truck to be in your room. There's reliance here on what we know about physics and geometry, but no one's knowledge of the location any book or truck is in play.
It wouldn't hurt to distinguish the epistemic and alethic modalities now and then.
That's a pretty good explanation. Put simply "the book is in my room" implies that I know where the book is. "The book is possibly in my room" implies that I do not know where the book is. That's why the two are inconsistent with each other.
You just have to be careful about this. Given
(1) The book is possibly in my room.
(2) I do not know where the book is.
It is not the case that (1) entails (2). It just doesn't. But conversationally, we take an utterance of (1) to implicate a commitment to (2). And that commitment is purely conversational; you do not contradict yourself if you say, "Well, it might be in my room as a matter of fact I know that it is."
There's no more a contradiction here than there is in Mitch Hedberg's joke, "I used to do drugs. I still do, but I used to too." Implicature is not entailment; that's the whole point. (To belabor the point: "used to" suggests that you've stopped, but it doesn't mean that or entail that; it's just an inference we tend to make when someone says it, and an inference we're expected to make. If any of this were different, Mitch would not have a joke here.)
And that's another reason that approaching all philosophical problems in terms of what people say or can't say is so misleading; there are other rules than logic at work in what people say to each other and what it will be taken to mean.
"Possible" is the opposite of "impossible". It is absurd to deny it. Whatever ambiguous meaning of "necessary" you think results from this makes no difference to the fact. You do not get to personally decide the meanings of these words.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
So if I consider "possible" as the opposite of "impossible", then I have gone awry in my thinking because it leads to ambiguous consequences for the meaning of the word "necessary", but the word "possible" was always ambiguous and not because you've gone awry in your thinking? This is just nonsense.
If you think that what is actual is not also what is possible, then what is actual must also be what is necessary. Consequently, free will is an illusion.
Seems to me that we're perfectly capable of understanding what sorts of thoughts are exclusive to humans and what sorts are not.
It would make no sense to say that a parrot danced as a way of showing its appreciation for the aesthetic beauty of a particular song unless it had personal taste regarding music. It would make no sense to say that my cat is jealous of the way my other cat looks unless she had a beauty standard for her to even be bitter about because it is one that she feels she has failed to meet whereas she feels her roommate has succeeded.
The gecko on my outdoor table was not thankful to me for leaving bits of butter mochi and juice for it - and could not possibly be - without having a meaningful sense of gratitude. The pheasants in my yard cannot respect the individuality of each other simply for the sake of doing so unless they have some socially derived moral/ethical sense of respecting the individuality of others simply for the sake of doing so. The male peacock does not have all his hopes and dreams wrapped up in successfully 'courting' females unless he has thought and belief(hopes and dreams) about what has yet to have happened(the future).
In principle, thoughts exclusive to humans would be(consist of) correlations including written language use. In practice, we do not attribute such thought to non human creatures.
You seem to think I have disagreed with this. The only thing I have any issue with is the "humans". I think it should be "language capable beings". Yes, of course we can say that only language capable beings can have linguistically mediated thoughts. It's analytically and trivially (insofar as it doesn't really tell us anything) true.
No it isn't. It's the only thing that's relevant. We're concenred with truth, not belief.
Whether or not the book is actually in my room has nothing to do with what I believe. I don't know where the book is so I say "the book is possibly in my room", but as a matter of fact, distinct from my belief, the book is actually in my room.
The book doesn't just cease to exist, or fail to have a location, simply because I don't know where it is.
Not sure if it matters in this instance. Whether we're considering epistemic or alethic modality, if something is true then it is possible.
Interesting. What other rules might those be?
Exactly, and this exemplifies how commonly accepted principles of logic fail us, and can easily be used to deceive. Honestly, (1) does entail (2), as I've explained. If I honestly say the book is possibly in my room, this implies that I do not know where the book is. And if I use that statement when I know where the book is, I would be most likely engaged in deception (or possibly a guessing game).
So, if we define truth with honesty, then we can see that logic strays from truth in this example. Commonly accepted principles of logic allow that "the book is actually in my room", and "the book is possibly in my room", might both be true at the same time, when in reality this represents a sort of dishonesty.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
But I didn't say the problem is contradiction. That's the point it's not contradiction, which involves opposition, I said it was an inconsistency because opposition is not involved, incompatibility is involved. Contradiction is to affirm is and is not of the same predicate. In this case, the issue is that "possibility" as what may or may not be, naturally violates the law of excluded middle, that's how it is defined. Then, in MIchael's examples, a relationship between what actually is (what is consistent with the law of excluded middle), and what possibly is (what is not consistent with the law of excluded middle) is proposed. This proposal creates the inconsistency which is evident from the dishonesty exemplified.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Again, this is exactly the issue here. General rules for communication are based in honesty. Honesty is a requirement for communion. However, logic is not based in communion, being more like strategy, so it does not have this requirement. As evident from forms like mathematics, logic is fundamentally imaginary and the rules which become conventional are the ones which prove to be useful. Usefulness and honesty are sometimes inconsistent with each other, as demonstrated by the reality of deception, and so the rules of logic may become inconsistent with the rules of communication.
The inconsistency we've exposed demonstrates two very distinct ways of conceiving the relationship between possible and actual. One way is based in the rules of honest communication, what I call truth, the other way is based in the logical rules of usefulness.
Quoting Luke
You obviously have not given any thought to what you are saying here. You just take it for granted that possible opposes impossible, as you claimed, "may or may not be" opposes "must or must not be", and you keep asserting this. I suggest you go back and read the post I made in reply to this proposition, exposing the problem with this assumption, and if you have any specific issue with what I said, you can bring it up with me. To reiterate what I said very succinctly, what is "possible" (as what may or may not be), must be outside the category of what is "necessary" (as what must or must not be) rather than opposed to it because if "possible" is opposed with "necessary" this places them in the same category. Placing "possible" in the same category as "necessary", or "impossible" (as a special form of necessary), leaves the true nature of "possible" as impossible to understand. In other words, it is a misrepresentation of "possible" which is not consistent with the truth about "possible".
Quoting Luke
Why not? This is how we proceed with logic, define the terms (personally decide the meanings of the words) then proceed with our propositions. The question is rhetorical though. I know we disagree on what constitutes meaning, so there's no point in you replying to that.
Quoting Michael
Exactly! And, we are not talking about whether or not the book is actually in your room. We are talking about the proposition "the book is actually in my room", along with the proposition "the book is possibly in my room", and what these two propositions mean. Since the meaning concerns what you believe, rather than what is actually the case, then whether or not the book is actually in your room is completely irrelevant.
Quoting Michael
"True" is a predicate of "belief", in the sense of knowledge, "justified true belief". When we talk about propositions like "the book is actually in my room", and "the book is possibly in my room", what is being represented here is beliefs, not real world situations. If you think that real world situations are being represented by these propositions, explain to me what real world situation could possibly be represented by "the book is possibly in my room".
Since "the book is possibly in my room" cannot possibly represent any actual real world situation, we must conclude the obvious, that it represents a belief. And, since this proposition represents a belief, then to maintain consistency we must also affirm that "the book is actually in my room" represents a belief as well, or else we are comparing apples and oranges and your assertions just are a big category mistake.
Quoting Michael
Right, and this is why the proposition "the book is possibly in my room" must refer to what you believe, not some real world situation. And so, to correctly establish a relation between this proposition and "the book is actually in my room", without a category mistake, we must assume that the latter refers to a belief as well. Then we see that the two beliefs are inconsistent with each other.
Quoting Mww
I addressed this above. The rules of communion are based in moral principles, which are quite distinct from the rules of logic.
Given that "I believe that the book is in my room, therefore the book is in my room" is invalid, "I believe that the book is in my room" doesn't mean "the book is in my room".
The meaning of "the book is in my room" doesn't concern what I believe.
I'm very distressed to hear that. Since it is very obvious that you could state "the book is in my room" when the book is not in your room, then it is also very obvious that "the book is in my room" means something other than that the book is in your room. Do you not agree with this?
No, I don't. It's a nonsensical inference.
That I can assert a falsehood isn't that it doesn't mean precisely what it says.
The fact that you understand the notion of dishonety proves that you understand the difference between the meaning of an assertion and the beliefs of the person making the assertion.
Look at the T-schema discussed earlier by Banno. "The book is in my room" is true iff the book is in my room. In this example, "the book is in my room" only means that the book is in my room, if the statement is true. In other instances "the book is in my room" means something else.
Why do you believe that this is nonsensical?
That a statement could "mean precisely what it says" is what is nonsensical. The statement consists of words, symbols. What it means is an interpretation of the symbols. The interpretation is not a restatement of the same symbols. The meaning of the statement cannot be "precisely what it says". That makes no sense at all.
You appear to be equivocating on the meaning of "means". We're using it in the sense of a definition, not in the sense of entailment.
The T-schema doesn't say that asserting the proposition "the book is in my room" entails that the book is in my room. It only says that the book being in my room is the truth-condition of the proposition "the book is in my room", and according to Davidson the definition of a proposition is given by its truth-conditions.
OK.
"The book is in my room" is true iff the book is in my room.
Notice that it isn't:
"The book is in my room" is true iff I believe that the book is in my room.
Therefore, your claims that the meaning of "the book is in my room" has something to do with what I believe, or that truth is honesty, are false.
I can honestly claim "the book is in my room" if I believe that the book is in my room, but if the book isn't in my room then my claim is false.
This is how almost everyone understands truth. It's the common use. Your use is uncommon. You have presented no adequate evidence or reasoning to support your use.
What you mean by "possible" is that the future holds more than one possibility; that there are several possible worlds and one of those becomes the actual world. I don't disagree with this. What opposes this view of "possible", and what I mean by "necessary", is that the future holds only one possibility; that there is only one possible world and only that world can become the actual world. What also opposes this view of "possible", and what I mean by "impossible", are those worlds that could never become the actual world because, e.g., they are physically impossible.
If there is more than one possible world at t0 and one of those becomes the actual world at t1, then the actual world at t1 is still one of those possible worlds that was at t0; one of the possibilities that could have been. Otherwise, for you to say that what is actual is what is necessary means that there were no other possibilities at t0; that no other world at t1 was possible at t0. This eliminates free will.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
If you had many possibilities prior to the act, then the one that became actual remains one of those possibilities. It is only if you had no other possibilities prior to the act that what is actual would be necessary. Describing a situation as "necessary" because we have no other possibilities during the act (at the present time, in the actual world) leads to bizarre consequences and makes no sense of free will, or of freely choosing to make actual one of several possibilities. You are then describing as "necessary" something that you freely chose to make actual. What does "necessary" mean in that case? The word loses its familiar meaning.
I mean, there's the Church-Fitch argument; if there's no way around that, then there must be truths that cannot be known.
Quoting Michael
Here's the problem, as I see it:
(1) If you want to convey your honest belief that the book is in Michael's room, the words you choose to express that belief are "The book is in Michael's room."
(2) You choose those words because the literal (or conventional) meaning of that sentence represents your belief accurately.
(3) But that sentence represents your belief accurately precisely because it's what anyone who held the same belief as you would say if they wished honestly to express that belief.
The claim is that there is no more to a word's being appropriate for the purpose of expressing what you want to express than it being the word people use honestly to express that belief.
But your using that sentence honestly to express that belief is itself an element of the common practice that underwrites the use of that sentence to express that belief. That's not a paradox; it means that the words you are using are a solution (a stable equilibrium) to a problem in (cooperative) game theory, in which what you do is dependent on what others do, and what they do is dependent on what you do. This is the substance of the idea of the arbitrariness of the sign: any solution to such a problem is as good as any other.
But that's all about meaning.
You can take a further step and claim that there is nothing more to the book being in Michael's room than people who hold the belief that it is honestly expressing that belief by saying, or being disposed to say, "The book is in Michael's room."
Now what does this mean, that there is "nothing more to it"? That suggests there is a biconditional that looks like this:
P ? People who believe that P and wish honestly to express that belief assert, or are disposed to assert, that P.
Maybe here we give an account of belief, maybe we posit a language of thought and all of this is a way of saying that P is the canonical translation into our language from the LoT, maybe a lot of things, but some people are also going to be tempted to say (by a parallel argument) that there is nothing more to belief than what we assert or are disposed to assert, in which case the biconditional becomes
P ? People believe that P ? People assert, or are disposed to assert, that P.
That's the "nothing more" account, I believe. There are stops along the way where you might opt out, but this is its final destination.
The question of this thread has always been whether there is something more, whether there is, for instance, something more to the book being in Michael's room than the appropriateness of the sentence "The book is in Michael's room" for honestly conveying your belief that it is.
I think most people's pre-theoretical intuition is that of course there is, but the apparent difficulty of specifying what the something more is convinces some to give it up, or to give up in a slightly different way, something like this: if there is something more, it's not the sort of thing we can say, since all we can say is stuff like "The book is Michael's room," and that's already within the scope of the "nothing more" analysis.
So there's a summary of the what this thread is about. I'm not convinced the nothing more account is right, but the challenge is to offer an alternative as comprehensive, to say exactly where it goes wrong, or to show that it isn't actually what it seems to be.
Ok. What is communion as youre using the word?
It should not be overlooked that he reformulated that to this (I'm using 'P' for 'possibly' and 'N' for necessarily'):
""possible" is defined as "not necessarily not": Pq <-> ~N~q". Therefore if something is true then it is possibly true: q -> Pq."
The definition there is correct. And "q -> Pq" is correct, but not merely from the definition but from axioms.
/
Another poster claimed that defining "possibly P" as "not necessarily not P" is circular because "necessarily" is defined in terms of possible worlds. No, "necessarily" is not defined at all; it is primitive. Moreover, "possible worlds" is semantic and is not involved in syntactical definitions. Moreover, while words such as "possible worlds" suggest intuitive motivations, mention of "possible worlds" is not needed for the semantics, as the semantics can be given in full formality without nicknames such as "possible worlds".
/
I don't know any person who would say this:
"Possibly the book is in the room. So the book is not in the room."
If someone told me that, then I would consider them incapable of coherent conversation and incapable of shedding any light on where the book is or might be.
/
Semantically (a simplified chart):
q is true or not true (but not both) in any given model ("world")
q is necessary iff q is true in every model
q is possible iff q is true in at least one model
q is contingent iff (q is true in at least one model and false in at least one model)
q is actually true iff (there is a certain model designated as the "actual model" and q is true in that model)
("the actual model" may refer to the world of observable facts or whatever explanation one would like to give for a notion of the "real world", "actual world", etc. When context is clear, we just say 'q is true'.)
Quoting Janus
That's how to avoid anthropomorphism.
The notions of 'linguistically mediated thought' and 'language capable beings' don't - ahem - can't.
You are talking with a poster not capable of making sense.
That just seems way too convoluted and theory laden...
Seems to me like there's nothing more to the book being in Michael's room than the book, the room, and the spatial relation between the two.
Which ought tell you something. That's not something I would or have said, nor does it follow from anything I would or have said.
I think this is ambiguous. The meaning of the sentence is what you believe, but it isn't that you believe it. The sentence that expresses that you believe it is "I believe that the book is in my room".
And, of course, it can be true that I believe something even if what I believe is false. @Metaphysician Undercover appears to conflate these.
Or an assertoric utterance of "The book is in Michael's room."
At any rate, the content is where the action is.
Quoting Michael
But you have no way of saying this as a report of your beliefs. And if someone else says it, of you, then it can be taken as report of their beliefs.
I think the trouble comes earlier and runs deeper.
Quoting creativesoul
I have no idea what you are trying to say.
Again, I think this is ambiguous. I think you're conflating two different senses of "meaning". I'm concerned with meaning in the sense of definition. "I believe that the book is in my room" and "the book is in my room" do not share a definition.
Otherwise how do you make sense of the "the book is in my room" part of "I believe that the book is in my room"? The latter isn't to be interpreted as "I believe that I believe that the book is in my room".
I think you're just taking meaning-as-use to an irrational extreme.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I thought I just did? "It can be true that I believe something even if what I believe is false" is something I believe. Or, more succinctly, "I am fallible".
The sad thing is that your clear explanation will not correct the confusion here. That confusion is wilful.
Sometimes, as a discussion unfolds, the only thing to do is to laugh and walk away.
But that's no fun unless you come back occasionally and make snide comments from the ivory tower.
I'm really not. If I candidly assert an indicative sentence, I imply that the content of my belief is represented by that sentence. It's simply false that I have to preface everything I say with "I believe."
Quoting Michael
I get that. But I'm not sure invoking the word "definition" is going to get you very far.
Quoting Michael
Neither one of them has a definition; they have semantic content. Which I think is the right thing to be talking about.
Quoting Michael
Well that's a question. The biconditionals I offered look circular, don't they? What are we to do about that?
Quoting Michael
You're confusing me with what I want to argue against, but we can't ignore that there is insight underlying the doctrine of meaning as use.
Quoting Michael
Now try it with a specific belief. You can't assert that the book is in your room, or that you believe the book is in your room, and that it is not true that the book is in your room. Someone else, let's say "George", can say it of you, and then there's nothing to stop a third party from saying that you believe the book is in your room and George doesn't, full-stop.
I think the right strategy is to block the supposed dependence of semantic content on beliefs.
It's not that simple.
For instance, I had a look at the SEP article about revision theory, and I was puzzled that we're treated to what amounts to a wholesale reconstruction of model theory to allow the proposed extension, complete with new versions of interpretation and everything else, and then I realized that you have to do this if you accept that Tarski's machinery is not up to the task.
I don't think we even have a complete syntax for any natural language; lacking that, there's no hope for a complete semantics.
So while I'm deeply sympathetic to the formal approach, and in particular with model-theoretic truth-conditional semantics, we can't claim to have managed more than some fragments of some natural languages. And formal semantics takes lexical semantics as just given, somehow, which means it is never going to address issues of reference; that's a non-issue for mathematics, where reference is essentially stipulative all the way down, but it's a big damn deal with natural languages.
I obviously don't have any problem with the specifics of what you posted, but I'm not clear on what you expect to achieve by posting it. The box and diamond operators are defined as they are because of our pre-existing intuitions about alethic modality. And similarly for the axioms of various modal logics. You're surely not arguing that someone's intuitions can be refuted by the definitions and axioms we've chosen... If those definitions and axioms don't match our intuitions, so much the worse for them.
I'm also not clear what kind of mileage you hope to get out of talking about models. What models? How do you construct them? Again, I'm all for this, but I don't think we get to assume this is all settled for natural languages.
If the point you wanted to make was "quit doing that, because you can do this instead," I'd endorse that!
I don't expect to achieve anything other than giving a simple starting point, since there had been confusion in the thread.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Of course not.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Whatever models one likes.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Most formally in the usual methods of mathematical logic and/or formal modal logic. Less formally, in whatever informal way one likes.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Of course not.
It's simple that the poster is nuts to think that "Possibly P" implies "Not P".
That'll do.
The task at hand is choosing between different grammars. If a grammar leads to a confusion, such as Quoting TonesInDeepFreeze
...then best reject it. Quit doing that, and do this instead.
It is that simple.
Just to be clear, I don't propose that.
Unless someone provides a definition, "meaning" is not being used in the sense of a definition. So in common usage, which is what we seemed to be talking about with the example "the book is in my room", people do not provide definitions for the words they use, therefore the meaning of those words is not "meaning" in the sense of a definition. It is meaning in the sense of how they are used.
Quoting Michael
Yes, but don't you see that when someone says "the book is in my room", this can only imply that the book is in that room, if we add the premise that the statement is true (in that sense of "true"). And, the statement only "means" (as in what is meant by the speaker) that the book is in my room, if the person speaks truthfully (honestly). So if you are not talking about what is implied logically through definition, nor what is meant by the language in its use, what other sense of "meaning" are you appealing to?
