Undistributed middle
William Buckley was talking with Christopher Hitchens in 1984, you might be able to get it with
https://www.google.com/search?q=buckley+hitchens&oq=buckley+hitchens&gs_lcrp=EgZjaHJvbWUyBggAEEUYOTIICAEQABgWGB4yCAgCEAAYFhgeMggIAxAAGBYYHtIBCTIyODE4ajBqNKgCALACAQ&sourceid=chrome&ie=UTF-8#fpstate=ive&vld=cid:4443daf0,vid:Atk7V3W6oUc,st:0
or you could do a search on buckley hitchens 1984 liberal crack-up. Around 34:37 Hitchens says, theres an undistributed middle in your logic.
My question is: what is the undistributed middle?
When I try to reconstruct what Buckley has just said, I get:
[i][b]All agents who call for suicidal measures are at fault.
The left called for suicidal measures [to be effected in Iran in the last days of the Shah].
Therefore the left is at fault,[/b][/i]
where of course the middle is distributed. How does Hitches understand Buckley and where is the fallacy? Hitchens could be mistaken of course, but he wasnt stupid or dishonest, so what he said cannot be pure BS.
What do you think?
https://www.google.com/search?q=buckley+hitchens&oq=buckley+hitchens&gs_lcrp=EgZjaHJvbWUyBggAEEUYOTIICAEQABgWGB4yCAgCEAAYFhgeMggIAxAAGBYYHtIBCTIyODE4ajBqNKgCALACAQ&sourceid=chrome&ie=UTF-8#fpstate=ive&vld=cid:4443daf0,vid:Atk7V3W6oUc,st:0
or you could do a search on buckley hitchens 1984 liberal crack-up. Around 34:37 Hitchens says, theres an undistributed middle in your logic.
My question is: what is the undistributed middle?
When I try to reconstruct what Buckley has just said, I get:
[i][b]All agents who call for suicidal measures are at fault.
The left called for suicidal measures [to be effected in Iran in the last days of the Shah].
Therefore the left is at fault,[/b][/i]
where of course the middle is distributed. How does Hitches understand Buckley and where is the fallacy? Hitchens could be mistaken of course, but he wasnt stupid or dishonest, so what he said cannot be pure BS.
What do you think?
Comments (4)
If this is truly the argument given, then I don't see an undistributed middle. Are you sure you got this part right?
[edit] after having watched the clip from about a minute before your suggested timestamp to the point where he says it, I don't think that it's obvious at all that the logic you laid out here is the thing he's calling an undistributed middle. That being said, I'm not entirely sure what he is calling that.
I would appreciate any conjectures from folks as to what exactly was the argument from Buckley that Hitchens called fallacious.