The Empty Suitcase: Physicalism vs Methodological Naturalism
Physicalism in relation to methodological naturalism seems to me like an empty suitcase taken on a plane. The scientific method (the plane) gets you somewhere but the metaphysical baggage of physicalism appears to be an unnecessary and unhelpful accoutrement.
I suppose physicalism draws much of its respectability from its ostensible position as the most central philosophical framework for scientific inquiry, and Im not denying it is. But I think that can be problematised by pointing out that while physicalism does provide a background context that is inviting towards scientific inquiry, none of the successes of science required physicalism the scientific method and its accompanying tools being enough to do the job.
So, wherein lies the attraction of physicalism for scientists? The majority associate themselves with the doctrine, but why? Why not simply maintain metaphysical agnosticism? Is it simply because, as above, physicalism resonates with the idea of scientific inquiry? Is it just an honorary badge to display anti-idealist credentials? Do scientists generally even know or care what theyre committed to?
Ill try to justify below my view of physicalism as weak on several fronts.
(I note, of course, there are many varieties of physicalism, some more plausible than others, some more friendly to the notion of free will than others etc. As with most metaphysical theories, divisions and nuances proliferate so that you get a spectrum that is very distinct from an alternate theory on one end and bleeds into it on the other. Ill try to stick with criticizing what I see as fairly common central tenets of physicalism with the understanding that the critique might be more appropriate for some versions than others.)
My central criticism is not that physicalism is wrongit's unfalsifiable, but that it has no real explanatory power, and generally tells us nothing about the nature of reality, often merely redefining its central concept, the physical, such that it becomes vague enough to encompass within its scope everything, from consciousness to quarks as either physical or supervening thereon, and does not even unambiguously rule out rival theories like panpsychism, but can be flexible enough to subsume them. As such, it may be that it is not only unnecessary, but also in a way detrimental to the progress and standing of methodological naturalism as expressed through the scientific method.
Three central tenets of the argument are:
1. Methodological naturalism neither entails nor requires physicalism.
2. Physicalism is unscientific.
3. Physicalisms close association with methodological naturalism and the confusion there engendered risks denigrating the latter.
1. Methodological naturalism neither entails nor requires physicalism
Methodological naturalism presents us with the most efficient framework of discovering practical truths that we know. This is evident from the rapid and transformative scientific progress that has occurred due to the deployment of the scientific method. Its justification as a method rests on its results rather than any metaphysical presumptions.
2. Physicalism is unscientific.
The core metaphysical assumptions of most metaphysically naturalist / physicalist positions may be summarized as follows:
A. All known and all potentially knowable phenomena can be considered physical [Edited to properly distinguish vs materialism]
B. The universe is deterministic. [Correction: Only applies to some versions of physicalism, not most]
C. The universe is comprehensively and ultimately law-given and law-abiding.
None of these are falsifiable. They can better be described as articles of faith consistent with the observable universe, but not derivable from it.
This might seem obvious, but I'm not convinced it is to all physicalists.
3. Physicalisms close association with methodological naturalism and the confusion there engendered risks denigrating the latter.
Methodological naturalism stands as a respectable framework for the employment of the scientific method. It has nothing necessarily to say about whether the universe contains supernatural elements or not, only that it may be investigated as if it were entirely natural.
But the metaphysical naturalism of the physicalist posits that as the universe must behave in a law-like manner, i.e. in a way which is replicable and predictive (in principle if not in practice), anything we encounter in the universe that does not seem to behave so, must despite appearances, ultimately do so by virtue of its very existence.
The consequences of this apparent circularity are somewhat jarring. Physicalism does not really do away with the supernatural, but must presume there is some, in principle, discoverable law to account for it, and simply redefine it as natural as necessary. So God is in (as a possibility) and not only is a non-capricious deist-type god in, but as physicalists subsume human agency, will, and consciousness under the rubric of the physical, there seems no unambiguous theoretical barrier to a capricious personal God either. There seems to be (for many versions of physicalism at least) no theoretical barrier to anything. We are back to the empty suitcase, which is not only empty but on the inside infinitely vast and infinitely accommodating.
So
...Can we not apply Occams razor, rid ourselves of physicalism, remain metaphysically agnostic, and follow the scientific method where it leads? Leave the empty suitcase behind and go where the plane takes us? What is the real barrier to doing so?
I suppose physicalism draws much of its respectability from its ostensible position as the most central philosophical framework for scientific inquiry, and Im not denying it is. But I think that can be problematised by pointing out that while physicalism does provide a background context that is inviting towards scientific inquiry, none of the successes of science required physicalism the scientific method and its accompanying tools being enough to do the job.
So, wherein lies the attraction of physicalism for scientists? The majority associate themselves with the doctrine, but why? Why not simply maintain metaphysical agnosticism? Is it simply because, as above, physicalism resonates with the idea of scientific inquiry? Is it just an honorary badge to display anti-idealist credentials? Do scientists generally even know or care what theyre committed to?