Quoting Luke
What was meant in the quoted passage, was that "possible worlds" referred to logical possibilities for what is the case. If we do not know precisely what is the case in a specific situation, we allow for many different possibilities. So it's not really about future possibilities here, but logical possibilities. That was the reason for the use of "possible worlds". Srap introduced that, to try and get a handle on the meaning of "possible".
Quoting Luke
The particular possibilities at 10, are no longer possibilities at 11. That's the nature of passing time, things change as time passes
Quoting Luke
No, none of them are possibilities after the act, not even the one you chose, that's the point. You can't have your cake and eat it too. Once you eat the cake, eating it is no longer a possibility.
Quoting Mww
Communion would be all forms of participating in and sharing of thoughts, and activities, like communication and working together. What I explained is that logic has a foundation in imagination and is supported by usefulness. So it is, in its foundation, a private activity, like strategy. Since usefulness is defined relative to particular goals, which are personal, and this is what supports these rules, the rules of logic are fundamentally inconsistent with the rules of communion (human interaction), which are moral rules.
Those different possibilities are regarding a future situation, not the current situation. We do not know whether there will be a sea battle tomorrow, and it is possible today that there will be a sea battle tomorrow or there won't be a sea battle tomorrow. But. come tomorrow, there will be no other possibilities regarding the sea battle except for the one that becomes the actual situation.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Exactly. The particular possibilities at t0 are possibilities regarding the future situation at t1; they are not possibilities regarding the present situation at t0. There are no other possibilities (for t0) at t0 other than the actual situation.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
You either had other possibilities (prior to eating the cake) at t0 besides eating the cake at t1, or you didn't have other possibilities at t0 besides eating the cake at t1. If you had other possibilities at t0, then eating the cake at t1 was possible. If you didn't have other possibilities at t0, then eating the cake at t1 was necessary. I don't agree that eating the cake at t1 was necessary if you had other possibilities at t0. This a misuse of the term "necessary".
That's really not how Srap was using "possible worlds". We were talking about hypotheticals, counterfactuals, and whether or not it is raining out. Here is where Srap Used "possible worlds" in an example.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Quoting Luke
I will follow this example though, if you like.
Quoting Luke
No, the possibilities are the ones which are present, at the current time. Yes, they are derived from our view toward the future, but they are stated as the possibilities which are present. They are an aspect of one's knowledge. So, "that there will be a sea battle tomorrow", is a possibiltiy present right now in my mind, if I believe this. That's why the action involved in this possibility which exists now, is stated as "tomorrow", because the possibility exists prior in time to the act, i.e. today. At the current time, there are many possibilities for the future, within my mind, and yours too I assume.
Quoting Luke
I'm saying that after the act is carried out it is no longer a possibility in my mind, it is necessary, as what has been carried out, what is actual. Example: Yesterday there was a sea battle. I believe that this actually occurred, therefore there are no other possibilities in my mind. In my mind, by my knowledge, it is a fact, something necessary, impossible to be otherwise, not a possibility.
Do you not understand that understanding what sorts of thoughts are exclusive to humans and what sorts are not is how to avoid anthropomorphism?
What that poster says makes sense. But some who are taught that something contrary to what the poster says makes sense, refuse to allow the possibility that what the poster says also makes sense. Those are the closed minded.
Quoting Banno
See, even Banno recognizes that it makes sense, to the poster at least, as it is said to be willful. It is the others, who see things differently from the poster, and see them as clear, who are closed minded to the views of others. The poster in question sees the ambiguity and therefore does not see the things as clear. Yet ambiguity makes sense to that poster because ambiguity is as much a part of reality as the people who see ambiguous propositions as something clear are a part of reality.
As I said, the possibilities which are present, at the current time (at t0), are possibilities regarding the future situation (at t1). You acknowledge this with the example about today's possibility of tomorrow's sea battle - the possibilities are regarding the future situation, not the present situation. The possibilities are not about themselves; they are about the future potential sea battle.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
And I am saying that if there were other genuine possibilities prior to the act being carried out, then it was not necessary, because one of those alternative possibilities could actually have been carried out instead. It is only if there had been no other genuine possibilities that could actually have been carried out instead, that the act being carried out would be necessary.
Your assertion that all actual situations are necessary negates that there are ever any genuinely alternative possibilities, and thus precludes free will.
Certainly it is not the case that ?P ? ~P.
But it is also the case that "It might be in the car" implicates (but does not entail) "I don't know for sure where it is" and, to connect the dots, if I don't know where it is I am not in a position to assert something like "It is in the car," some simple declarative statement P, but only a weaker ?P and it is a locution people resort to precisely to avoid admitting that they know exactly where it is and how it got there.
For all that, I will still say that P ? ?P is a solid axiom (or however you arrive at it) that captures some of what we have in mind when we reason about what's possible.
Side note: I recently had occasion to read this page about the Wason selection task, which I had forgotten all about. It seems often to have been counted as evidence against the everyday conception of logical consequence being captured by the material conditional, but there's further work that makes this less clear, and more interestingly there's this report:
[quote=same wiki page]A psychologist, not very well disposed toward logic, once confessed to me that despite all problems in short-term inferences like the Wason Card Task, there was also the undeniable fact that he had never met an experimental subject who did not understand the logical solution when it was explained to him, and then agreed that it was correct.[/quote]
Now that's really curious, and leaves considerable room for the likes of logic, set theory, arithmetic, geometry, modal logic, and the rest to continue in the effort to axiomatize our intuitions, with the expectation that, even though ordinary folks don't think in precisely these terms, when explained to them, such systems will make sense and they will agree this is a good way to go about things.
This, @Banno, is how I would justify what we're up to. If this counts as "choosing a grammar that doesn't lead to confusion," okay. But I'm never going to put it that way because I think that way of putting it leads to confusion.
Earlier I asked how you/we avoided anthropomorphism. You basically questioned whether or not we could. I claimed that we can in both principle and practice. You then said you did not share my optimism. Then...
I expressed that we understand the difference between thought and belief that is exclusive to humans and thought and belief that is not.
You then acted as if you had not disagreed with that, but you had, evidently unbeknownst to yourself, because you disagreed that we could avoid anthropomorphism. The problem(for you) is that if we can understand that much, then we can avoid anthropomorphism, for that is the key for doing so. That's how. If you agree with that then it ought be easy enough for you to realize that we can avoid anthropomorphism in both principle and practice. That's one of the things I am getting at.
Secondly, you invoked the notions of 'language capable beings' and 'linguistically mediated thoughts' in order to make a claim that you later judged as trivial/uninformative. You were arguing with yourself, because I never invoked those notions. In fact, neither can draw and maintain the distinction necessary to avoid anthropomorphism because some animals have language.
I suppose I could make the broader point now. Perhaps the reason you do not share my optimism regarding avoiding anthropomorphism is because you have difficulty yourself in understanding what sorts of thought and belief are exclusive to humans and what sorts are not. The notions of 'language capable beings' and 'linguistically mediated thought' only discriminate between language users and language less creatures, so, they are unhelpful for avoiding misattributing some of our thought and belief to other language using creatures. We see this often in nature shows.
Yes, for any rational being it is not plausible that for all q we have Pq -> ~q.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
And that 'but' is not going refute that it is not the case that for all q we have Pq -> ~q.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
No, the speaker might know that the book is in the car but choose to be coy, though literally honest and correct, in saying "The book might be in the car". If I was looking for the book, then I would not appreciate my friend being coy that way, but he would not be logically incorrect.
Or, let 'Kq' stand for 'q is known'. Let 'L' stand for '~K~q'.
For any rational being it is not plausible that for all q we have Lq -> ~q.
Or, let 'Bq' stand for 'q is believed'. Let 'Cq' stand for '~B~q'.
For any rational being it is not plausible that for all q we have Cq -> ~q.
Anyway, the point stands, only a nutcase says that "Possibly the book is in the car" implies that the book is not in the car.
Let's make it a life and death situation:
A young boy is lost in treacherous terrain. The county sheriff's search and rescue expert tells the parents, "Possibly he's in the canyon. So he's not in the canyon." I don't think there is any parent in the world who would say, "Okay, I understand your logic perfectly. Let's not waste time looking in the canyon."
/
Unrelated but poignant is Sartre's "The Wall". SPOILER ALERT. In the Spanish Civil war, Pablo is a prisoner of the fascists. His imprisoners will execute him if he doesn't give up the hiding place of his comrade Ramon. Pablo believes Ramon is not hiding in the nearby graveyard. As a joke on his imprisoners, Pablo lies to them that Ramon is hiding in the graveyard. But Ramon is hiding in the graveyard. And later Pablo learns that Ramon was caught in the graveyard and killed.
Yes, you imply it. But that asserting a sentence implies something isn't that that sentence (or assertion) means that thing. The sentence (even as an assertion) "I am going to vote in the next election, and I believe that Joe Biden is the best candidate" implies that I am going to vote for Joe Biden in the next election, but that's not what the sentence means.
This is where I think you're conflating different senses of "meaning" or "expression". I can assert something that expresses my anger or my love or my disapproval, but that's not the same thing as the assertion meaning "I am angry" or "I love you" or "I disapprove of this".
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Sure I can: I believe that the book is in my room but the book isn't in my room. I can assert anything I like.
But I don't really see the relevance of this. If we accept that we are fallible then what left is there to discuss? We accept the distinction between truth and belief; between the book being in my room and believing that the book is in my room.
Consider this exchange:
John: The book is in my room
Jane: What you say is wrong because the book is not in your room
Should this be interpreted as the below?
John: I believe that the book is in my room
Jane: I believe that what you say is wrong because the book is not in your room
So Jane believes that John doesn't believe that the book is in his room because the book isn't in his room? That doesn't seem right.
Even if John's assertion that the book is in his room implies that he believes that the book is in his room, his assertion being true or false has nothing to do with what he believes (or what Jane believes), and everything to do with whether or not the book is in his room.
This level of analysis doesn't work. You start from an assumption that the meaning of a proposition can be questioned "X exists", but then you analyse the felicity of that meaning by assuming that another proposition " X is wrong" stands with a priori clarity.
If the meaning of "X exists" is in question, then the question cannot be resolved by assuming the meaning of "X is wrong" is not similarly in question.
Yes, those possibilities are how we think "about" the future, just like we can say something "about" the future.
Quoting Luke
Sure, but at this time, after the act, one of the other "genuine possibilities" (whatever that means) was not actually carried out instead. And, it no longer is a possibility because the act chosen was carried out instead. And, this cannot be changed, there is no possibility of going back in time to alter it, therefore it is necessary.
You do not seem to be properly accounting for the temporal perspective. Prior to the act it is a possibility which can be chosen. Posterior to the act it is an actuality which has already occurred, and therefore necessary rather than possible. This is obvious in our day to day experience. We know that we cannot change the past so we describe it as what has actually occurred, and we also believe that we can describe the future as possibilities. To deny this difference is to deny the reality of time.
So, prior to the act we describe it as a possibility. The possibility is "about the future", as you say. After the act we describe it as an actuality, something which has actually occurred. It is now a fact, not a possibility, and is therefore treated as a necessity in the logical proceeding. Therefore the same act has a different type of description depending on one's temporal perspective, before or after it.
We can apply this to the act of counting the coins in the jar. Prior to counting the coins, the number of coins in the jar is described as a possibility. Posterior to counting the coins, the number of coins in the jar is described as an actuality. This is a true representation of what we believe about the number of coins in the jar. Prior to counting we do not know the number, and we understand it as a possibility. Posterior to counting, we know the number and understand it as an actuality.
Quoting Luke
Obviously this is not true. It is a simple aspect of our experience, as human beings, that we view events of the past differently from events of the future. So the very same event is spoken about differently when it is in the future than when it is in the past. This is the result of the difference in temporal perspective. Clearly understanding this aspect of our experience does not negate genuine possibilities. It just provides a healthy respect for the reality of time and its role in relation to "genuine possibilities".
Quoting TonesInDeepFreeze
Of course you would not appreciate your friend behaving like this, because unless you are engaged in some sort of guessing game, it is dishonesty. And, your claim that it is "literally honest and correct" is very much refuted by your own admission that you would not appreciate it, even though you would assert that the friend is not logically incorrect.
What is at issue here is the inconsistency between what is logically correct, and what is morally correct, honest. Since you accept that this type of behaviour, which is asserted to be logically correct, is in general not appreciated (because it is clearly dishonest I would say), you seem to recognize this inconsistency.
Quoting Michael
Quoting Michael
But it has everything to do with agreement about the reference of words in the discourse, as well as the things thereby referred to. No truth without language.
Oh. Social anthropology. Not interested.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Yes. Sort of.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Is it the same to say logical rules are useful in support of the attainment of personal goals?
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
If the most personal one can be, is demonstrated by his moral convictions, and if logical rules are the ground for particular personal goals, then it follows that logical rules are not so much merely consistent with, as in fact necessary for, the dispensation of him toward his moral activities.
All rules developed and used by us, in private, rational decision-making, re: judgment, without exception, are reducible to logical rules.
Indeed. That would be why I said "does not entail." This being coy, it's a violation of Grice's maxims quantity I think, because you are sharing less information than you have.
Look, I'm only talking about this because I want to wall off these sorts of considerations: it is a fact that if you know that something is the case, then there are circumstances in which saying only that it is possible is misleading. I'm pointing at that phenomenon so that I can block it from undermining our claim that actuality entails possibility. If it's only a conversational implicature, it has no bearing on the relevant entailments.
Quoting Michael
Except for the part where I'm clearly not, because I've been at pains to say that we're only talking about implication not literal meaning. It's right there. What what you say means is one thing, sentence meaning, and what you mean by it is something else, speaker's meaning. I'm not conflating them at all; I am acknowledging that there is more to our utterances than the literal meaning of what we say so that it doesn't interfere with the logical analysis.
Quoting Michael
Sorry, yes, I should have said "without falling into Moore's paradox," and so on.
Both @Isaac and @Metaphysician Undercover are going to consistently deny that there is anything at all to your asserting P than that you believe (using various accounts and locutions for this) that P, in every instance. Notably, that includes any hypothetical. If you say "Suppose the book is in my room, but I believe it is not ..." they will ask who holds the belief that it is in your room, whose judgment that is, and so on. translates claims of fact into predictions about the agreeability of our discourse. (Is that Lewis's scorekeeping, or Goodman's worldmaking?)
We proceed on the assumption that we can analyze "naked" propositions with no speaker; they do not. Every proposition is an utterance of someone, for a purpose, even if that someone is only virtual or something. Think of it as a sort of Nietzschean perspectivism. The kicker, of course, is that the "naked" view is linguistically indefensible. You have to invoke a generalized competent speaker of English. The right question is whether you can "factor out" linguistic competence through your analysis of semantic content...
We don't have to take this position into account; we can just go about our business. But if you want to engage with the loyal opposition here, you have to find some way of making the point that is not simply question-begging. I'm working on it. ;)
Then I'm not sure what relevance it has to the discussion. Are you saying that the truth of an assertion is concerned with its implication and not its literal meaning? Such that "I am going to vote in the next election, and I believe that Joe Biden is the best candidate" is false if I'm not going to vote for Joe Biden in the next election?
Quoting Michael
Consider:
Quoting Michael
Here you are, trying to decide whether an agent S can simultaneously be in a state of knowledge and in a state of uncertainty, but you choose to test this possibility by figuring out whether it would "make sense" for an individual to say, of themselves, that they are in both these states.
Not a great plan.
The case is perfectly clear when it's a third party saying it: you and a friend are watching your daughter at a spelling bee, she's floundering, looking overwhelmed; you can straightforwardly say, "She knows this one we reviewed it last night and she had it cold she's just flustered and second-guessing herself." There is no general problem attributing both knowledge and uncertainty to someone; there seems to be some weirdness when that someone is yourself. If I talk about implicatures and such, it is only to block mistaken reliance on "what it makes sense to say."
As did Gettier when invoking entailment to go from "I have ten coins in my pocket" to "the man with ten coins in his pocket".
Gettier is hard. It seems clear there is no general way to block Gettier cases, because whatever you come up with will generate a revenge case purpose built to block your solution. What we should conclude from that pattern is hard to say, but most take it as bad news for the analysis of knowledge.
The other issue raised by this particular case (and @Michael this might be relevant to the difference between first- and third-person accounts) is whether the actual reasoning relied on de se modality, since there's reason to think this is often the case with epistemic questions. That is, the question of whether I would or could know something is sometimes irreducibly about me, so the first level of analysis isn't really about whether there are possible worlds in which I know or don't, but whether my epistemic alternatives know or don't, whatever world they reside in.
Are they real possibilities which each have a genuine chance of being the actual outcome, or are they merely a function of our knowledge/ignorance and there is only ever one real possibility?
If the former, then what is actual is/was not necessary. If the latter, then we have no free will.
I disagree with this assessment. Animals without linguistic capabilities obviously do not think in linguistic terms, so presumably they think in sensorimotor ways; whereas we think in both sensorimotor and linguistic ways. All our understandings are, strictly speaking, anthropomorphic, or human-shaped, because we are human; so, leaving aside any imputation of what should be understood to be exclusively human qualities and capacities to animals, I think the question of anthropomorphism is beside the point. Do you have anything substantive to add to that or disagreement to express?
Not quite the same, because what I am saying is that the particular rules which become accepted by people, and therefore form the conventional rules of logic, obtain that status of being the conventional rules, because they are useful. The issue being a question of what a particular set of rules is useful for.
So here is the difference between what I suggest and what you suggest. What you suggest is that anyone could take any set of logical rules, and use them toward personal gain. What I suggest is that particular logical rules could actually be shaped such that their principal purpose is personal gain. So, if the specific type of personal gain is somewhat immoral, then what you would suggest is an immoral person using rational logic in an immoral way. What I suggest is immorality which inheres within the logical principles. This would be irrational logic.
Quoting Mww
Yes, but this assumes that there is no immorality inherent within the logical principles.
Quoting Mww
I disagree, I think that all rules, including logical rules are reducible to moral rules. This is because the role of intention and purpose. Logical necessity is reducible to a form of need. We need to follow the rules of logic to understand, or for any other purpose we might use logic for. And the rules which dictate how we relate to our needs are moral rules. Therefore the necessity whereby we draw logical conclusions is a form of need, and how we treat our needs is governed by moral rules, so the rules of logic must conform to moral rules.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
The issue is the implications for sophistry. "Sophistry" I would define as the misuse, or abuse of logic. If certain accepted principles of logic are designed such that they may facilitate sophistry, through a form of deception which inheres within the principles themselves, then this is an implication which ought to be addressed.
Quoting Luke
As I said, they are a feature of one's knowledge. However, this does not mean that they are not real or genuine. Knowledge is real and genuine. The realness, or genuineness of the possibilities which one considers is dependent on the scope of one's knowledge of the situation. Sometimes a person will fail in an effort to do something, and sometimes a person might not grasp a possibility which is obvious to someone else. That the possibilities are in one's mind, and are features of how one understands one's current situation, does not mean that they are not real. Nor does it mean that the person has no real choice.
Quoting Luke
Sorry, I don't understand the basis of these conclusions at all.
Is it hard? Seems straight forward to me.
Gettier is attempting to take account of another's belief(granted, the other is a fiction borne of Gettier's own imagination, but nevertheless). Gettier invokes the rules of entailment in order for Smith to go from "I have ten coins in my pocket, and I will get the job" to "the man with ten coins in his pocket will get the job".
The point is that Gettier is talking about Smith's belief, not a naked proposition. With that in mind, because it is Smith's belief, "the man with ten coins in his pocket" refers to Smith and Smith alone. So, when someone else gets the job regardless of how many coins they have in their pocket, Smith's belief is false, because he did not get the job. Smith does not believe anyone other than himself will get the job.
The second case neglects the fact that Smith's belief is a complex one, and again fails to take that complexity into consideration due to treating the disjunction as a naked one. Smith only believes that either Jones own a Ford or Brown is in Barcelona, because he believes Jones owns a Ford. The disjunction is true because Brown is in Barcelona. Smith believes it's true because Jones owns a Ford. Smith's belief is false.
We need only to take notice that there is an accounting malpractice going on.
I do not share your pessimism. It's not fait accompli, regardless of whether or not you poison the well. It does not follow from the fact that we are human that all our understandings are anthropomorphic. I sense a bit of chippiness from you. I added quite a bit of substantive examples to discuss earlier. You quoted the first statement of the post and ignored the rest. We can agree to disagree, but it would be far better for us to at least come to clear understanding of what the disagreement is about, and/or where it lies.
Quoting Janus
Well, that's a fine place to start. I agree. Although, the "think in sensorimotor ways" would be best fleshed out.
Some other animals - beside humans - do have language though, so drawing the line at language is not going to serve the purpose of drawing and maintaining the distinctions between thought and belief that is exclusively human in kind, thought and belief that could be had by other animals with language, and thought and belief that can be had by language less creatures.
Maybe you should discuss it with @Metaphysician Undercover.
Did you read the rest of that post? I generally do not align with Meta.
Then you will have much to discuss.
Not interested. Was curious to get your take on that quick down and dirty summary, but evidently you're not interested.
So be it. Be well.
I don't doubt that one's knowledge is real and genuine, but I am more interested in this idea of a "real choice". For example, if I had a real choice of whether to have toast or cereal for breakfast this morning, then it was not necessary that I had toast (as I did) because I could have had cereal instead.
You refuse to acknowledge this argument against the necessity of actuality. You simply repeat - without argument - that actual situations are necessary. Given that you refuse to even acknowledge this argument against inevitability, and since you seemingly contradict yourself by claiming that people have a "real choice", then it is unclear to me what you mean when you assert that actual situations are "necessary".
If every situation is necessary and had to turn out the way it did, then how does any situation allow for a "real choice" from among several possibilities? The implication is that I could never have really chosen to have cereal instead of toast; that toast was always the only real possibility.
Right, at that prior time it was not necessary. However, at this posterior time it is necessary. Human beings have a completely different attitude toward acts in the past, in comparison to their attitude toward acts in the future. You seem to be refusing to account for the reality of time in the human attitude, and the difference between prior and posterior. Here is an explicit example from your earlier post.
Quoting Luke
See, you explicitly conflate "is" and "was". There is a reason why we have different tenses for verbs, if you insist on ignoring this, then this discussion is pointless.
Quoting Luke
How so? I've responded to your supposed argument. It is simply based in a failure to recognize the difference in temporal perspectives. Looking ahead in time at future acts, is not the same as looking backward in time at past acts. Therefore, within the minds of human beings, future acts have a different status from past acts.
If you are ready to accept this difference then we might be able to proceed by applying some names to describe the difference. I propose that we look at future acts as "possible", and past acts as "necessary". You are resisting this. Can you explain why? Your argument so far seems to be that if we name past acts as "necessary", then future acts must also be called "necessary". But as I've explained, that is to ignore the difference between how we look at the past and how we look at the future.
I'm not conflating them; I'm arguing against your claim that present and past situations are necessary. Hence, the "is/was".
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
That does not explain why present/past situations are necessary; or why it is necessary that I had to have toast instead of cereal for breakfast this morning. You are doing nothing more than stipulating that present/past situations are necessary, which does not explain how you are using the term.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
I am resisting your "proposal" because if we have a real choice in the matter, like you say we do, then it was not necessary that I had toast instead of cereal for breakfast this morning. I had a real choice to have had cereal instead of toast. That is, the past situation of me having toast for breakfast this morning was not necessary. I am using "necessary" here in the sense of "inevitable" or "predetermined", as opposed to having a "real choice" in the matter. How are you using "necessary"?
Ok, insofar as these kinds of rules are taped to the wall in high school, assembled in a code of conduct in the office. The reason for stop signs and traffic lights. Tax tables. Sales contracts. The manifold of objects conforming to....
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Absolutely. Conventional rules are for private use by a subject in a communal domain, compliance with them being judicially motivated, their usefulness predicated on merely staying out of trouble relative to those rules, as judged by his peers. Moral rules, on the other hand, are for private use by a subject in a personal domain, compliance with them being obligatory, their usefulness predicated solely on staying out of trouble with himself, as judged by himself.
That being said, I agree moral rules are much more important than conventional rules, but that alone says nothing with respect to their logical ground.....
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
....which does, and quite well at that.
If it should be the case that the human intellectual system, in whichever metaphysical form deemed sufficient for it, is entirely predicated on relations, it should then be tacitly understands that system is a logically grounded system, insofar as logic itself is the fundamental procedure for the determination of relations. Hence it follows, it being given that all rules are schemata of the human intellectual system, and the human intellect is relational, then all rules are relational constructs. From there, its a short hop to the truth that, if all rules are relational, and all relations are logically constructed, and all logical constructs themselves are determinations of a fundamental procedure, then all rules are logical rules.
Under those conditions, there is no procedural difference between rules determined by committee for the administration of a community and rules determined by each individual for himself, insofar as a committee is nothing more than a plurality of individuals, each one operating within the confines of an intellectual system common to all.
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Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Logical principles are neither moral nor immoral. Morality is an innate human condition, determinable by logical principles which relate a purely subjective desire to an equally subjective inclination. In other words, this feels right, therefore it is the right thing to do and I shall will an act in accordance with it.
Immorality only manifests when an act is willed, even if that willed act never becomes an empirical event, that conflicts with that subjective relation. In other words, this volition feels right, but Im going to will an act in non-compliance to it, or, this volition feels wrong but Im going to will an act in compliance with it anyway. If I act, you may judge my morality with respect to yours. If I do not act, you will have nothing to judge, but I am left to judge myself
And so it goes....opinions galore.
At time A, my coffee is precariously perched on my car.
At time B, after A, the coffee falls off the car.
At time A, it is true of the coffee that it may or may not fall at some future time. At time B, it is no longer true of the coffee that it may fall, because it has already fallen.
No one is confused by an event having happened or not. What keep us up at night, is wondering whether things might have been different. No one can do anything, at times B and after, about my coffee having fallen; the question is specifically whether it was inevitable that it would fall. We believe we can make a distinction between events that were bound to happen, and events that were not; in which case, there must be a difference between (1) saying, at a time B or later, that nothing can happen that will make it so that the coffee has not fallen, and (2) saying at a time A or earlier, nothing can happen that will make it so that the coffee does not fall. To say that an event in the past was not inevitable, is to say that (1) is true of it but (2) false.
We assume, in fact, that (1) is true of all events since we're not doing quantum mechanics or something here. Suppose (1) is false. Then there is a time C, after B, at which an event occurs such that my coffee did not fall off the car. The aftermath of my coffee falling lasts from B to C, at which it is undone; before B, and after C, the coffee has not fallen. Of course, that's not "possible," given thermodynamics and whatnot, but is it logically impossible? My coffee falling is not in the past for any time before B, of course, because B is still in the future; it is in the past for all times between B and C; and it is no longer in the past of any time after C. The time B is in the past for times after C; it's just that what happened at time B, for times C and after, is not the same as what happened at time B, for times between B and C.
Is there any non-question-begging way to deny this is possible? We cannot, ex hypothesi, object that an event in the past at time X is in the past for any time after X; the hypothesis is exactly that this is not so. In what, then, does the immutability of the past consist? Is it brute fact? Could it conceivably not be?
So the coffee does fall at B, and then unfalls at (the later time) C? As though, as soon as the coffee hits the ground and spills, time then seemingly reverses, gathering up all the spilled coffee back into the cup and back on to the car? Except that time did not reverse from B to C, and this is what miraculously happened in normal time.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I think that the immutability of the past consists in the fact that events occur in time sequentially from A to B to C, and that once they have occurred they are in the past. Your example does not appear to indicate otherwise; the cup falls and then unfalls.
I just don't see this the way you do. In one sense anthropomorphism is inevitable because our understandings will always be human-shaped. In another sense anthropomorphism denotes "excessive" projection of human characteristics onto animals, or the world, or reality. Anthropomorphism is, like many other human characteristics, on a spectrum from the inescapable to the egregious.
So, I think that not all human inquiries suffer from anthropomorphism in the egregious sense. I don't know where we disagree, other than perhaps about what I have said about anthropomorphism. If you believed that you had come to some understanding which you believed was completely free from any anthropomorphism whatever, how would you demonstrate that to be so? Would there be a fact of the matter, or does it just come down to definitions or personal opinion?
I don't know what you mean by "poisoning the well" or "chippiness"; I think they are your own projections,it's not what I felt.
Quoting creativesoul
Thinking in terms of images, sounds, tactile sensations, smells, tastes or movements as opposed to thinking in symbolic language. What other possibilities can you think of?
I don't know of any other animals that have symbolic language; what did you have in mind?
I mean, it's not possible. You're substituting another impossibility for the one I was entertaining: your question (if you were inclined to ask) would be, why don't cups unfall? My question was, why doesn't the past change? I pitched it as if some sort of backwards causation were possible, but trying desperately to avoid the word "cause".
Of course the past doesn't change. My question was whether this immutability is logical or merely, as one might say, thermodynamics, or even just the brute fact of time's arrow.
All in hopes, if it wasn't clear, of understanding how temporality relates to alethic modality. Is one logically prior to the other? Which one?
+++
Here's a dead obvious example of what I mean, with no cups unfailing: It's a Wonderful Life. In the film, the erasure of George from history is frankly miraculous: does that mean it violates the canons of logic or only the laws of nature?
In the scenario you described, you said:
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I answered yes to this. Barring thermodynamic impossibility, your hypothetical situation is logically possible.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I personally consider them to be somewhat independent, in that I do not consider necessity or possibility to be dependent on temporality. If it was ever possible to prevent the cup of coffee from falling off the car, then at no time is it, was it, or will it be necessary or inevitable that it did fall. Otherwise, it was, is, and will always be necessary or inevitable that it did fall, but in that case its hard to see how we could have free will or any real choice about it.
Im sure MU will have a different response.
Well, see that's the thing. We might define the past relative to some time as all the times before that, just the times. But what about the events that have happened in the past? Is it inherent to the past that an event which occurs at a past time cannot change? Or is that something *else* we know about the past only a posteriori?
You are simply misrepresenting what I said (as is your usual habit) to continue with a strawman argument. I didn't say that it was necessary that you had to have toast instead of cereal. To the contrary, I said that was a choice you made from real possibilities. What I say, is that now, after you've had toast, it is impossible to change that fact, so it is necessary. So I'll repeat, though I doubt it will affect your strawman, before the act, it is possible, after the act, it is necessary.
Quoting Luke
I agree with all this. You had real choice in that act. What I am saying is that after the act, after you had toast for breakfast, you no longer have that choice. It is impossible, at this time, after you had toast, to decide not to eat the toast you already ate. Since it is impossible for you to change this, it is a necessity, i.e. it is necessary.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Right, this would be my position, (1) is true but not (2).
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
The immutability of the past is just a brute fact, which is upheld by empirical evidence, like gravity, the freezing point of water, etc.. Sure we can say that it is logically possible to change the past, just like we can say that it is logically possible to defy gravity, and we simply ignore all empirical evidence when proposing such "logical possibilities". These might even have purpose like hypotheticals or counterfactuals. But that's why there is potentially an infinite number of possible worlds, we can propose any sort of logically possible world, so long as it's not inconsistent or contradictory. Where this might become a problem is if we give priority of importance to what is logical possible over what is physical possible. Then a person might be inclined to say that because something is logically possible it must be true, without regard to whether it is physically possible.
Quoting Luke
As I've explained, this response indicates that you do not respect the reality of time. You say, what was once a possibility will always be a possibility. But that ignores the fact that things change as time passes, including possibilities. So it is very often the case that an event which was a possibility at time A, is not a possibility at time B. I think it is really inconsistent with our lived temporal experience to insist as you do, that an event which is truthfully described as "possible" at one time cannot be truthfully described as "necessary" at another time. You do not have to be a rocket scientist to know that possibilities have a window of opportunity.
Quoting Mww
Right, now the issue is how are logical rules grounded.
Quoting Mww
As I said in the last post, I think you have this backward. Logic is a highly specialized, formal way of thinking. So using rules is the more general category, and logic is a specific type of this broader category of activity. Therefore I think not all rules are logical. There are many rules which are not logical at all.
The question now is, if we break rule behaviour into subgroups, like the categories you did, conventional rules and moral rules, which does logic fall into? Or is it a distinct group on its own?
Quoting Mww
I don't at all agree with this. What would be the point of moral training if morality is innate? I agree that the capacity to be moral is innate, but this must be cultured to produce a moral character. I believe it is very clear that morality is not based in what feels right. I suppose these opinions are outside the scope of this thread.
Well, there's an answer.
(This thought experiment isn't important to me in itself, but if it were, I wondered how knowledge would work if the world were like this: would we, after the past had changed, have our knowledge become false beliefs oh! this is the Mandela effect or would all knowledge just vanish along with the other effects of an event that now has not occurred? If the latter, then of course we'd simply not know that the past had ever changed, and never could know...)
So the immutability of past events is a property we come to know a posteriori, good. But even if our knowledge is a posteriori, it could still be an essential property of a past event and therefore necessary that it be immutable. But you say it is not logically necessary that the past be immutable, so if it is, it is only in virtue of natural law, that sort of thing, physical rather than logical necessity.
Now you also agree that it's only events of the past that are immutable in this way, right? Events in the future are not only not immutable, they're not even fully determined; and the present, well, the present is presumably the moment of an event being fully determined and thereby becoming immutable.
It's easy to see how we could come to believe the future is not fixed, because we can experience making decisions, exercising our will, in ways that seem to determine how the future becomes concrete in the present. Even if we're completely wrong about that, it's clear how we would come to believe it. How would we come to know that this is not the case with the past? We cannot act upon the past, but maybe if we could, it could be changed. We have no experience of attempting to change the past and failing. So is the past immutable only in the sense that we cannot act upon it?
Or, consider this: we don't actually act upon the future directly either; that too, we are incapable of doing. We can only act in the present to select which possible future is realized. But every time we do that, we are also, immediately, filling the past with events of our choosing. The past is what we have some say-so in, never the future.
My goal was to see if we rely upon some independent conception of ideas like possibility and necessity in characterizing some portion of time as past and some other portion as future, rather than our ideas of possibility and necessity being derivative of our ideas of past and future. I think that in a great many cases when we say, things might have been different, the clearest meaning to attach to that is that at some earlier time, when certain events we know to have happened were still in the future, a different future might have come to pass, so that our past would now be different from what it is. If that sort of analysis is always available, then temporal modality would be logically prior to alethic. And that's not implausible.
But it also seems to me that to characterize the future as undetermined, the realm of possibility, and the past as fixed and incapable of change, is to rely on those ideas as given, so they are logically prior to our substantive understanding of the past and the future. That's my conundrum.
Only it turns out to be harder than I expected even to characterize the immutability of the past clearly, and we've barely talked about what challenges the future might pose.
And all of this is still circling around the problem of truth, because the past is the paradigmatic realm of truth, eternal and unchanging, while there is no truth about the future and for that reason no knowledge but only belief.
Infallibility is unnecessary.
The belief you've attributed to me directly above is something I do not believe. Red herring. The belief you've attributed to me above does not follow from anything I've said. Non sequitur. The belief you've attributed to me above represents your misinterpretation of what I've written thus far. You'll just have to trust me when I say that somewhere along the line you've misattributed meaning to my parts of this exchange. I'm under no burden to demonstrate something I've not claimed.
It's worth mentioning to say that we need not be mistake free in order to know that anthropomorphism is a mistake. In fact, we had to have already been engaging in the personification of things that are not persons(anthropomorphism) in order to even become aware of the fact that we were.
Well... none of the above are adequate and all of the above are necessary in order for us to acquire knowledge of how thought and belief first emerges into the universe and later evolves into the rich and complex variety that we like to say that humans have. The evolutionary origen of thought and/or belief is not inaccessible to us. We need not know everything in order to know some things about that.
It's not as if knowledge of the differences between human thought and belief, non-human language users' thought and belief, and language-less creatures' thought and belief is something that it is impossible for us to understand. We have the tools, the knowledge base, and the potential to acquire such knowledge. I have seen no valid argument to the contrary.
Sometimes the best thing to do is to take a deep breath and go about figuring out exactly what it would take in order for humans to think in the ways that we do. We have to understand our own thought and belief in terms of its evolutionary progression prior to being able successfully discern between our own and other animals'.
Do you agree with all of the following?
1.)Anthropomorphism is when we attribute uniquely human kinds of thought and belief(those that are exclusively human) to things that are not.
2.)Some human thought and/or belief are exclusive to humans.
3.)Some human thought and/or belief are shared by other language using creatures.
4.)Some human thought and/or belief are shared by other language using creatures and language less ones alike.
I agree that - in the overall bigger evolutionary picture - anthropomorphism was inescapable. I disagree that it remains so to this day.
Strangely enough, I'm in complete agreement with you here. Belief about the future goes from prediction to knowledge when it becomes true, and from prediction to falsehood when it becomes false.
If the human intellect is itself a logical system, theres no reason to ask and invites infinite regress when it is. Rules are grounded by the nature of their originating system, affirmed or denied by experience a posteriori or reason a priori. Simple as that.
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Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Seems an awful lot like the same thing, doesnt it?
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Same point as just the innate capacity for empirical knowledge doesnt contain any.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Thats fine; it isnt a law that it should be so. But there is nevertheless a philosophy that does. Wants/needs, desires/interests, aesthetic/discursive judgement and such.
Besides....what sense does it make to get angry that, e.g. the Earth is third from the sun? By the same token, what sense does it make that, e.g. the women in Iran, by wanting to be free of headwear, are thereby violating natural law? The human being has feelings, which should be accounted for in a metaphysical exposition of the complete beast.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Not when considering or stating ones position for what truth is. Truth, as such, is every bit as subjective as ones moral disposition and experiences.
I believe this is the most accurate description you've provided. We don't act on the future, nor do we act on the past, we act at the present. The past is filled with events which we've 'had some say in'. Notice the difference between this and what you said, "the past is what we have some say-so in". This is the main contention with Luke. Once it's in the past, we can no longer have an influence on it, so we cannot truthfully say we have some say in it, it's necessary. And, since as you say "We can only act in the present to select which possible future is realized", the present is the most significant aspect of time for us.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
So we have this issue, the present, which you call "the moment of an event being fully determined and thereby becoming immutable". At this supposed "moment" of the present, events are neither possible (future), nor are they necessary (past), they are "becoming". And this is where logical categories tend to fail us. If we are categorizing past as necessary, and future as possible, then we have to name the intermediate. We could for example use "actual" here, meaning "of the act". But how do we deal logically with things which are of the act itself? If, as you say, the act is when things are being "fully determined",
The glaring problem is that acts always require time, and some parts of the same act are determined prior to other parts of that act. And the length of an act depends on how we identify the particular act. We might divide it in two for example, saying the beginning is the cause, and the end is the effect. So the result is that any identified act consists of aspects which are necessary, and aspects which are possible, and we might find that there is always at the fringes, at the boundaries of what is necessary, always some possibilities which are not "fully determined", such that an act can never be properly said to be "fully determined" in the absolute sense. Conversely, we have the similar argument against free will, that since the human being's capacity to act is very restricted, we do not have "free" will in any absolute sense. This would be because any act identified as a possibility, already has some necessary features. Now events which are occurring at the present contain both necessity and possibility.
Since there is always some degree of possibility intermingled with what we want to say is fully determined, and some degree of necessity intermingled with what we want to say is possible, this implies that the present, what is "actual", really exists as an intermingling of the future and the past. We might call this an overlap. At any precise time in which we make an observation, some aspects of reality are already in the past, necessary, and some are in the future, possible. So the difficulty we have in understanding the nature of reality, is in establishing that relationship between what is necessary, and what is possible. And if some logical axioms deal with possibilities, and others deal with necessities, how could we truthfully relate these two?