Ill try to justify below my view of physicalism as weak on several fronts.
(I note, of course, there are many varieties of physicalism, some more plausible than others, some more friendly to the notion of free will than others etc. As with most metaphysical theories, divisions and nuances proliferate so that you get a spectrum that is very distinct from an alternate theory on one end and bleeds into it on the other. Ill try to stick with criticizing what I see as fairly common central tenets of physicalism with the understanding that the critique might be more appropriate for some versions than others.)
My central criticism is not that physicalism is wrongit's unfalsifiable, but that it has no real explanatory power, and generally tells us nothing about the nature of reality, often merely redefining its central concept, the physical, such that it becomes vague enough to encompass within its scope everything, from consciousness to quarks as either physical or supervening thereon, and does not even unambiguously rule out rival theories like panpsychism, but can be flexible enough to subsume them. As such, it may be that it is not only unnecessary, but also in a way detrimental to the progress and standing of methodological naturalism as expressed through the scientific method.
Three central tenets of the argument are:
1. Methodological naturalism neither entails nor requires physicalism.
2. Physicalism is unscientific.
3. Physicalisms close association with methodological naturalism and the confusion there engendered risks denigrating the latter.
1. Methodological naturalism neither entails nor requires physicalism
Methodological naturalism presents us with the most efficient framework of discovering practical truths that we know. This is evident from the rapid and transformative scientific progress that has occurred due to the deployment of the scientific method. Its justification as a method rests on its results rather than any metaphysical presumptions.
2. Physicalism is unscientific.
The core metaphysical assumptions of most metaphysically naturalist / physicalist positions may be summarized as follows:
A. All known and all potentially knowable phenomena can be considered physical [Edited to properly distinguish vs materialism]
B. The universe is deterministic. [Correction: Only applies to some versions of physicalism, not most]
C. The universe is comprehensively and ultimately law-given and law-abiding.
None of these are falsifiable. They can better be described as articles of faith consistent with the observable universe, but not derivable from it.
This might seem obvious, but I'm not convinced it is to all physicalists.
3. Physicalisms close association with methodological naturalism and the confusion there engendered risks denigrating the latter.
Methodological naturalism stands as a respectable framework for the employment of the scientific method. It has nothing necessarily to say about whether the universe contains supernatural elements or not, only that it may be investigated as if it were entirely natural.
But the metaphysical naturalism of the physicalist posits that as the universe must behave in a law-like manner, i.e. in a way which is replicable and predictive (in principle if not in practice), anything we encounter in the universe that does not seem to behave so, must despite appearances, ultimately do so by virtue of its very existence.
The consequences of this apparent circularity are somewhat jarring. Physicalism does not really do away with the supernatural, but must presume there is some, in principle, discoverable law to account for it, and simply redefine it as natural as necessary. So God is in (as a possibility) and not only is a non-capricious deist-type god in, but as physicalists subsume human agency, will, and consciousness under the rubric of the physical, there seems no unambiguous theoretical barrier to a capricious personal God either. There seems to be (for many versions of physicalism at least) no theoretical barrier to anything. We are back to the empty suitcase, which is not only empty but on the inside infinitely vast and infinitely accommodating.
So
...Can we not apply Occams razor, rid ourselves of physicalism, remain metaphysically agnostic, and follow the scientific method where it leads? Leave the empty suitcase behind and go where the plane takes us? What is the real barrier to doing so?
Comments (175)
Metaphysics, in my view, provides "aesthetic frameworks" rather than definitive answers. For example, a physicist proposing the "many worlds" hypothesis to address quantum problems would have a vastly different metaphysical outlook than someone who believes in only one universe. This brings us to the question: "What is physical?" Is space-time physical? If the many worlds exist, are they physical? The term physical starts losing clarity if it encompasses everything.
Still, I believe we can distinguish between physical and non-material realities. Physical reality consists of things we can observe, measure, and interact with directly. Physicalism is most useful when it suggests that reality is, in principle, measurable. What lies beyond measurementwhether events, objects, or processesis hidden, as object-oriented ontology suggests.
There are major problems with physicalism, though:
Philosophy of Mind: Describing the brain's workings (mapping the terrain) is not the same as understanding conscious experience (the terrain itself). If you call that "physical," you're offering no new insight.
Supernatural phenomena: Some suggest a pantheistic view, where all possible forms and arrangements of reality are "God" or part of a process theology. But at this point, its just a matter of semantics over what we call metaphysical realities.
I'll get back to you on this. I've discovered after writing the OP that Chomsky made a somewhat similar critique. An available paper discussing his view for those interested: https://teorievedy.flu.cas.cz/index.php/tv/article/download/271/293
I've only read a bit of it. It's rather late where I'm at.