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I do not think that this is a correct representation of "truth". That is what Aristotle proposed, there is not truth concerning things not yet decided, like the sea battle tomorrow, and we ought not attempt to apply truth here, applying it only to things of the past. But we can see that this proposal was firmly rejected by the monotheist community, who associate Truth with God. And God in the Old Testament was associated with the present, "I am that I am".
So it may be more productive to associate truth with the present, what is now, at the current time. And here we have the much more difficult and complex issue of understanding how the past is related to the future.
Quoting Mww
It's not really the same thing, because you describe all decision making as based in some sort of "logic". But I describe "logic" as a specialized form of decision making, which shares in something which all forms of decision making have, but we do not really know what it is. So instead of claiming that all decision making uses logic, I say it uses something else, which logic also uses, but we do not really understand what it is.
Quoting Mww
But then you are not saying that empirical knowledge is innate, you are saying that the capacity for empirical knowledge is innate. But in the case of morality, you seem to think that moral knowledge is itself innate, what one feels is right, is right. Which do you really believe, is the capacity for moral knowledge innate, or is moral knowledge itself innate?
Quoting Mww
That's what I've been trying to get at since the binging of the thread. The idea that truth is some sort of objective independent thing is really just a ruse. That idea leads us down the garden path, you might say, leaving us lost, and with nowhere to turn for guidance concerning what truth really is. So to understand truth we must proceed in the other direction, into the subject, and I see the starting point as honesty, because this is a common use of "truth". And this begins with ridding oneself of self-deception concerning faulty notions of truth.
As is your prerogative. Still, under the auspices of if/then theoretical constructs, just seems the more instructive to choose that if which lends itself to being understood enough to permit whatever then may follow from it.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
I do not need to know a feeling is right, if rightness is already given by the feeling of it. What it is possible to know, is that thing which justifies the feeling.
Best to recognize that I cannot reject that this is a bus when I already have experience of busses, which manifests as a blatant self-contradiction, in just the same way I cannot reject the feeling of moral reprehensibility, but without ever having the experience of an object by which a self-contradiction would arise. This is sufficient to prove feelings are not cognitions, from which follows that moral knowledge is a misnomer. Further support resides in the fact that I may know this is true now yet find later this is no longer known as true, a function of experience in which I must cognize something, but that for which I feel as moral will always be what I feel is moral, as a function of personality, for which no cognitions are necessary.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Ill grant half of that, re: honesty, but, if we go back to the subject himself as the starting point, which is the both necessary and sufficient ground, we should find that it is impossible to be dishonest with oneself. It is certainly the case we can be wrong in our judgements regarding a thing, but the means for obtaining them are determinable by logical law, re: if this, then that, and of course, law, under the assumption of predication by the principles of universality and absolute necessity, does not abide dishonesty.
Now it should be clear, that truth is that in which a cognition conforms to its object, and it is the case truth is reducible to the subject in which the cognition resides, and, dishonesty from such cognition is impossible.
While we may be intentionally dishonest in our representation of judgements, that will manifest naturally as a.....yeah, thats right.....a feeling.
Not to mention, a common use of truth doesnt give proper representation of what it is.
My answer would probably be the same as MU's on this point.
You are using "necessary" as a synonym for "has happened", "in the past", or "no longer possible". Nobody but you uses "necessary" to mean "no longer possible". Even if I freely chose to have toast instead of cereal for breakfast and nothing about having toast was inevitable, you would call this event "necessary" only because it is no longer possible to replay the event and to choose again. This fails to answer whether the original event was necessary or merely possible in the first place.
No. Very, very no.
Quoting Luke
Whoa! Do I get some sort of prize for bringing this about?
Quoting Luke
I agree with all of this, at least in spirit, but you have to be careful about the position from which such a claim is made. We have to be able to say that what is cannot not be without falling into a modal fallacy of treating all truths as necessary. (Sometimes it's trickier than it looks, and I said things to @Janus way back in this thread (or maybe the omniscience thread) that were dangerously close to fallacious.)
MU's point is, I think, a little different: from our position in time, we can only "really" think of the past as fixed, so claims about what was or was not possible in the past, at a time before some event occurred or didn't, are inherently somewhat suspicious. And that's not crazy: counterfactual reasoning is famously dicey; but it is just as famously indispensable.
Well at least we agree that belief about the future cannot be true...
:nerd:
I think, most of the time, I've just been asking of a theory of truth that it be true of truth (self consistent), without begging the question. Further, that it not depend upon metaphysics, since as I understand metaphysics at least the theory would then beg the question on truth: we might be able to say, after having settled what is the case "oh, and here's the truth" after the fact, but that's not satisfactory -- we might as well just say the forms are behind the veil of appearances and be done with it if we're going to assume what is the case in order to understand truth.
Not sure what else to add to the list.
Nothing there is controversial except "other language using creatures"; I already asked you to identify which other animals you think use language.
Quoting creativesoul
Again I both agree and disagree depending on your definition of 'anthropomorphism'. That our understandings are human-shaped is inescapable, but egregious uncritical projection of human attributes onto the non-human is avoidable.
For finding a point of agreement between MU and me? You probably should.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Im pretty sure Im not committing that fallacy, but I can see how MU most likely is.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I think youre being quite generous there because thats not how Im reading him. He doesnt mention such suspicion about what was possible in the past when he says that we can make free choices.
We're too far apart on this issue to even start discussion. There's too much I disagree with here. To begin with, I believe that morality consists of judgements of good and bad, not feelings, as you seem to think. There is some merit to your position though, because some feelings are naturally desirable and others we naturally desire to avoid. So it appears at first glance like morality might just be based in whether a feeling is desirable or not. But on a closer look at what morality really consists of, we can see that it involves knowing when and where to seek desirable feelings, and knowing when and where to put up with undesirable feelings. Therefore morality cannot be based solely in feelings, it must also involve knowing when and where specific feelings are appropriate. The problem is that morality is not one or the other, feelings or knowledge, it's complex, and both.
[quote="Mww;745333"...]we should find that it is impossible to be dishonest with oneself.[/quote]
I do not agree with this. There are many forms of dishonesty, and some of them are applicable to oneself. The common example, lying might appear to be impossible to do to oneself, but there are many subtle forms of dishonesty, like withholding information. And we do this to ourselves often. I might tell myself that I can proceed with a project without proper research first. That's a type of laziness, and laziness is often a case of being dishonest with oneself. Sometimes we know what needs to be done, safety precautions, or something like that, but we dishonestly tell ourselves that it's not required this time. The desire for simplicity, in what is a complex situation, can produce dishonesty. We are dishonest with ourselves in many subtle ways when we follow our feelings and proceed into doing what we know is morally wrong. Sometimes this amounts to what is called rationalizing. But you probably won't agree to these examples because you don't think morality involves knowledge anyway.
Quoting Luke
It is actually the common philosophical definition of "necessary", the opposite of impossible. This is why I strongly objected to your proposal to oppose necessary with possible. It is completely inconsistent with conventional philosophy which opposes necessary to impossible. When necessary is opposed to impossible, then possible is completely outside this category. So I said, whatever is necessary or impossible, as dictated by past time, can no longer be considered possible.
Quoting Luke
Well of course it does not answer that question. No one was trying to answer that question, it's an assumption we make, as part of a world view. What I was doing was attempting to define terms, and under those definitions, it makes no sense to speak about a future event as "necessary".
There is however another use of "necessary" a completely distinct meaning, which we do apply to future events. This is "necessary" in the sense of what is judged as needed as a necessity, for the sake of fulfilling a goal. These necessities are the means to the end. The means are determined as necessary in relation to the end, then the act is carried out. So we judge the possibilities, determine which possibilities are required for our goals, and we say that these things are "necessary". We then act on these possibilities which have been designated as "necessary", and the acts come into existence and become "necessary" in the other sense, as the opposite of impossible.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I'll hand it to you. What do you want for a trophy?
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I think the reason why counterfactual reasoning has become so successful is that we have a very good capacity to control and replicate precise circumstances in scientific experimentation. When we replicate an experiment, it's very similar to going back in time to the same situation over again. Then we can change one particular thing and look at the difference in outcome. And we can repeat, changing something else. After we get familiar with how the particular changes affect the outcome, we can simply apply the counterfactual logic instead, without actually redoing the experiment.
Quoting Luke
We start by opposing necessary with impossible. Fine, no problem. But then we need to give "possible" a position, because "possible" provides a truthful description. It appears like "possible" ought to be opposed to "impossible". But it also appears like "possible" ought to be opposed to "necessary". And those two are already opposed to each other, so the real problem begins.
Well, some species of primates use specific vocalizations as alarms for specific predators sighted in the immediate vicinity. It's also my understanding that not all communities of some species do this, or have the same vocalizations for the same predators.
That certainly seems like a case of naturally emerging language use to me.
The thought and belief shared between them and humans would be the sounding of the alarm and believing a predator was nearby upon hearing it. Humans also sound alarms in the face of danger. Humans do it more deliberately, for the sake of sounding the alarm. That's the difference. Language less creatures have no ability to sound an alarm, so sounding an alarm is not the sort of thought and belief that can be shared by language less creatures.
Quoting Janus
It's defined above. You agreed at that point.
This looks far too abstract, poetic, and flowery to be of much use for analysis. Human understanding has no shape at all. I cannot wrap my head around what you're trying to say by using such terms. I ignored it earlier, but it seems pivotal to your position, and given I'm attempting to understand your position, could you rephrase the following...
...understandings are human-shaped...
I agree.
Modal logics define necessary and possible as a pair of operators that apply to propositions; either can be taken as primitive and the other defined in terms of that one, or you can just allow that you're defining the pair together; the interaction of the operators maps naturally to a number of ways of talking about modality (alethic, epistemic, physical, temporal, etc.), but can be defined purely syntactically without specifying a particular interpretation of the operators; a particular modal logic will usually be defined by axioms intended to capture the particular sort of modality desired, and those axioms will vary.
In particular, if we take the necessary operator ? ("box") as primitive, then the possible operator ? ("diamond") is defined as ~?~, that is, not necessarily not. Similarly, the necessary operator is defined as ~?~, that is, not possibly not. This pairing has been very fruitful in clarifying modal issues, and is at this point in the history of logic no more controversial than the standard quantifiers ? and ?. (And in fact, it turns out that one very useful way to think of ? and ? is as a kind of restricted quantifier over possible worlds, which ought to be obvious because ? is ~?~ and ? is ~?~.)
+++
If it isn't clear, the interdefinability of such operators means you only need one of them, but using the pair is way more convenient, and foregrounds how common and important two particular ways of using such an operator are. In other words, we could get by with just ? for a modal operator, and we would find ourselves writing formulas with ?~, and ~?, as well as unadorned ?, but we would also find that we were writing one particular little phrase all the time: ~?~. Same is true for ? and ?: if we just used ?, we'd have to write ~?~ all the time.
(There are no doubt deep reasons for this neg sandwich pattern, but I don't know what they are. Interested, though.)
If A is existentially dependent upon B, then B is necessary for the existence/emergence of A.
Possible world semantics is fraught.
I know we've discussed this before. You believe self-deception is a nonsense concept.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
What I see here, is that if we start with "necessary" under the definition provided by Luke, as "must be", then we need an opposing term which would be "not necessary", and this would provide a rendition of "possible" by Luke's reckoning. However, we also have "necessarily not", and this is a rendition of "impossible". And, we can oppose "impossible" (as necessarily not) with "not necessarily not", and we now have an alternative rendition of "possible", which is opposed to "impossible". So we have here two very distinct renditions of "possible", Luke's is opposed to necessary, as not necessary, and the other is opposed to necessarily not (impossible) as not impossible.
Notice though, that "necessary" and "necessarily not" (impossible), are both forms of necessity. That's why I class them together (like hot and cold), as the two extremes of necessity, under the category "necessary". In the terms of ancient logic, these opposing terms are being and not being, is and is not. Then I propose another name, "possible" which we use to refer to all things outside this category. We can say that the things within the category are things known with certainty, what is and is not, while the things outside this category are the unknowns. Possibilities, whether logical possibilities (could be), or ontological possibilities (may be, as becoming), are the unknowns.
In my representation, the negative sandwich is exposed as a sort of misnomer. The first "not" in "not necessarily not", and "not possibly not", is not used in the same senses as the last "not". This is because the second "not" has been given an elusive referent. What does "necessarily not" or "possibly not" really mean? They are both predications, requiring a subject to give them real meaning. And when we allow for the subject we see that "necessarily not" is just a form of "necessary", and "possibly not" is just a form of "possible". So the negative sandwich is just an unnecessary obfuscation which distracts from the reality that what we are talking about has lost the assurance of certainty, because we have removed ourselves from the realm of the necessary, to talk about the possible. The form of "necessary" employed, now called "necessarily not", is opposed to "possible", as "possibly not", just like Luke's rendition, and is no longer opposed to "necessarily so".
This is done by taking the opposite of necessary, necessarily not (impossible), and proposing it as an independent form of necessary independent from its opposite. So the question is whether this is a valid move, to take the opposite of necessary, i.e. what is not (necessarily not, or impossible), and separate it from what is (necessary), and place it into the category of "possible", as a valid form of certainty. Can we import certainty into the category of the unknown in this way? So let me ask you this, can we determine what is not, without reference to what is? We can in principle describe what is, without reference to what is not, but can we describe what is not, without reference to what is? That I think is what is required to separate "necessarily not" from its true opposite, "necessary", and produce a new category in which it is opposed to "not necessarily not".
I write to express an understanding, not to convince of its truth, so disagreement is to be expected, especially considering the non-scientific nature of the subject matter. Actually, I appreciate intelligible disagreement for its complementarity.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Then all is not lost. Mightve been a significant step forward if the respective causality had been unpacked from my Earth/Iranian women comment the other day.
There are only two feelings, pain and pleasure, each with varying degree. The causality of some pain/pleasure is beyond our control, an instance of that which is done to us, the causal objects or circumstances of which are possibly avoidable. The causality of some pain/pleasure is ourselves, given from our own control, an instance of that which we do to ourselves, therefore are impossible to avoid. These alone are reflections of our moral constitution, which presupposes we are moral agents by our very nature. Which in turn makes morality a valid conception a priori, representing the irreducible and absolutely necessary condition for the being of a moral agent.
There is no knowledge involved herein. None whatsoever. There is pure speculative reason alone. Knowledge has no warrant in its attempts at reification of an abstract a priori conception; reason, on the other hand, has perfect warrant for the providing of it.
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Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Conventionally speaking, thats fine; most people would agree. As a metaphysician, on the other hand, you should know better, insofar as a mere condition has no constituency. That which makes something else possible, is just that. Just as causality, possibility, necessity, community, and so on, is each a singular representation unto itself, that is to say, has no other representation subsumed under it, so too is morality. Whether or not all that is granted, it nonetheless authorizes us to say judgements are limited as constituents of our moral disposition, in that because we are this kind of moral agent we will judge good and bad in this way.
Now, again, best to keep in mind this kind of judgement is aesthetic, representing a feeling, as opposed to discursive, which represents a cognition. We often do good things that feel bad, as well as do bad things that feel good. From that it follows that the judgement of how it feels subjectively to do something, is very different than the judgement for what objectively is to be done.
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Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
All that shows is dishonestly relative to another person, which happens all the time. To withhold information from oneself, presupposes it in that same self. Cant withhold what was never there. That which is presupposed is impossible to deny, which is the same as the impossibility of withholding.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
True enough, but is the purview of empirical psychology. The subject matter were discussing properly resides in the doctrine of metaphysics. Which is probably why we disagree so much. You have not reduced the concepts far enough for metaphysical issues; I have reduced them too far for psychological issues. Meeting in the middle doesnt appear likely.
Good.
Quoting creativesoul
Better.
Quoting creativesoul
Best.
Simple example of how we do this, instead of all this concept juggling:
(1) It is necessary that the book falls if and only if it is not possible that the book does not fall.
(2) It is possible that the book falls if and only if it is not necessary that the book does not fall.
"Not" seems to be used in two ways, but it really isn't; under this scheme it is always a proposition-level operator, just like "possibly" and "necessarily". You build necessary this way:
(1) The book is falling.
(2) It is not the case that (1), the book is falling.
(3) It is possible that (2), that it is not the case that (1), the book is falling.
(4) It is not the case that (3), that it is possible that (2), that it is not the case that (1), the book is falling.
(5) It is necessary that (1), the book is falling.
(5) is here just shorthand for (4). There is a single complete proposition (1), and three operators applied to that proposition, which we can abbreviate as a single operator.
This simplified usage of "not" avoids many confusions: you never predicate "not falling" of an object, you deny that it is falling; you never predicate "not possible" of a proposition, you deny that it is possible. By maintaining discipline in the treatment of "not", you avoid any possibility of confusing, say, "I know it's not Tuesday" and "I don't know it's Tuesday". We can be clear about the scope of the operators we apply to sentences, and we can be clear about the order in which we apply them, and we need not abide ambiguity. This is how we win.
I can't see the relevance of what you are saying here. There are many examples and kinds of animal signalling. Only humans, as far as is known, are capable of symbolic language and linguistically mediated thought. I certainly haven't said we have nothing in common with animals, if that is what you were thinking. There are many analogies between animal and human behavior; the difficulties arise when we want to posit analogies between human and animal experience.
Quoting creativesoul
Yes. symbolic language enables abstraction, which enables self-reflection and deliberation; in other words it inaugurates linguistically mediated thought.
Quoting creativesoul
Many uniquely (as far as we know) human understandings are linguistically mediated, that is they are in symbolic form. There may also be human understandings which are not linguistically mediated, and some of these also may be unique to humans. We don't really know what animal understandings are like, as to that we can only surmise in our human ways. Our interpretations and speculations are always human interpretations and speculations, couched in the forms that are possible for humans; that is to say our understandings are "human-shaped". That doesn't seem hard to understand.
Quoting creativesoul
I think it is well established that humans are capable of deceiving themselves. I've certainly seen self-deception at work in my own case. Perhaps it is impossible to be deliberately dishonest with oneself; self-deception doesn't seem to be intentional (in the psychological, not phenomenological, sense). That said it does seem humanly possible to be willfully blind to things that one really does not want to admit or confront, but still that willfulness does not seem to operate with fully conscious awareness.
I agree with Joseph Rouses take on the homologies between humans and other animals with respect to language.
Elisabeth Lloyd (2004) shows that the fortuitous success of the bonobo Kanzi in acquiring a rudimentary linguistic capacity has changed the terms in which these issues should be addressed (Savage-Rumbaugh, Shanker, and Taylor 1998). Kanzi inadvertently participated in experiments on language acquisition because his mother was a research subject, and he was too young to be separated from her. While his mother struggled with the experimental protocol, Kanzi did much better despite not being initially targeted for instruction. Eventually, Kanzi acquired not only a substantial vocabulary of symbols but also the ability to produce novel, intelligible syntactic recombinations. The experimenters plausibly characterized his eventual linguistic capacities as in some respects comparable to those of a thirty-month-old normal human child. The interpretation of these data is controversial (see Pinker 1994,Savage-Rumbaugh, Shanker, and Taylor 1998; Lloyd 2004; Bickerton 2009), but I follow Lloyd in her insistence that Kanzis achievement shows that the neurological capacity for linguistic understanding is homologous between humans and bonobos and probably extends further to common ancestors.
the capacity for producing and consuming linguistic expressions is not uniquely human and did not emerge as a novel capacity in the Homo lineage. Other species in the primate lineage who share this capacity have nevertheless not developed language on their own, even in rudimentary forms, despite having the neurological basis for producing and understanding symbolic expressions with syntactic structure.
This capacity for linguistic expression and understanding has only been expressed in experimental settings that bring other apes into contact with an analogue to human language adapted to their perceptual and expressive abilities. This fact strongly suggests either a lack of selection pressure in other lineages for linguistic communication or substantial barriers to the realization of this latent capacity.
Animals don't do the "...counts as..." thing that we do as a matter of course.
Right, but dogs do ask to go outside, which is interesting because it means they are not purely responsive to their environment. It's not like the sight of the door to the backyard triggers the desire; they go to the door. The natural thing to say here is there is some kind of idea of backyard even when they're not immediately experiencing backyard, so that's at least some kind of displacement.
Quoting Banno
Don't they? Doesn't just about every living organism? Counts as food. Counts as protection. Counts as scary predator. Counts as my territory. Counts as invader.
Then again, there are those beetles that mistakenly "mate" with brown beer bottles. Maybe a lot of organisms skip the class step and only have the criterion of class membership. But then you're right back to counts-as-the-criterion.
Of course, evolution is a cheapskate, so it gave the beetles a really crappy mate selector that was just good enough until it was foiled by the arrival of brown beer bottles
They don't get to decide what is or is not food. It's food or it isn't, it's a mate or it isn't. So no.
We get to say that this counts as Tuesday, that counts as money, and so on.
Quoting Banno
I see. That's rather a different claim than I was addressing.
And judging by the quote next, your idea is that other organisms lack institutional facts.
Quoting Banno
This doesn't seem right to me: I would have said that declarations set out how things shall be; things which may or may not already be as declared.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
This reminds me of the phenomenological notion of "seeing as" and Gibson's "affordances". It seems plausible to think that animals and humans alike see things as affording possibilities for action. Different animals, for example, will see different things as food; as "to be eaten". But, lacking symbolic language, this would not be potentially self-reflexive; such that the animal could think "I can eat this, therefore it counts as food".
A shame, since it is right. it's just that we get to decide what counts as a simple.
Donald Hoffman has a lot to answer for.
I wasn't talking about what counts as a simple or what counts as anything else, so I don't know what you are referring to with that. I think it is more correct to say that declarations set out how things shall be, which allows that things may already be or not be as the declaration sets out. I'm thinking more of declarations in the political sense, though, which is what I thought you had in mind. I wasn't thinking of things like:
She declared, "Look, the sun is rising and the clouds are clearing".
I don't think such locutions count so much as declarations, despite the use of "declared", as they count as statements. The 'declared" there seems to me to indicate that the sun rising and the clouds clearing is of some more than usual import. Do you count all statements as declarations, and if not how do you distinguish them?
Quoting Tom Storm
I didn't know he was the creator of beetles.
But I was, in the part you quoted... so you are not addressing that?
"The cat is on the mat" supposes cats and mats.
The relevance is that such stuff is already an interpretation.
"Decide" seems an unusually cognitive word for you to lean on.
I don't see what cats being on mats has to do with declarations. Declaratives maybe, I suppose. In any case you should know from many previous posts that I am in agreement with Husserl and Heidegger, (they being, as far as I know, the first philosophers to point it out) that all seeing is "seeing as" or in other words that all perceptions are always already interpretations.
So, nothing controversial there in what you say.
Well, it's early days, and if these beetles survive it stands to reason that the individuals that did not try to impregnate beer bottles will be represented in coming generations at substantially higher rates than those that did. That might be luck. Or it might be that some beetles have a slightly more elaborate criterion for mate identification that excludes beer bottles. So the beetle population should gradually steer away from this particular dead end.
I can't take Hoffman seriously, so I haven't looked to see whether his model allows this sort of refinement. I don't think evolutionary biologists were committed to a view that species jump to knowing everything all at once.
You start off with a false premise. "Feelings" are sensations and there is many different sorts of them, often involving neither pleasure nor pain. Consider sight, sound, or even taste which is a tactile sensation. Many tastes, like spices for example are neither pleasant nor painful. The same is the case for all the different senses, there are many different sensations which are neither pleasurable nor painful. The sense of touch for example, you can feel around, looking for something with your hand, or feeling your way in the dark, and these feelings are neither pleasurable nor painful, though they are informative. That a particular feeling is peasant, or painful, is a judgement.
Quoting Mww
Sure one's judgements are based on one's disposition, but generally speaking we judge good and bad according to how we were taught, not according to what we feel. That is what constitutes our moral disposition, how we've been trained, not how we feel. I don't know why you deny this. And this is how our moral judgements extend far beyond our personal feelings. We make moral judgements concerning principles which have no feeling about at all.
Quoting Mww
I don't understand this. It seems to be completely inconsistent with what you've been saying. Perhaps you could explain. If "good" and "bad" are solely determined by what feels good, and what feels bad, how is it possible that one could do a good thing which feels bad, or a bad thing that feels good? And what do you mean by "the judgement for what objectively is to be done"? How does objectivity enter morality in your mind?
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
You are just stating the same thing as the last post, in a different way, so the result is the same question i brought up at the end of the last post.
But "not" is definitely used in two different ways. When you say in (1), "not possible", "not" negates "possible" in the sense of proposing an opposite to "necessary". But when you say "does not fall", here "not" does not negate "fall" as an opposite to "fall" it simply says that the action does not happen. To say in particular, "a fall does not happen", and to say in general, "a fall is not possible", is to use "not" in two distinct ways. "Fall" is a verb, "possible" is an adjective. But the use of "not" is beside the point.
All you have here is the meaningless, circular definition, which I objected to earlier. "Necessary" is defined as "not possible", and "possible" is defined as "not necessary". But this is not truthful for the reasons I've given. "Necessary" is properly opposed to "impossible", as I've explained. And "impossible" cannot be opposed to "possible" because this would make "necessary" and "possible" the same. So we need to put "possible" in a place distinct from the category which contains those opposites, necessary and impossible.
I'll address this, since it's clear enough.
You are making what I would consider a scope error.
The opposite of "The car is blue" is "It is not the case that the car is blue," which we can also express as "The car is not blue" because there is only a single level here. (And note this doesn't imply that there is a color we call in English "not blue".)
But suppose our sentence is embedded in another:
(a) "Sheila knows that the car is blue."
What's the opposite of that? Is it
(b) "Sheila knows that the car is not blue"
or is it
(c) "Sheila does not know that the car is blue"
It's (c). To find the opposite we must negate the outermost, enclosing scope "Sheila knows that ...", not the inner scope "The car is blue". The opposite of knowing something is not knowing it, not knowing the opposite. Everyone knows that.
So it is with modal operators. If I say
(1) It is possible the car is blue
the opposite of that is
(2) It is not possible that the car is blue
negating the outermost scope. We do not push the "not" into the scope of "It is possible that ..." producing
(*3) It is possible that the car is not blue
anymore than we do with "Sheila knows that ..." That's a scope error.
The opposite of
(4) Troy believes that Sheila said that it's possible that Dave knows today is my birthday
is simply
(5) Troy doesn't believe that Sheila said that it's possible that Dave knows today is my birthday
We're spoiled for choice as to where else to stick in our "not", but all the others are wrong. You negate the outermost scope and there's your opposite. Here are all the others, they all mean something different, and none is the opposite of (4):
(*6) Troy believes that Sheila didn't say that it's possible that Dave knows today is my birthday
(*7) Troy believes that Sheila said that it's not possible that Dave knows today is my birthday
(*8) Troy believes that Sheila said that it's possible that Dave doesn't know today is my birthday
(*9) Troy believes that Sheila said that it's possible that Dave knows today is not my birthday
You asked about other animals using language. I offered an example. I do not believe that you do not see the relevance.
It's certainly not the only one. As others have mentioned, dogs will ask for food. My ducks do the same. There are specific behaviours to support all this. Reasoning to boot. Logical argument to bolster.
Are you denying that these are examples of language use?
I take it that you're saying that the primates mentioned heretofore are not language users, but merely signaling, and that signaling does not count as language use.
This presupposes a criterion for what counts as language use.
I'd like to see the one you're putting to use.
Unhelpful nonsense. Speaking of anthropomorphism.
Language does not have agency. All things that are capable of mediation do. Mediation is done for the sake of mediating. Language does not mediate. There are no linguistically mediated human thought.
Language creation and subsequent use influences and enable the richness and depth of human thought.
We are not the only language users living on the face of the earth.
Whatever you are calling "linguistically mediated thought" is neither the only nor the simplest kind of thought humans have. Likely it is one of the most complex.
Metaphysically speaking, I take these terms to mean:
1. Impossible = cannot occur
2. Possible = can occur
3. Necessary = must occur
This does not make "necessary" and "possible" the same. It opposes the concepts of 1 and 2 to each other, and the concepts of 2 and 3 to each other. This does not require "possible" to be in a distinct category.
I was referring specifically to symbolic language, to linguistic competency.
Quoting creativesoul
Quoting creativesoul
There is no point making bare assertions such as "unhelpful nonsense" without explaining why you think so. That is truly unhelpful.Same with the accusation of anthropomorphism; quote what I have said and explain why you think it is anthropomorphic if want an actual discussion.
Yes, what I am calling linguistically mediated thought is neither the only or the simplest kind of thought, on the contrary it is the most complex: in that it is rich in symbols which allow us the think counterfactually, reflexively and self-referentially; what on Earth led you to think I was claiming otherwise? You seem to be making my argument for me.
That's not true.
I know when my cat wants treats. She behaves in certain ways. She will even lead me to the food bowl. She will sometimes sit in silence for ten minutes or more right beside the treat dispenser on the floor waiting for the moment I make eye contact with her. Then she meows and rubs her side around and across my leg and often purrs while I dispense the kibbles into the bowl. The sound of kibbles hitting the sides of her bowl is important to her too. The quantity of kibbles, not so much. Most times, she will not eat until after I gently stroke her from head to tail. Her tail almost always does this little shimmy thing at the end as she steps out of the stroke and into her feeding position.
I suggest you reread the post. What you ask for was already given.
So, any and all attribution of such thought to non humans is anthropomorphism at work. I agree there. Not all language use involves using meaningful marks.
The alarm screech symbolizes danger. The creatures using the screech connect the two and become language users as a result. The screech becomes meaningful with use.
All 'linguistically mediated thought' involves language use. Some non human animals have language. Thought they have that involve language use are 'linguistically mediated thought'. The sounding of the alarm is a 'linguistically mediated thought' because it is a thought consisting of correlations drawn between the vocalization and danger. Becoming aware of danger by virtue of knowing what an alarm sound means is linguistically mediated thought.
We cannot draw and maintain the distinction between the sorts of thoughts that we have and the sorts of thought that other language using animals have with the notion of 'linguistically mediated thought'.
Yes, that's exactly the problem. If (1) is defined as opposed to (2), and (3) is defined as opposed to (2), then (1) and (3) must have the very same meaning, by definition. Obviously though, "impossible" and "necessary" do not have the same meaning. Therefore we need a fix for this problem. My proposal was to put "possible" in a different category from "necessary" and "impossible" which are properly opposed, because "possible" I believe cannot be properly opposed to "necessary" due to our conception of "impossible"
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I really do not think that this explains the issue. Allow me to describe the problem more clearly if you will. The issue is with the definition of "necessary". If we propose to define "necessary" in relation to possible, as you did in the last post, then we also have to allow that it has a relation to impossible. The same sense of "necessary", in common usage has a relation with possible and also a relation with impossible (not possible). So if we simply define "necessary" as opposed to possible then we do not provide an accurate (truthful) representation of "necessary" because we do not provide a position for impossible. "Impossible" has been excluded from having a position in the schema because necessary has been opposed to possible.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
So, look at this rendition of "possible", produced from your (1) where necessary was defined as opposed to possible. We can pinpoint the inaccuracy here. The phrase "it is not necessary that the book falls" is actually ambiguous because it implies (a) it is impossible that the book falls, and (b) it is possible that the book falls. I think you'll agree that (a) is very different from (b). However, your proposal excludes (b) by saying that we must allow (a) only, through definition.
What this proposal does is that it removes "impossible" from the schema through a faulty definition of "possible", induced by the prior definition of "necessary". Everything is either necessary or possible. There is no such thing as impossible. And this is very evident in what we refer to as "logical possibility", anything is possible. So "logical possibility", produced by this means, provides no real defined sense of "impossible", and this is why it does not provide us with a truthful or accurate representation of reality.
Now, we might account for this by saying that impossible is a form of necessary. This appears to be the most accurate way to go. But then we need to distinguish within our definition of "necessary", the difference between what necessarily is, and what necessarily is not. And, the real issue is that when we proceed from here to establish a relationship between each of these two and possibility, we have to respect the fact that one is the inverse of the other, so they cannot have the exact same relation. This inversion becomes very evident in probabilities. The more precise, or particular, the individual specific identified thing is, i.e. that which we want to relate to "necessary" (in its two senses of is and is not), the more certain we can be in the sense of is not, and the less certain we can be in the sense of is. This is why philosophical skepticism concerning claims about "what is", cannot be eradicated, while we can readily dismiss claims about "what is not", nothingness.
Why? I've already defined them above and you can see that they don't have the very same meaning. If 1 and 3 must have the same meaning, then my definitions must be incorrect. So, how are they incorrect?
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Or else your assumption that they must have the very same meaning is faulty.
This is not a happy use of "opposes"; see below.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Unless by "opposed to" you mean something different from "is the opposite of," or by "is the opposite of" you mean something besides "is the negative of," then this is another scope error. We have
[math]\ \ \ \ \ [/math]Possible (?)
Then there's "impossible," which is just
[math]\ \ \ \ \ [/math]Not Possible (~?)
The opposite of impossible is
[math]\ \ \ \ \ [/math]Not Not Possible (~~?)
which is of course just Possible (?), unless we're contemplating an intuitionistic logic, and we're not. That just leaves necessity, which we get by putting a negative inside:
[math]\ \ \ \ \ [/math]Not Possibly Not (~?~)
To complete the set of possibilities, we could mention
[math]\ \ \ \ \ [/math]Possibly Not (?~)
which obviously tends to run alongside Possible (?), without being it's opposite. (It's the opposite of Necessary.)
Evidently, you agree with the use of negation to produce opposites, or you wouldn't have said that two opposites of one thing must be the same thing. But you're not paying attention to what you negate to produce the opposites; you're not paying attention to scope.
Impossible
Possible = Not Impossible
Necessary = Impossibly Not
since the necessity of P is just the impossibility of P's opposite.
Possible is opposed to Not Possible. Isn't Possible also opposed to Not Possibly Not?
Meaning what? What does "opposed to" mean? Does it mean distinguished from, or actually is the negative of? I take opposite to indicate the negative, and anything else is ambiguity we can do without.
So, no, Possible (?) is the opposite of Not Possible (~?), and nothing else.
The opposite of Necessary (~?~) is Not Necessary (?~).
While we're here, we can do "necessarily not," which MU mentions now and again: that's ~?~~, which reduces to Not Possible (~?), or impossible, which, duh. So we can also say that the opposite of Possible is Necessarily Not and it isn't anything else.
Not Necessary (?~) is equivalent to Possibly Not (?~).
It is unclear to me why Not Necessary (?~) is not also equivalent to Possible (?).
Your feelings related to sensation are not my feelings related to emotional status.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Objectivity doesnt enter morality itself, but only manifests as a determined physical act occurring in response to a subjectively determinable moral situation.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
What is to be objectively done, is performance of some physical act. In the same way that we judge what an object is, that which is given to perception from the world, for which it is the cause, so too do we judge what we put in the world, for which we are its cause. In the former we are affected by the world, in the latter our acts are effects on the world. In both circumstances are found congruent empirical conditions, insofar as both are directly related to the world, which makes explicit....logically explicit, that is.....they both follow from the same kind of judgement, which is called discursive.
Do you see the classic is-ought moral dilemma here?
Yes, and I should add I think that matches our intuitions: if something isn't necessarily the case, then it's possibly not the case.
Quoting Luke
The problem is necessity.
Saying something is true might seem to entail that it could be false, but it doesn't, because what you're saying might be necessarily true. 3 + 4 is 7 doesn't entail that 3 + 4 might not be 7.
So it is with possibility: to say that P is possible might seem to entail that ~P is also possible, but we can't do that because it may be that P is necessary, and that's why it's possible. Same as above: it is possible that 3 + 4 is 7, because it is, and it is necessarily.
Does that make sense?
It is absolutely true that we tend to reach for "possible" in epistemic situations that have a kind of constructivist flavor to them, that we say possible when it's all we know, and we don't have actuality or necessity in hand. (That's what I mean by "constructivist" there, that we use possible when we have not demonstrated actual or necessary.) So in a lot of cases where we want to say "possible" we really want to say "possibly not" too as a way of covering our bets; but that's a mistake: we need to demonstrate possibly not, because for all we know it will turn out possibly not isn't actually an option.
Of course that only matters if you're working in a domain where necessary makes sense, and for a lot of the everyday matters of fact we deal with, we often assume we can rule out necessity. "He might be on time," in everyday reasoning, does seem to entail that he might not. Whether we should make those assumptions, I dunno.
Quoting Janus
Did you mean something different than this?
Evidence that an animal is capable of some degree of symbolic, human language processing supports the argument that the animal's consciousness is to some degree human-like.
One can , of course, distinguish between capacity for and natural use of symbolic language. Bonobos have been shown to have this capacity, but only demonstrate it in artificially induced situations prompted by humans.
Not really. I asked about non-necessity - why it's not equivalent to possible/possibly - and you've responded that we need to beware of necessity...? But I'm assuming non-necessity.
Ah, okay, I see what went wrong now.
My point was that we don't derive Possibly ~P from Possibly P, because for all we know Necessarily P.
Here you have Not Necessarily P
and you want to know why it's not equivalent to Possibly P
We could try proving that, but we don't have any axioms, so let's try an example.
I've got my usual urn of marbles, and I tell you that the marbles in the urn are not necessarily red. You can conclude, given that the urn is not empty, that there is at least one marble in the urn that is not red. Good so far? By restricting our domain to an urn of marbles, we get to cash out the modal claims as quantifiers. Can you conclude that at least one of the marbles is red, that the urn contains a mix of red and not red? No, you cannot. "There is at least one non-red marble in the urn" is the entirety of what you know; it is a complete translation of "The marbles in the urn are not necessarily red."
Of each marble in the urn, it is false that it must be red. Clearly, that condition can be satisfied by it being false of every marble in the urn that it is red. (That is, it being true of no marble in the urn that it is red.) If this turns out to be the case, we would have that it is necessarily false of each marble that it is red. That's consistent with it not being necessarily true of any marble that it is red.
Since Not Necessarily P is consistent with Necessarily Not P, it's not equivalent to Not Necessarily Not P, else we'd have a contradiction. Or we can say: Possibly Not P is consistent with Not Possibly P, so it's not equivalent to Possibly P.
Sorry this is so repetitive. I'm never sure which may of putting things will be clearest.
Isn't Possibly P also ~?P?
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I wouldn't think it follows from "the marbles in the urn are not necessarily red" that there must be at least one marble that's not red. I would think it follows from "the marbles in the urn are not necessarily red" that it is possible that all marbles in the urn are red, that some marbles in the urn are red, or that no marbles in the urn are red.
No, it isn't. ?P ? ~?~P and ?P ? ~?~P. That's the standard, and it maps onto quantifiers in an obvious way.
Quoting Luke
Dang. I'll try again.
We have a set of marbles you're going to pick from. We're going to look at claims about what necessarily results when you pick and what possibly results when you pick.
If when you pick a marble, you get a red one, without exception, that's necessity. Necessity is like a universal quantifier with a restricted domain. Necessity means all the marbles are red. There's only the one result possible when you pick.
If when you pick a marble, you at least once get a red one, that's possibility. Possibility is like an existential quantifier with a restricted domain. Possibility means at least one of the marbles is red.
That might be hard to see at first, even with the analogy to ?, but suppose you pick all the marbles and not one of them is red. Then we would say it was not possible to pick a red marble from that set. I think that fits our intuitions perfectly. To say it is possible to pick a red marble from that set must mean that there is at least one red marble to be picked.
Not Necessarily is Possibly Not, so that's our existential quantifier. It says you can pick a non-red marble from the set because there is at least one non-red marble to be picked. If you can't pick a non-red marble, that's because all the marbles are red; that's the situation we say we are not in.
And it should be clear that there being at least one non-red marble in the set is consistent with there being only non-red marbles in the set. That is, Possibly Not Red is consistent with Necessarily Not Red.
From this we conclude that Possibly Not Red is not the same as Possibly Red, because if it were, we would have to say that Possibly Red is consistent with Necessarily Not Red; we would have to have a set of marbles at least one of which was red and all of which were not red. No go.
Better?
Should probably add that ?P is consistent both with ?P and with ~?P.
With marbles, that's to say that there being at least one red marble in the set is consistent with all the marbles in the set being red, and with not all the marbles in the set being red (but at least one is).
~?P by itself just says 'not all', P is not true of everything in the domain. Might not be true of anything.
Quoting creativesoul
True, langauge use also involves using meaningful sounds or gestures (sign language). I don't know what point you are making with that, though.
Quoting creativesoul
I don't think that's right; I think the alarm screech signals danger. Symbolization is more abstract, and this is just where our use of language distinguishes us from the other animals.
Quoting creativesoul
I disagree. Just because it is a sound, because it is, so to speak, "of the tongue" does not qualify it as linguistic, on account of the etymology. What about bodily gestures that animals use to signal responses; do they qualify as "linguistic", according to you?
Quoting creativesoul
Again I disagree; it is precisely our linguistic competencies, which animals do not possess, which enables human culture, history and literature and self-reflective thought and all kinds of disciplines couched in generalization and abstraction and which distinguishes us from the other animals.
Quoting Joshs
See my replies to creativesoul above. I don't deny that animals' consciousness is more or less human-like, although I think they cannot experience the kinds of self-reflective consciousness that humans do just because they are not competent users of symbolic language. I don't doubt we still have the pre-linguistic "animal" layer of consciousness, although I think it is more or less overshadowed by our self-reflective, symbolic consciousness; and on account of that I would rather say that human consciousness is to some degree animal-like than to say that animal consciousness is to some degree human-like, and also precisely because it is the animal consciousness that is the more general and the human that is the more specific.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
My question was why Not Necessary (?~) is not also equivalent to Possible (?).
In the section quoted above, you start out referring to Not Necessarily (red), which means that "there is at least one non-red marble to be picked". But you then make the subtle switch to talking about Necessarily Not (red),
If Not Necessarily (red) means "there is at least one non-red marble to be picked", then I still don't see how that differs from Possibly (red), which means that "at least one of the marbles is red" and that not "all the marbles are red" (otherwise red would be necessary).
Recall, this was the original exchange:
Quoting Janus
I was merely pointing out that declarations do not necessarily set out how things are, but more commonly set out how things shall or should be; which of course as I acknowledged there, does not rule out that what is declared may set out how things already are,
So, are we actually arguing about anything? Are you wanting to claim that declarations only, or even more commonly, set out how things are, and not how they shall be?
What?
Quoting Janus
I'm not. You appear to think you are. Odd.
There was no "subtle switch."
Not Necessarily Red is equivalent to Possibly Not Red.
Not Necessarily Red is consistent with Necessarily Not Red, which ought to be obvious because Possibly Not Red is clearly consistent with Necessarily Not Red.
If Not Necessarily Red (Possibly Not Red) is equivalent to Possibly Red, then Possibly Red is consistent with Necessarily Not Red. But it's not, therefore, Not Necessarily Red is not equivalent to Possibly Red.
Quoting Luke
What you're missing is that we only have Not Necessarily Red so we know at least one marble is non-red but we don't have Not Necessarily Not Red (i.e., Possibly Red), so it is entirely consistent for the set of marbles to be all non-red.
Quoting Banno
Below is what I quoted from you and responded to:
Quoting Janus
So, it seemed you were claiming that declarations do set out how things are, perhaps you meant not do, but can, in which case it should have been obvious that I was not disagreeing.
Okay. Replace "symbolizes" with "signals" and the argument that that bit was excised from still stands strong. You need to address it along with all the earlier arguments that have went sorely neglected since being made.
Either it's irony or deliberate deception. Neither is acceptable.
Ok. Whatever.
Quoting creativesoul
The proof for that is demonstrated by the way you attribute agency to language. Again that's been proven. You've yet to have squared those circles despite repeated attempts at redefinition.
You cannot avoid anthropomorphism because "linguistically mediated thought" is a prima facie example of anthropomorphism. All this and then some has been more than adequately argued for without subsequent due attention.
I haven't been addressing, or even attempting to address the question of whether animals and humans alike are conscious in ways enabled by the capacity to signal; I'd say yes to that of course.
It's incredible that you impute irony or deliberate deception on my part, when it should have clear to you that I have all along only been addressing the question of the kind of consciousness enabled by symbolic language.
Quoting creativesoul
I have never imputed agency to language. If, in your confusion, you think I have, then quote the relevant passage(s).
Quoting creativesoul
Is this a joke? Explain how ""linguistically mediated thought" is a prima facie example of anthropomorphism" or if you think you already have, then cite or quote the relevant passages. Keep in mind my two definitions of anthropomorphism, and be mindful that I only have the "egregious imputation of human characteristics onto the non-human" in mind here, which should be obvious given what I have said I think about the other definition.
Does language mediate human thought?
Of course it does.
mediate
vb
1. (intr; usually foll by between or in) to intervene (between parties or in a dispute) in order to bring about agreement
2. to bring about (an agreement)
3. to bring about (an agreement) between parties in a dispute
4. to resolve (differences) by mediation
5. (intr) to be in a middle or intermediate position
6. (tr) to serve as a medium for causing (a result) or transferring (objects, information, etc)
Look at '6.' From here
Language does those things?
No agency required?
Open admission of an equivocation of terms fallacy?
Mediation is not performed by language. Language is incapable of mediating. We mediate. Mediation is performed by us. We are creatures with agency. Language is the tool we use to do so. It serves as the medium. Mediating is what's being performed/enacted/done by a mediator. Mediators use language as a medium for successful mediation.
Language does not mediate. Language is not a mediator. Mediators mediate.
Such a denial requires some sort of justification for the denial. If that does not count as one of the simplest sorts of language use emerging into the universe, then what does? Where do you draw the line at a bare minimum over there on the left side of your spectrum?
It can't be me making the scope error, because it's your examples only, not mine. Am I making an interpretive scope error? Here's the example again:
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Can you give me a simple explanation as to why you switch from talking about whether or not "the book falls" (future, or perhaps tenseless)), to "the book is falling" (present)?
The issue I pointed out with the dual use of "not" is that "it is not necessary that the book does not fall", the first (2), uses two senses of "not". "Does not fall" does not negate "fall", like "not necessary" negates "necessary". What "not" does in this case is stipulate that there is no real world activity of falling.
You assign a scope error to me, saying the following: "This simplified usage of "not" avoids many confusions: you never predicate "not falling" of an object, you deny that it is falling; you never predicate "not possible" of a proposition, you deny that it is possible." But it was you yourself who predicated "not" of "fall" in your statement: " (2) It is possible that the book falls if and only if it is not necessary that the book does not fall."
It appears to me, like you have created an illusion, by changing the temporal scope of the example. In the explanation you've switched from whether or not the book falls (indefinite temporal scope), to whether or not the book is falling (present time). This allows you to talk about the book not falling without directly predicating "not falling" of the object. But in the other case, there is no temporal scope, so what is at issue is never falling, the possibility that it is impossible for the book to fall, and this requires the denied predication.
Notice that with the restricted scope (present only) it is possible to talk about whether or not the book is falling, without predicating "not falling" of the object. But in the original example we cannot get to the possibility that "the book does not fall" without predicating "not falling" of the object.
This is the meaning of "impossible" which I am trying to bring to your attention, which your schema excludes. "It is impossible that the book is falling", or more properly said, "it is necessary that the book is not falling".
What happens in your explanation, is that by refusing to predicate "not falling" of the object, you put "not falling" outside the scope of what you are talking about, so that you are only talking about the book falling. By doing this you exclude the possibility of "it is necessary that the book is not falling". In other words, you exclude the impossible from your schema. Then "not falling" becomes something completely distinct from "falling", rather than the opposite of it.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Thanks for taking the time to clarify. I understand now. I wrote this down to help get my head around it:
1. Necessary (?): Necessarily Red = All are red
2. Possible Not (~?): Not Necessarily Red = At least one is not red (not all are red)
3. Possible (~?~): Not Necessarily Not Red = At least one is red (not none are red)
4. Impossible (?~): Necessarily Not Red = None are red
I wasn't aware of the distinction between Possible Not and Possible when I asked my question earlier. It's more logically pedantic than what I had in mind. Possible Not and Possible both denote possibility, referring to "some" as opposed to "all" or "none". However, while I accept that Possible Not and Possible are technically different to each other, I think they can still be viewed as "opposed to" or distinct from Necessary and Impossible, respectively, each in the same (but inverse) way. Does logical negation constitute an opposite? Because, in the table above, 2 is the negation of 1 and 3 is the negation of 4.
I think so, yes, at least for the simplest cases. There may be some subtleties to the linguistics I can't call to mind at the moment.
Yes, because I was perhaps inadvisedly using an example of a temporal event but trying not to prejudice the interpretation of the modality, so talking about this temporal event tenselessly.
I never even checked to see if there are problems if you read the example with tense in mind. If that comes out badly, I apologize for the confusion. It's just an artifact.
The example I went through with @Luke ended up being much easier to write.
You say a lot of things I agree with, but apparently thinking that I don't, because there's still some confusion about the handling of "not." One point I think I clarified somewhere else is that in something like "The book is not red," we place the "not" before "red" purely as a matter of English convention, and because, with no other scope in play, there's no ambiguity. But that's still a proposition-level "not" and a more verbose way to say the same thing is "It is not the case that ball is red." It's sometimes convenient to pretend that "not red" is something we might predicate of an object, but it isn't really. "Not red" is not a syntactical element of the proposition at all, and therefore not a semantic unit either. "Red" is, as a predicate, and "not" is, as an operator on the entire proposition. "Not" doesn't apply to predicates or objects. As long as we keep in mind the logical form of what we're saying, I see no harm in using ordinary English, but I'll switch to "philosophical English" when there's ambiguity to be avoided.
I do think it's because they do often go together for the sorts of things we reason about. ("He might be on time, or he might not.")
Quoting Luke
That's quite reasonable, but relying on "opposite" to mean different things will just lead to trouble. In the old square of opposition different sorts of pairwise contrasts get different names.
How have I used "opposite" to mean different things?
Yes. It really is.
We need not pretend that it is not convention for all of us to say of a book that it is not red, even if it is convenient to admit the convention and then act like it's not something we 'really' do as a means for rationalizing or handwaving away our inability to take proper account of the fact that we do it.
Rhetorical drivel.
Right, I think I follow this. Now let me tell you the issue I'm talking about, taking this simple example of "the book is not red". As it stands "not" is an operator which negates "the book is red". There is one necessity implied, i.e. it is impossible that the book is red. It is necessary that the book is not red.
Now, we want to move into a logical mode of possibility, and allow for a possibility that the book is red. So we relate "it is possible that the book is red", with "it is necessary that the book is red" in the ways that you describe. But what happens to the original, "the book is not red", or |
" it is impossible that the book is red" with this move? Because the new mode is the possibility that the book is red, we must exclude this option (it is impossible that the book is red), as not a possibility.
The question is whether it is a valid move to exclude the possibility that it is impossible that the book is red. Isn't this a real possibility which ought to be allowed for in discussing the possibility that the book is red? It is possible that it is impossible that the book is red. According to what you describe, it appears to me like the logical schema denies this possibility by saying that it opens a new category, the category of "not-red", and then we'd have to discuss the possibility of this. In this case "the book is not red" would mean "it is necessary that the book is not red", which would be an instance of predicating "not-red" of the book.
So the issue as I see it, is that I want to allow "it is impossible that the book is red" as a valid possibility, when we are talking about the possibility of whether or not the book is red. But the logical schema disallows this possibility. And, it is the logical schema which makes "not-red" into a distinct category of predication, thereby blocking this possibility. Therefore you cannot use that as an argument for why we ought to accept the logical schema, that if we allow "it is impossible that the book is red" as a valid possibility, it makes "not-red" into a category of its own, distinct from "red", rather than the negation of red, because that's just begging the question. From my perspective, that's just evidence that the logical schema is flawed. Instead of having "red" and "not-red" as the two extremes of one category, with all the possibilities lying between, it treats "red" and "not-red" as distinct categories of possibility, with no proper way of establishing a relationship between the possibility of each of these two.
One predicate is distinct from another if they don't have identical extensions, even if they overlap (as various cases of possibility and necessity do). One predicate is the opposite of another, usually, if one is the complement of the other, includes everything it doesn't and nothing it does. I'm not sure we have an everyday word for only being disjoint, that is, being a subset of the complement.
Quoting bongo furyQuoting bongo fury
Quoting bongo fury
Quoting bongo fury
Quoting bongo fury
This way of looking at necessity seems wrong to me. When I think of necessity, I think of something like "all visible objects are spatiotemporal" which makes sense since it is impossible to imagine a non-spatiotemporal visual object.
It is not impossible to imagine any object being red or not being red. So even if all examples of a certain kind of object were red, it does not follow that a non-red object of that kind could not turn up. Even if (although we could never know it) all objects of a certain kind have been, are and will be red it does not seem to follow that it would be necessary that they were, are or will be red. That they were, are and will be all red could be a contingent matter, that is it just so happens that all of those kinds of objects have been, are and will be red.
Let's look at another example, so we have a comparison. (There are features of the first example that may be confusing.)
Consider playground balls, the ones kids play dodgeball and four-square with. Those are (classically) all red. Why? Because they're made from red rubber. We would say, it is impossible to make a non-red ball out of red rubber. That seems straightforward.
Do we mean something similar when we ask if this red ball 'might have been' a different color, or if it 'can be' a different color? Or if we ask, of some ball, the color of which we do not know, if it 'must be' red?
Is this ball *this ball* if it is a different color? Is redness essential to it? For comparison, if this ball is flat, we can inflate it, and we will not usually say that being flat is essential to what the ball is, just its temporary state.
But it is nevertheless true that if it is flat, it is not fully inflated, and that's just the law of noncontradiction. When we say this red ball cannot not be red, are we even saying anything about the ball? Or are we only saying that at this world, as at all others, the law of noncontradiction holds?
To say that there are no worlds at which this ball is both red and not red is to say almost nothing at all. There simply are no such worlds, no worlds at which any ball, this one or another, is both red and not red. If we deem the redness of this ball essential to it, there are no worlds at which this ball is not red, on pain of simply being a different object. If it is inessential that it is red, like being flat, then there are worlds at which it is blue, is green, is white, and so on. And that's what we mean when we say this ball 'might have been' some other color.
When talking about particulars, like this specific ball, we can't make modal claims, I think, without considering what is essential and what accidental about that particular.
We're in very different territory if there's a bin of red playground balls and you're grabbing one of those. In such a case, it's perfectly clear what we mean when we say you cannot pick a ball that is not red: there is no such a ball to pick. To say that you might get the one with "Zeppelin rules" scrawled on it in Sharpie, is to say there is a ball in the bin so adorned, and this inscription makes it unique; to say you might get one bearing those words, is to say this is a thing someone might have done, that it is possible someone has done it.
But how do we get necessity out of the law of noncontradiction? That if something is red, it cannot not be red? Since the law of noncontradiction holds at each world, restricting to worlds at which "The ball is red" is true automatically embodies the necessity we were looking for: for any world w in that set, the ball is red at every world accessible (under this restriction) from w. That's our definition of necessity. No world at which it is not red, or also not red, can sneak in.
It's because the domain of the quantifier is explicitly restricted to the marbles in this set.
OK, perhaps I missed something since I haven't closely read every post. So the four alternatives are specifying the characters of different sets of objects? The first the set of all red objects, the second with at least one non-red object, the third with at least one red object and the last with no red objects; and the four permutations of possibility and necessity are related to whether or not an object, either red or not red, must belong, or could not belong, to the four different sets?
That's close.
The idea is just to show how what is a possible or a necessary result of you picking from a set can be cashed out in terms of what *is* or *is not* there to be picked.
(This is, to my understanding, the motivation behind possible world semantics: you get to trade in intensions for extensions, and then standard truth functions are available again.)
Just that classical logic can't deal with propositions of the form "It is possible that you pick a red marble," but can happily deal with propositions like "There is a red marble in the set."
Sounds reasonable. Does that imply "possible" is not the opposite of "impossible"?
Right, but if it were necessarily red, then it follows that a non-red object could not turn up. Otherwise, it would be not necessarily red and it follows that a non-red object could turn up.
Quoting Janus
True, but if it were necessary, then they must always be red.
Quoting Janus
I agree, and I think that regarding temporal events it is a contingent (non-necessary) matter. We were only discussing what's logically necessary, possible and impossible.
I would say these are not an example of "opposition" but "negation". A dynamic between the "necessary" and "possibile" would be more of an oppositional relation.
I think this is where things get sticky. In the case of a particular object, such as "this ball", each and every property is an essential property, that's what makes it the unique thing which it is, by the law of identity. That is the identity of the ball itself. But when we move to question "what the ball is", as " a ball", or "a red ball", we are assigning an identity to the object, which is distinct from the identity which the ball has, in and of itself, by the law of identity.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I think it is important to note that there is no such distinction in the case of a particular. Each and every property of a particular must be understood as essential to that particular, that's what makes a particular a unique individual, distinct from every other particular. This is what the law of identity recognizes.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
So, let's maintain this distinction, between the identity the ball has, by the law of identity, and the identity which we assign to the ball, through a differentiation between essential and accidental properties. We've assigned essential properties, and have named the ball "red ball", with very good reasons, and we maintain that the ball cannot not be red, for those reasons. However, we need to maintain that the ball in itself might still turn out to be not red, if our reasoning turns out to be wrong. We can't just conclude that the ball cannot not be red because it would be contradictory, because we just have some reasons why the ball must be red, and those reasons might end up being wrong. We cannot impose on the ball that it cannot not be red, just because our reasoning says so, because our reasoning might be wrong.
So it's not even a case of asking whether the law of non-contradiction holds in this world, it's a case of asking do the reasons for calling the ball "a red ball" hold in this world. Then the question is whether the world described in which the ball must be red, corresponds correctly with the real world. But I would say that we must maintain always, the possibility that it does not. Therefore we ought to allow that the thing itself, with the identity it has within itself, could always be other than the identity we give it. So this would not be a case of violating the law of non-contradiction, it would be a case of us having a misunderstanding of the world.
Where this becomes difficult is with the assumption that everything must have an identity within itself. That is what Aristotle proposed, but Hegel for instance saw no necessity even for this principle. But if we relinquish the law of identity, then contradiction could inhere right within the world. It would not be necessary that the object has an identity within itself, and it could actually consist of opposing properties.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
If we let go of the law of identity, then we allow for the possibility of a world in which the ball is both red and not red. Our logic dictates "there simply are no such worlds", but the real world does not conform to our logic, our logic must conform to the world. Therefore we must allow for the possibility that the law of identity is incorrect, and consequently the law of non-contradiction is irrelevant in some circumstances, and it is not accurate to say "there simply are no such worlds".
See, you say that if this were the case, it would be "a different object". But without the law of identity, there is no reason to believe that the real world even consists of objects. The real world might be 'a different world', outside all of the logically possible worlds, which rely on the law of identity. That's what the law of identity tells us, that the world consists of objects. But if the law of identity is wrong, and the world doesn't consist of objects, then we need a new principle by which we name things as objects, and insist that the law of non-contradiction must hold for these supposed objects.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
The point for you to recognize, I think, is that when we accept the law of identity, then we accept that any ball might be other than the way we name it. In fact, the object is designated as necessarily other than how we name it. That's what the law of identity recognizes, that we name it by essentials, not by accidentals, while accidentals are what gives identity to the individual. So any particular object, by the law identity, is necessarily inconsistent with how we identify it.
Now I have moved from the claim that we must accept the possibility that the world is other from how we describe it (above), to the claim that it is necessarily other than how we describe it. We do not identify the accidentals, but the accidentals are what are essential to the particulars. And since we do not acknowledge the accidentals, we cannot even name them as possibilities. They are unknown possibilities. And once we see the reality of unknown possibilities, then we must allow for possible worlds which are outside the realm of "logically possible", such as a world with no objects and no law of identity. "Possible worlds" is a restriction imposed by logic which is necessarily inconsistent with reality.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
The law of non-contradiction, in this sense, is just an artificial restriction imposed on possibility, by us. It only applies to produce a set of possible worlds which is created by our minds. But what the law of identity indicates to us, is that the real world is a world which is necessarily outside this set of possible worlds. The true identity of the particular is within the aspects (accidentals) which we ignore when we assign an identity to the object. Therefore the real world is necessarily inconsistent with the "possible worlds".
I take it you meant to say that a dynamic between the "necessary" and "impossible" would be more of an oppositional relation?
If the entire linguistic community agrees that this ball is "red", then how might our "reasoning" be wrong? What "reasoning" is involved when we teach someone how to use the word "red"?
There is actually many examples if you look for them. Someone, I believe it was Srap, earlier gave the example of Pluto being a planet. The linguistic community agreed to this, but it turned out to be wrong. We can also say for example that "the sun rises", and "sunrise" are misleading usage, and wrong, because the sun doesn't rise, the earth spins. There is clearly "reasoning" involved in teaching how to use words. One must decide how to approach the task. And the required technique differs depending on whether the student is beginner or advanced. Learning how to use "red" would generally be more toward the beginner level, prior to the complex logical concepts required for science and mathematics. I've never really taught language use, but I think the reasoning involved in teaching the use of "red", might involve deciding how to demonstrate the concept of colour, and deciding how to properly demonstrate a specific colour, "red". There are judgements which must be made.
So now we're back to @Isaac's teapot and the missing screw. In that discussion, the question was only about successfully referring to a particular that (might or) might not possess a property you believe (or don't believe) it does. I think it's plain that you can; for some cases, I'm leaning on the causal theory of names, and for others on how demonstratives work: you can clearly demand someone get "that" off your kitchen table even when you know very little about what "that" is. Exactly how that works may be unclear; that it works, I believe, is not. (We may come back to the double-bind theory of reference eventually.)
Here, we might start with the question of whether "being on my kitchen table" is a property of the object in question. It can be expressed as a predicate, as I've just done, but we could just as well express the situation as my kitchen table having the property of "having that on it," assuming again that "that" will manage to refer to the object. Or we could define a two-place predicate "on" such that "on" is true of an ordered pair
There are a couple ways to take that: I described "on" as a relation not just of two objects but of two objects in a particular order, so that on(table, thing) was already false, but on(thing, table) was true and I want it to be false. on(table, thing) and on(thing, table) describe different states of the world; in this case, the demand to make whichever is true false needn't concern itself with the order, because context will take care of that. But if I asked you to put that thing on the table, my demand would not be satisfied by you putting the table on that thing. So if we want on/2 to carry the same meaning across different uses, we can't rely on context in that way, and have to build in the required order. How do we do that?
Do we say that "on" takes three objects, the two from before and a third that specifies the order? If so, the third would look something like this: "1 = thing, 2 = table". Such a list can be presented in any order, so we don't have a regress, only a rule about each natural number up to the arity of the predicate being used, so this is a genuine option. But our new on/3 takes two concrete objects and a third which, whatever it is, is not like that. I say "whatever it is," because the semantics of the ordering list are unclear at this point: are those objects in the list, or expressions referring to objects? I guess either would do, but we're still building in a lot of other stuff, some of which looks suspiciously abstract, so we could just give in and have "on" take a single abstract object which is the ordered pair
If we do that, my asking you to get that thing off my kitchen table would be asking you to make "on" false of the ordered pair
Can we do something similar with other cases? For instance, if my bike tire is flat, is it a different object once it's inflated, or is it just a different arrangement of tire and air, the tire itself never changing? (In this case, we may or may not have any specific batch of air in mind.) But then what would we say about the shape of the tire, that surely changes when it's inflated? If anything is a property of an object, surely its shape is. But I make different shapes when I sit and when I stand does that make me a different person? What all of these examples have in common is that there are at least two different times considered: the tire is never flat and inflated at the same time, I am never sitting and standing at the same time, and so on. So a first attempt at distinguishing what is essential to an object from what is accidental is, naturally, distinguishing what is constant or invariant about it, what does not change from one time to another, and what does or can change from one time to another. Essential is what is time-less, and accidental is what is time-dependent. The same dog barks at one time and not at another.
But Isaac's screw-missing teapot raises a batch of familiar problems: evidently material constitution is not a great candidate for the timeless identity of an object. If we replace the missing screw with another of the same size, we have the Teapot of Theseus: is it the same teapot after as before the installation of the new screw? (It's considerations like this, if memory serves, that drove Peter van Inwagen to conclude that inanimate objects lack identity altogether, and thus do not, strictly speaking, exist.) One solution offered, in a sort of conventionalist spirit, is that this is all a collective fiction: there are no things with identities that we come along afterward and refer to; rather, our various acts of reference, intended and accepted by us as such, and our deeming these acts successful, is all there really is here. Thus, the slight oddity of Russell's account of definite descriptions that they involves implicit existence claims is vindicated, because indeed we are asking others to accept , at least for the duration of this exchange, what amounts to a stipulation that there is a dog when we say "the dog is barking."
The conventionalist account doesn't automatically undermine a distinction between essential and accidental properties, of course; you could take it as simply falsifying all claims of essence, or you could conversely take essence as whatever we tacitly agree it is. We generally count me as being the same person sitting or standing, and since that's all there is, that's enough.
But there's an odd wrinkle to all this. If I, like Isaac's teapot, do have an identity, then a proper semantics of me would require everyone to speak of me as if I do, and we would expect the corpus of attempted references to me to roughly, and only roughly, follow this requirement. That means the conventionalist will argue that our broad agreement in how to talk is just that, and nothing more; while the identitarian will argue that our broad agreement is a consequence of there being objects with identities. The conventionalist would seem to have parsimony on their side, and can allow or disallow the hypothesis of concrete self-identical objects as their mood dictates; but the base position is that it is more perspicuous to venture only that we say what we say. The object-identitarian offers a theory that explains why we talk the way we do, and the conventionalist can just say he doesn't need one.
That means there are two overlapping arguments here: on the one hand, the conventionalist can keep poking holes in whatever theory of object identity the other side comes up, because he needs no such theory anyway, and may even think no such theory is possible; on the other hand, the object-identitarian has to come up with a theory that works and show that it is needed, which means he also has to find some flaw in the conventionalist account of our referential speech acts not for the sake of his theory but to show that some theory is even needed. What's not clear in any of this is how the evidence is to be handled: I'll venture that most people's pre-theoretical intuition is that we talk the way we do because things are the way they are, and that our talking the way we do is in fact evidence that things are the way we say they are.
But we have those pesky scientific refutations of how we talk: sunrise, solidity, and so on. That doesn't show that how we talk is never evidence of how things are, but it does show that it isn't always such evidence. On the other hand, the conventionalist can shift from the claim that how we talk is only evidence of how we talk, and nothing more only for methodological reasons, to a claim that how we talk is only we how talk now meaning our agreement is precisely evidence that there is nothing more.
If that were true, it would not only deny the object-identitarian what was counted pre-theoretically as evidence but change the character of what's to be explained by any such theory. If the mean girls call you a loser, that's just a thing they say: the truth-value of their statement matters to you, but not to them; what matters to them is producing some effect, of hurting your feelings. That's the sense in which it is "just something they say." But not only can you not conclude from someone saying something that it must not have a truth-value, in this case the effect is only produced if you assume that it does, and they assume that you will assume that it does. If they know you will discount what they say as being just mean-girl noise, or just noise period, there's no reason for them to say it. The conventionalist can retreat again and say that the hurt feelings are known inductively to follow utterances of "loser," and that's all the mean girls need. That might actually be true! But you have to show that such an account really will extend to cover all language use. This situation is so simple that I think what we're really seeing is not exactly language at all but something more like dominance signaling that happens to use language because, well, there it is; we tend to use words even when what we're doing is really nothing more than growling articulately.
Nice post!
A good survey of the options in there. As I see it, in the end we're doing things with words. The relevant context reveals what we're doing, not just the words or sentences themselves.
Which, in turn, would seem to relate identity and convention to purpose. Keeping in mind Ryle's regress - we don't necessarily need to have articulated a purpose in order to have one.
I have no problem with referring to particular things, and this is because I accept the law of identity. The real problem is with change to a thing. How can the same thing at one time have a property which it does not have at a later time? Shouldn't this make it not the same thing? So Aristotle proposed the law of identity to say that a thing has an identity proper to itself, regardless of changes to it. It's just an assumption which we must make to allow for the observed temporal continuity of existence. There is said to be a relationship between what a thing actually is (provided for by form) and what it potentially is (provided for by matter). The thing itself is understood as a temporal continuity of this relationship. So issues like Theseus' ship become irrelevant because they propose a problem which is created by failing to properly respect the difference.
Also, I think that we need to respect the difference between an object and a subject. Predication is of a subject, not an object. So when you speak of an object for the purpose of predication, like "my kitchen table", you represent a perceived object as a subject "my kitchen table", and you proceed in predication. We talk as if we are referring directly to the object, but for the purpose of logical clarity it is best to maintain a separation between the subject with predications, and the object which is supposed to be represented. Then if problems arise, with temporal continuity for example, we can always inquire as to how well the name (subject) represents the object.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I would say that logically, you have two subjects, "my kitchen table", and "that", each assumed to be representing an object. And, you are not predicating anything of either of these two, but describing a relationship between them. The relationship you call "an order".
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
I would say that the "order", or relationship is definitely not a type of object, being completely different from an object, as something inferred through logic and definiions rather than perceived through sensation. "On" is not used to refer to an object, so if we make a subject called "on", this subject does not represent an object, it represents a relationship between objects. And that relationship is defined in spatial terms, or mathematics, or something like that.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
i think you've touched on a completely different issue here, a more complex issue. This is the relation of parts to a whole. When we name an object it is composed of parts, and the object is considered to be a whole, consisting of parts. However, as Aristotle described, we speak of privations, and perfection in respect to the whole. So this is a sort of ideal which we impose, on the object. Your bike is more perfect when the tire is filled with air, even though it is still the same object, as having the same identity, regardless.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Yes, I think I see this in the same way. The law of identity is a useful fiction, like mathematical axioms are. It allows us to talk about a thing's temporal extension, as a thing, thus making it into a subject. We could say that everything changes from one moment to the next, as time passes, therefore there is no such thing as an object with temporal extension. However, we notice that certain aspects appear to remain unchanged for durations, so we want to be able to talk about these things with duration as existent things. So we posit a law of identity which allows that there is something real which remains unchanged as time passes, this provides us with the basis for accounting for the reality of consistency, which is what scientific laws are built on.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
The way we talk is really not reflective of the way things are, that should be obvious. Talking is purpose driven, like a tool which conforms itself to what we are doing, so it's really more reflective of our intentions. That's why "meaning" might commonly be defined as "what is meant". But intention stands before us as a dark philosophical unknown, so people are often not inclined to look that way. This is why it takes a special way of talking, the scientific method, based in a special intention, to move toward an understanding of the way things really are, rather than simply following where natural language leads us. In other words, language needs to be disciplined if we desire to develop an understanding of reality.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
Now, it should become clear that the concept of "truth" needs to be based in honesty, the use of language to honestly reflect one's intentions, rather than the notion of an objective truth value. There is no objective truth value, just like there is no thing with its own identity, even though I believe in that law of identity. I believe in it because it has proved very useful in helping us to communicate, and ultimately to help us understand the nature of reality, but I do not believe that it is very accurate, or a perfect representation, or 'true' in the sense of correspondence.
I just can't get around the idea that in most, but not all, cases we use the words we do because they're the right ones. I don't think a linguistics that is all pragmatics with no syntax or semantics is a real option.
Quoting Andrew M
I wouldn't deny that there are choices we make, sometimes implicitly, which enable us to enact our purpose; I just don't think that makes our purpose constitutive of the objects we interact with. I think they have to be there, as they are, for us to have the options we do, among which we select the one that aligns with our purpose. If you can sometimes sort papers by author and sometimes by keyword, depending on your purpose at the moment, it's because they have authors and keywords. If they didn't, these wouldn't be options for you.
I agree. But which are the right words also depends on context (which seems apropos a thread on truth).
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
All good. But I don't think we can successfully take a view from nowhere on this. We perceive the world in a particular way that is, in part, dependent on the kind of creature that we are.
I was talking about the reasons why we say that the ball is a "red ball", and we assume that it cannot not be red. because it is a red ball I think this is analogous to the reasons why we used to say that Pluto is a planet, and we would have been inclined, at that time, to say that it cannot not be a planet.
Quoting Luke
I don't see the relevance.
Quoting Luke
I don't see the relevance.
Quoting Luke
That's not what the issue was though. The issue was whether this particular ball which we classified as "red ball", because we thought it was that type of ball which could not be other than red, would still be the same object, this ball, if somehow it became apprehended as not red. We called it "red ball" because we thought it is necessarily red. But if it is demonstrated not to be a red ball, like Pluto was demonstrated not to be a planet, then we ought to accept that the reasoning by which we identified it that way was wrong, and not try to impose on the ball that it must be a red ball.
Teachers, and other English speakers called Pluto a planet, because that's what we called it. When the reasoning was demonstrated as faulty, these English speakers had to adjust. They did not insist that Pluto must be a planet because that's what we call it.
Quoting Srap Tasmaner
It might be useful for you to reconsider this to some degree. We, as living human beings, have sensory systems which have evolved from nothing. That means that over the millions or billions of years of evolution which have produced our sensory systems, the sensory systems have been shaped and formed by what has proven to be useful. So the way that we perceive things, as objects, is a product of that usefulness. The important thing to note, is that unlike your example, alternative options for how we perceive things, are not there for us.
We have been forced into this mode of perceiving because it served some evolutionary purpose, and now it is a fixed part of our being, which we cannot opt out of. And as you mentioned in the other post, we just keep getting pesky scientific refutations. Science has provided us the means to get beyond the limitations of our sensory equipment. Plato's principal message was that the senses deceive us in our quest for truth, follow the intellect not the senses. And I suppose, through the presupposition of free will, we've managed to develop the intellect as an alternative option, under the notion that it can operate independently from the senses. In Aristotle's ethics, contemplation is the highest virtue.
The crank replied to that I refute myself by admitting that I would not appreciate the coyness and that the issue is a moral one.
That's the kind of reply made by someone who doesn't know how to discuss philosophy.
(1) The bit about coyness was merely for flavor. We can leave it off:
The speaker might know that the book is in the car but still be literally honest and correct, in saying "The book might be in the car".
If your friend asks, "Where is the book?" and you don't know and answer, "I don't know, but it might be in the car", or if you don't know and answer just, "It might be in the car", then you don't think your friend is a liar for that!
That is tremendously obvious not just philosophically but in everyday communication.
Not knowing whether proposition Q is true does not preclude that Q might be true.
I can't believe this even needs to be belabored.
(2) Consider another example even including the coyness bit:
Your birthday is soon. You ask your friend whether there will be a party. He says, "There might be, and I'm not saying more". Then there is a party, and you find out that your friend knew about it all along, and you do appreciate his coyness because it preserved a welcome suspense and surprise. And, by the way, what he said is true in both instances, and in both instances, he did not lie.
It's ridiculous that one should even have to explain such things to the crank, but I do in the interest of an abundance of refuting his utterly wrongheaded thinking.
(3) And, obviously, we don't refute a basic understanding of the mere modality of 'possibly' with regard to epistemic considerations by going completely out of the ballpark by saying the modal notion is refuted on ethical grounds!
/
One more time:
"I don't know Q" is not inconsistent with "Possibly Q".
No rational person thinks otherwise.
and
"Necessarily Q" is not inconsistent with "Possibily Q"
No rational person thinks otherwise. Or at least, no rational person informed about modal logic thinks otherwise.
/
Somehow, contrary to both basic philosophy and everyday language, some people have jumped to the conclusion that 'Possibly' is the negation of 'Necessary'. There is no rational reason to jump to that conclusion. Jumping to that conclusion seems to me to be a function of people not stopping to think that negation is not the only differing relation between concepts. The relation here is not negation but rather of duals.
Let q, Q, R be any sentences:
(1) 'necessary' ('N') is primitive, not defined. 'possibly' ('P') is defined, not primitive.
* The modal operators are duals, not negations, of each other.
df. Pq <-> ~N~q
thm. Nq <-> ~P~q
That is NOT equivalent with:
Pq <->~Nq
That is NOT a definition used in basic modal logic.
And NOT equivalent with:
Nq <-> ~Pq
That is NOT a theorem of basic modal logic.
The relation is not of negation but of duals.
P is the dual of N. And N is the dual of P.
* Just as the the quantifiers are duals, not negations, of each other:
df. ExQ <-> ~Ax~Q
thm. AxQ <-> ~Ex~Q
That is NOT equivalent with:
ExQ <-> ~AxQ
That is NOT a definition used in quantifier logic.
And NOT equivalent with:
AxQ <-> ~ExQ
That is NOT a theorem of quantifier logic.
The relation is not of negation but of duals.
The existential quantifier is the dual of the universal quantifier. And the universal quantifier is the dual of the existential quantifier.
* And note how 'all' and 'some' correspond with 'necessary' and 'possible'. Roughly stated:
"for all x, Q" is true if and only if Q is true for all x
"for some x, Q" is true if and only if Q is true for at least one x
and
q is necessary if and only if q is true in all worlds
q is possible if and only if q is true in at least one world
* Just as 'and' and 'or' are duals, not negations, of each other:
df. (Q or R ) <-> ~(~Q & ~R)
thm. (Q & R) <-> ~(~Q or ~R)
That is NOT equivalent with:
(Q or R ) <-> ~(Q & R)
That is NOT a definitions used in sentential logic.
And NOT equivalent with:
(Q & R) <-> ~(Q or R)
That is NOT a theorem of sentential logic.
The relation is not of negation but of duals.
Disjunction is the dual of conjunction. And conjunction is the dual of disjunction.
/
And to refute a confusion of the crank:
The crank mentions that we use the phrase 'possible worlds' in "q is necessary if and only if q is true in all possible worlds" and then we define 'possible' in terms of 'necessary'.
But 'possible' in 'possible worlds' is merely for intuition and is not at all needed formally. The semantics for modal logics need only mention 'worlds' (for that matter, not even 'worlds' needs to be mentioned as indeed "worlds" are merely members of a certain set that is part of a structure).
Moreover, we do not define 'necessary'. It is primitive. But we do go on to adopt semantics and axioms so that it is a theorem (not a definition) that, roughly put, Nq if and only if q is true in all worlds.
Also, as mentioned, we define 'possible' in terms of the primitive 'necessary'. But we recognize that we could do it in reverse: we could take 'possible' as primitive and define 'necessary' in terms of 'possible':
df. Nq <-> ~P~q
But that is not circularity. In any given treatment of the subject, we commit to one or the other but not both: 'necessary' is primitive or 'possible' is primitive.
No one who knows anything writes:
p is true iff p.
The formulation is:
'p' is true iff p.
Yes, 'impossible' is the negation of 'possible'.
df. Pq <-> ~N~q
df. q is impossible <-> ~Pq
/
q is is necessary if and only if q is true in all worlds
q is possible if and only if q is true in at least one world
q is impossible if and only if q is is true in no worlds
q is contingent if and only if q is true in at least one world and false in at least one world
So, we would not expect to find this as an axiom:
Nq -> ~Pq
But what about?:
Nq -> Pq
It is an axiom or theorem of just about all of the working systems of modal logic. (I think perhaps it is left off the initial "starter kit" axioms because whether it is needed as an axiom depends on whether it is derivable anyway from the other axioms, which may be formulated in various ways.)
* negation of necessary: "not necessary". the negation of Nq is ~Nq.
* negation of possible ("impossible"): "not possible". the negation of Pq is ~Pq.
* inconsistent (contradictories): "imply a statement and its negation". Q and R are contradictories iff together they imply a statement S and also ~S. Most starkly: Q and ~Q are contradictories, and R and ~R are contradictories. Also these are some contradictories:
Nq and P~q
Pq and N~q
* consistent ("compatible"): "not contradictory". In particular, saliently, in this thread:
Nq and Pq are consistent!
The crank is just hard cold plain wrong about it.
Why do I harp on that? Because:
Don't Normalize The Cranks!
:cool:
Quoting TonesInDeepFreeze
I stand corrected!
Quoting TonesInDeepFreeze
If that's what you call "honest" communication, and "well said", then it's no wonder that I have an aversion toward communion with you two. Your principles for sharing with me are not up to the level of my principles for sharing with you. Sad but true. What a shame.
Plato's principal message amounts to setting an unattainable criterion. The intellect follows from the senses. The senses are primary. The intellect is secondary.
Since you're speaking in evolutionary terms.
Science has enabled us to increase our innate sensory capacities. One has no choice but to follow their senses even when it is the case that they're using tools.
Logical possibility is a measure of consistency/coherency/validity. It is only by thinking about and discussing our own lives that we can arrive at a sensible discussion about logical possibility. Long before talking about how things could have been different, how things are different, how things could be different, long before all such discussions, we are humans living the set of experiences that all humans share... each set unique to one's own life. All those experiences are chock full of human thought and belief. Those thought and belief - that worldview - contained all sorts of thoughts and beliefs that are true and all sorts that were not.
Some of those were not even able to be true or not. None of them were based upon making everything possible. Not everything is possible. Some things are impossible. No amount of argumentation will change events of the past. Yet we can easily stipulate a possible world in which we disregard that which is known to have happened, essentially replacing history(what happened and/or is happening) with falsehood. We can then further discuss what may or may not have been the case according to our stipulations. We can measure the consistency, coherence, and/or the validity against the current norms thereof.
If it follows the conventional rules of logical inference, then it is deemed logical, reasonable, rational.
A story can be perfectly meaningful, easy to read and understand, and otherwise intelligible to not only those with some mastery of language like us, but also to those still early on in the language use game. It could also follow all the rules of logical inference and still be false on its face... absurd even.
This shows us that we we ought not place too much value upon those standards, particularly when the topic is truth.
For Plato it is not an unattainable criterion, it is a description of reality, what is the case. The soul necessarily precedes the body as the cause of order in the material parts which is what constitutes a living body, organized parts. So in Plato the mind is prior to the body, and must rule over it to maintain the order of the parts. That's a fundamental tenet of Plato's dualism, repeated many times. And he posits a third thing, passion or spirit, as intermediate between body and mind, and the means by which the mind rules the body. This third thing accounts for the supposed "problem of interaction" commonly charged against dualism. If the fundamental order gets reversed, and passion or spirit is allowed to ally itself with the body instead of the mind, and the intellect is allowed to follow the senses the result is irrational acts.
Your claim, that the senses are primary, and intellect follows from the senses needs to be supported, justified. The problem is that sensation requires ordered material parts. And nothing but a mind or intellect is known to be capable of ordering parts.
So, you separate the intellect from the senses by virtue of positing a mind(presumably of God) and then tell me that my claim that senses precede intellect needs justification?
Which tool do we use without requiring us to trust and use our senses? Which thought can we have without using our senses?
Morality.
Quoting creativesoul
All of them.
I have not presumed God, I just gave you the logic. A sensing body is an organized body. This means that it requires ordered parts. The only thing which is capable of ordering parts, is an intellect. Therefore intellect must precede sense. Thus my claim is justified. Yours, that senses precede intellect, has not been justified.
From the Platonic perspective, which is what I am giving you, the immaterial mind as "soul", precedes the material body and causes the parts which constitute the organized body to be ordered in the necessary way. There is no need to assume God at this point, only the need to assume an immaterial soul, as prior to the material body. This is because a material body can only exist as an organized body, and that requires something to order the parts.
It is only when we consider the belief that material bodies preexisted life forms, that we see a need to assume God. This is because these material existents also exist only as ordered parts, and some sort of intellect is required as that which orders the parts.
Quoting creativesoul
I don't see how these questions are relevant. Questions do not justify your claim, nor do they address the logic I've presented you with.
You claimed that we ought not trust our senses but rather our intellect. I claimed it was impossible.
Actually, I claimed that was Plato's message, and I explained why. You still haven't justified your claim.
My claim is supported by the evidence. That's what the questions were about. Plato's is supported by logical possibility alone. There are no examples.
Since "evidence" is empirical, this statement is a fallacious argument called "begging the question", which does not qualify as valid justification. You need to demonstrate logically, why the evidence shows that it is impossible to give priority to the intellect, over the senses. Simply insisting, that this is the way it is, and that the evidence supports this, does not justify your claim. Justification requires a logical demonstration.
Quoting creativesoul
I provided you with the logical demonstration. This is not "logical possibility", it is a logical necessity. A conclusion produced by valid logic, is a necessary conclusion, not a logical possibility. Since the logic is valid, and the conclusion is necessary, you need to address the premises, if you do not believe that the conclusion is sound.
Which premise do you believe to be unsound, that a living body is an organized body, consisting of ordered parts, or, that an organized body consisting of ordered parts requires an intellect as the cause of the ordering? And, how does "the evidence" support your belief of unsoundness?
The irony.
I've not given any argument. Answer the questions.
So all valid conclusions are necessary in your view? Seems our notions of "necessary" differ.
I didn't bother because I thought Mww gave a satisfactory answer. But I really didn't understand your use of "tool". Why do you think that the intellect has to use tools? Wouldn't the intellect be best represented as a tool itself? And as a tool, it is distinct from the senses, which might also be represented as tools. So the intellect would be a tool which we use without the requirement of trusting the senses.
In fact, in the Platonic tradition, we use the intellect to question, doubt what appears to us through sensation. That's how people figured out that the earth orbits the sun. So we have established a relation of non-trust between the intellect and the senses, and that's why the scientific method is so strict in relation to observation, such that multiple observations are always compared. This is because sensation is not trusted. So science, through the use of intellect and distrust of the senses, has led us to understand the reality of all sorts of things which we cannot directly sense, like molecules, atoms, subatomic particles, photons, and waves.
Quoting creativesoul
Yes, that's what constitutes a valid conclusion. The conclusion is necessitated by the premises. Some people call it entailment or "logical consequence". [quote=https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Logical_consequence]Logical consequence is necessary and formal, by way of examples that explain with formal proof and models of interpretation.[/quote]
It followed from the rationale you employed to arrive at not trusting the senses. You mentioned how we have exceeded our innate capabilities, or words to that effect. We use tools to do that. We 'use' our senses to use tools.
The intellect is existentially dependent upon physiological sensory perception(biological 'machinery').
The dispute between us amounts to you holding that the senses are existentially dependent upon an intellect, whereas I'm stating the opposite.
If you think that morality is a tool that we use and that we can do so completely independent of physiological sensory perception, then I'm not sure I've much interest in continuing. Notice how I didn't answer Mww. If you think that the intellect can somehow exist and/or emerge in the complete absence of physiological sensory perception then I've not much else to say. I find it odd that you're asking me to argue for my view, and even odder that you've accused me of begging the question when I've not even offered an argument. That's especially odd given that you're presupposing precisely what's in dispute within one of your premisses.
So, the intellect orders the parts that it later doubts?
When A is existentially dependent upon B then B is necessary for the emergence of A. When something(A) is existentially dependent upon something else(B), the former(B) cannot precede the latter(A).
You're claiming that the intellect is what orders the individual parts of the senses(physiological sensory perception). That would require that the intellect exist in its entirety prior to the parts that it arranges into order. This would further require a complete severance of the intellect from all biological machinery(physiological sensory perception) such that the intellect could put those biological structures in order.
I have no reason at all to believe that the capacity you call the intellect is anything aside from what is afforded to us by certain biological structures. I've no reason whatsoever to believe that the intellect is even capable of remaining intact(in it's entirety) in the complete absence of those structures. Evidence shows otherwise. From this, we can be sure enough that intellects are existentially dependent upon certain biological structures. Whereas there is no evidence to the contrary. We've yet to have discovered a case of intellect when and where there have never been biological structures.
All things begin simply and grow in their complexity. Thought, belief, and thinking about thought and belief are no exception. The intellect you speak of is capable of doubting the veracity of the senses. As such it is a practice that is itself existentially dependent upon being able to think about one's own thought and belief. That requires picking one's own thoughts and beliefs out to the exclusion of all else. The intellect is existentially dependent upon a worldview. All worldviews consist entirely of thought and belief. All thought and belief results, in part, of certain biological structures(physiological sensory perception) doing their job. The intellect cannot precede that which it is existentially dependent upon.
Yes, every person exceeds one's innate capabilities, that's what learning is. We learn how to do more, and to know more than what we are born with.
Quoting creativesoul
This is what you insist, but you have not justified it. And it really depends on how one defines "intellect". A materialist will define it such that the thing described in the description depends on sensory perception. A dualist sees as I do, the need to allow for some sort of intelligence as the cause of order in the living body, therefore existing prior to the "biological machinery", and "intellect" gets defined in a way to allow that it is not dependent on physiological sensory perception.
There is really no correct or incorrect definition of "intellect" here, one's preferred definition is a reflection of one's world view. However, how one proceeds from the definition makes a difference to the way that one would understand the reality of the living person.
So, I can accept your proposal, that "The intellect is existentially dependent upon physiological sensory perception(biological 'machinery')", and we could define "intellect" in this way, as a function of the brain or something like that, but we still need to account for the cause of organization, and order in the living being which constitutes the material body, the cause of existence of what you call "biological machinery".
This is what I believe Aristotle proposed, a separation between "mind" (intellect), and "soul". Prior to him, "mind" and "soul" were used interchangeably, so there was much ambiguity and confusion between those who insisted as you do, that the mind is a product of the biological machinery, and those who insisted like I do, that the immaterial soul must precede the biological machinery as cause of its existence. So Aristotle separated the concept of "soul" as the immaterial cause of the material body, from the concept of "intellect", as an attribute of the soul, which is dependent on the material body.
Quoting creativesoul
Yes, that would be the case. And there is really no problem with that idea, because we always proceed in our activities without absolute certainty. So we order things, move them around, with healthy doubt and skepticism, then look back at the consequences with the same skepticism, to see where we have had successes and failures. In its basic form this is trial and error, and in a more complex and structured form it is the scientific method of experimentation.
But now I've proposed a distinction between the mind (intellect) and the soul, to help you to understand this matter. Let's say that the immaterial soul is prior to the material body, as the cause of that order, and the intellect is posterior to the material body, as dependent on it, like you say. In this way, we have also a direction, or guidance toward sorting out the difference between innate knowledge, and leaned knowledge. We can attribute some sort of "knowledge" to the soul, which inheres within the living body, in its capacity to act, and which must have preexisted the living body, as the cause of it coming into existence as the very body which it is, and we can also attribute a different sort of "knowledge" to the intellect, as knowledge which is learned by the living being.
Quoting creativesoul
This is what I say is begging the question. Your claim was that A cannot precede B. You attempt to justify this by defining A as "existentially dependent" on B. But that's just using different words to state your conclusion as your premise, begging the question. What you needed to do was to show, give a demonstration to prove, that A is existentially dependent on B.
Quoting creativesoul
How do you get this conclusion of "in its entirety"? There is nothing to necessitate your conclusion that the named thing "intellect" cannot be changed as a consequence of its own actions. In fact, that's exactly what learning is, changes being made to that thing "intellect", changes being made by the actions of itself and of others. It makes no sense to insist that the intellect must exist "in its entirety", prior to learning. And, the process of trial and error, and the scientific method mentioned above, are changes which the intellect makes to itself. Why insist that the intellect must exist "in its entirety" both prior to and after such changes? How could these even be changes to the intellect, if the intellect must exist in its entirety both before and after the change?
Quoting creativesoul
I really have no idea what you could possibly mean by "in its entirety" when you refer to the intellect. The intellect is something constantly changing, learning, bettering itself. It could never be complete except possibly in omniscience, but then it wouldn't even be an "intellect" which always has the objective of learning.
Therefore your argument along these lines really is not useful. You observe an intellect using specific biological structures, and you call this an intellect "in its entirety", so as to exclude other forms of "intellect" which are using other biological structures, or even no biological structure at all, from being an intellect "in its entirety".
To use your word "tool", the biological structure is a tool of the intellect. It shapes that tool in its learning process (neurological patterns), so the intellect is actually conforming the tool to suit its purpose. Why would you not consider the possibility that it created the tool altogether?
Or, do you think that when living creatures were evolving on earth, there was a specific point in their evolutionary advancements which constituted "having an intellect" in its entirety? All creature without this definable attribute had no intellect, and those with it have an intellect. How would you propose to draw this boundary?
Quoting creativesoul
I don't see where you derive this idea from. All the evidence points exactly in the opposite direction of what you claim. First, there is no such thing as the intellect in its entirety. Next, it is exceedingly clear, that the intellect uses the biological structures as a tool. Neurological patterns are shaped in the learning process, for various purposes. And, it is only the particular purpose, the specific end, which is dependent on the tool. The existence of the thing using the tool is not dependent on the tool. Only the particular end desired by that thing is dependent on the tool.
So you seem to see a biological structure, which has been shaped and formed toward some particular ends, and you conclude that the thing using this tool, (the biological structure), depends on it for existence. But you are not respecting the proper relationship between the user of the tool, and the tool. The user of the tool is only dependent on that particular set of tools, for obtaining that particular set of ends. You are not respecting the reality that if the thing which is using that set of tools (the intellect in this case), was inclined toward completely different ends, it would be using a completely different set of tools.
In other words, you observe in the world, human intelligence inclined in a specific way, depending on its tools (biological structure), to achieve its desired ends. And you conclude that the evidence indicates that the intellect is "existentially dependent" on that biological structure. This is fallacious logic. The intellect is not existentially dependent on that biological structure. Only the fulfillment of those specific ends is dependent on that biological structure. So now, you will move to define "intellect in its entirety", as the capacity to fulfill some specific set of ends, and insist that "intellect in its entirety" is dependent on that biological structure.
Quoting creativesoul
This is obviously a false premise which seems to be misleading you. The second law of thermodynamics indicates that the natural process is for the complexity of things to break down over time. So the starting premise needs to be the reverse of what you propose here. All complex structures naturally break down, and lose their complexity as time passes.
So, if things are observed to grow in complexity, we need to assume a cause of this. So I proposed "intellect" as the cause of this order and organization. You prefer that we define "intellect" in another way, which makes the intellect dependent on, as emergent from this organized complexity. I will consent to this, but will you consent to my proposal now, that "the soul" is the cause of this growth in complexity? Then we can have a proper separation between the soul and the intellect.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
A tool is just some means that facilitates an end. Morality is, then, merely that tool in a human such that an act he actually performs is in accordance with the means for determining what that act should be. I need no sensibility, and indeed sometimes its even better....more comfortable for me.....if there is none, for the accomplishment of my moral ends. We may, or indeed even may not, witness our own acts through sensibility, but the witnessing of them is very far removed from the tool employed for the determination of what they should be, from which it follows that not witnessing at all, removes sensibility from consideration entirely, while the determining tool remains in full force.
I didnt get from your comments, that you hold the senses are existentially dependent upon an intellect, or that the intellect orders the individual parts, that is to say, the biological structures, of the senses. What is done with the product of the senses biological structures, which is nothing more than mere mental/cognitive stimuli, considered as initially ordering the parts of that which is sensed, is nonetheless the dedicated purview of the intellect. In which case, it does hold that the intellect is antecedent to that which stimulates it. That senses dont think and intellects dont perceive, should be perfectly obvious to those examining the human condition, from any justifiable point of view.
I dont see it as unreasonable that the intellect can exist in the complete absence of physiological sensory perception. In the first place, sensory perception is redundant, insofar as all sensation is from perception and all perception is sensory, the reciprocity of them being impossible, and that which affects the brain is physiological, re: cognitive neuroscience, but that which affects the intellect is not, re: pure speculative metaphysics. It is possible for the intellect to operate on that which is impossible to perceive, but it is absurd to suppose there is that perception upon which the intellect cannot operate. We all think in our sleep, or, more accurately perhaps, there is precedent for the justification that any human can think in his sleep, which is the same as saying the intellect is functioning in the complete absence of the physiological senses and perception.
That there is no intellect without the physiological structures sufficient for it, is given, but that structure is the brain and ancilliary connectivity, not mechanistic sensory devices.
I now return you to your local......ehhhhh, you know.
I've nothing else to say. Be well.
Creative and I seem to be on completely different planes of understanding. So I really don't understand why Creative engaged me after the thread had gone dormant for a number of days. We could have both foreseen that any attempt at discourse would not get far, based on past experience. Maybe it was a matter of boredom.
Quoting Mww
I think this is the position I was arguing. The biological structures, which include the senses, must be ordered in such a way so as to fulfill each one's purpose. In this case the structures which constitute the various forms of sensation must be ordered in the way required for the senses to sense. The argument is that it can only be an intellect which creates this biological order, the order which is necessary for these parts to serve their various purposes.
Quoting Mww
So "the brain" presents an interesting problem. If we equate intellect with brain, or say that intellect is dependent on brain, (as produced by it or something like that), then when I present my argument that the physiological structures which are responsible for sensation require an intellect, we could just reduce this to say that they require a brain. But the problem is that the brain itself is an organized biological structure. And the argument is that any such order in material bodies requires a cause of that type of order. And, the cause must be an intellect of some sort. So this places an intellect as prior to the brain, and impossible that the intellect is a product of, or dependent on, the brain.
True enough, but couldnt that be conditioned by natural evolution?
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Again, true enough, but that kind of intelligence isnt human, nor could it be, and human intelligence is the only one we have non-contradictory grounds to discuss.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Yeah, thats been a logical inconsistency for eons. Hence....epiphenomenalism and such like. But whatcha gonna do when theres no answer that doesnt ask its own question. Speculate, of course, also been done for eons and with just as much logical inconsistencies between them.
Pick an explanation, I guess, run with it til you trip over it. Metaphysical reductionism can only go so far before it defeats itself, right?
We could say that natural selection is a process whereby different structures of order are selected for, but it doesn't account for the cause of the ordered structures which are selected for.
Quoting Mww
I agree that this type of intelligence isn't the same as human intelligence, but neither is the intelligence of dogs and other animals, the same as human intelligence. This is why I said to Creative, that the way one defines "intelligence" makes a difference. But why would we define "intelligence" in such a way so as to exclude the possibility of intelligence which is not human intelligence? It makes much more sense to look at what it is which is referred to as "intelligence", and define the term accordingly. This would clearly allow for the possibility that there is intelligence which is not human intelligence. Then the argument I provided necessitates that there is intelligence other than human intelligence, if we use that open definition.
Or, we could go the other route, which I proposed above. We can maintain that definition of "intelligence" which limits it to human intelligence, as a product of the human brain, and look for another name to account for that other source, or cause of order. This name has been proposed as "soul", which is intelligence-like, but not quite the same.
Quoting Mww
I don't think it's a matter of picking an idea and running with it, it's more like back and forth, back and forth, like the trial and error process I referred to above. Take a set of premises, and produce a conclusion. The conclusion is never completely satisfactory so we go back and make some changes to the premises. The conclusion is still not completely satisfactory so we revisit the premises again, and so on.