This is a great OP. I need to chew on it a bit more, but one aspect of this is the question of how metaphysics relates to science. Awhile back I was reading parts of Thomas Nagel's The Last Word with @J, and I came to realize that Nagel is interested in this question particularly as it relates to theism. I haven't yet read the last chapter of that book, but @Wayfarer links to publicly available copies of it here and here. That chapter is called, "Evolutionary Naturalism and the Fear of Religion."
Quoting Baden
If I am following, the idea is that physicalism, as a form of metaphysical naturalism, imposes metaphysical commitments that methodological naturalism should be free of. These commitments are somewhat tendentious, and given the way that physicalism is bound up with methodological naturalism, methodological naturalism becomes burdened with a kind of guilt by association.
I think that's all correct, but I lean towards disagreeing with this claim:
Quoting Baden
I do see methodological naturalism being presented as justified based on results, but it is an open question whether the success of modern science is independent of metaphysical presuppositions.
The other question is whether a robust methodology can perdure independent of metaphysical presuppositions.
Method will get you only so far. Once we've collected it we have to process it, validate it, interpret it, and fit it into existing or new theories. Does methodological naturalism tell us how to do that? Can it be done without physicalism? I'm not saying it can't, but I'm not sure.
Quoting Baden
This is all metaphysics, which I don't think many scientists care about or are aware of. They, along with most people here on the forum, think that the underlying basis of their understanding of reality is self-evident and eternal.
Quoting Baden
Yes, it's unfalsifiable, you know, metaphysics and stuff. This is true of the isms you've discussed in OP and all those we discuss every day here on the forum.
Quoting Baden
To keep it simple, I want to talk about physics here, not all science. Isn't it true that physicalist questions are the only ones physics is capable of answering? As we move up the hierarchies of scale, then maybe it makes sense to talk about non-physicalist answers, e.g. what is the nature of the mind. We have a lot of arguments about that here on the forum, e.g. every consciousness discussion ever. This is the place in the discussion where reductionism raises it's ugly head.
Quoting Baden
It seems to have worked so far.
This is a really useful context for exploring physicalism, thanks for posting. One question to start with: We all have an idea what physicalism is, but as you point out, there are many varieties, some more stringent than others. Your three criticisms of the central tenets suggest a good-enough definition of how youre using physicalism, but Id like to get clearer on exactly how you think of it.
In particular, its a crucial point whether physicalism has to declare by fiat that anything that exists or happens has a lawlike physical basis, thus in effect relabeling what most of us would call non-physical in ordinary circumstances. @Leontiskos mentioned Nagels The Last Word, and as usual Nagel puts it well: I [want to] interpret the concept of ?physics restrictively enough so that the laws of physics by themselves will not explain the presence of . . . thinking beings in the space of natural possibilities. Of course, if ?physics just means the most fundamental scientific theory about everything, then it will include any such laws if they exist. If thats all physicalism amounts to, then youre right, it adds nothing conceptually.
Quoting T Clark
Heres a fourth, related criticism I would add to your three: Understandably, when we think of physicalism, we think of something connected with the physical sciences, where it has indeed largely worked so far. But physicalism is not physics, and the real challenge for physicalism is to explain the lawlike behaviors, if there are such, of the entities studied in psychology, sociology, history, literature in short, the human sciences. To say that physicalism has worked here would be news to a historian. And if you responded by telling her that her discipline did not produce objective facts and theories, was in short not scientific, she would laugh at you, I hope. My point is that there is a gargantuan explanatory gap between the sorts of things that chemistry can explain and the sorts of things that political science or economics can explain. We can wave our hands and say that someday well have a quark-level explanation of the law of supply and demand, but 1) no one believes this, really; 2) it wouldnt explain what needs explaining; and 3) again, this is something that has definitely not worked so far.
So in order to defend physicalism, I think a philosopher has to argue for why physicalism is not reductive in the sense just described. And this runs the risk of starting the relabeling process, with entities like nations construed as somehow just physical because we can devise theories that are lawlike to explain their behavior.
That's the nub of the issue - methodological naturalism is taken to be a metaphysics, which it actually is not. This is how science comes to be seen as the umpire of what is real, and anything not demonstrable in scientific terms is dismissed. In liberal cultures, we do of course enjoy freedom of conscience, meaning that we can entertain any ideas we like, but if they can't be validated scientifically in some way, then they're essentially subjective or social in nature.
Quoting Baden
I posted an OP about five years ago on the Blind Spot of Science linked to an Aeon essay by Evan Thompson, Adam Frank and Marcello Gleiser on that topic (now a book). They draw on phenomenology to critique the prevailing naturalism, which prioritizes objective, measurable phenomena while 'bracketing out' the subjects who make the measurements and generate the theories. The authors argue that minds, emotions, and cognitive functionality - including decisions about what is worth studying! - are fundamental to our engagement with the world and cannot be fully explained in objective terms, as they've been omitted from the initial methodological step. By overlooking lived experience, science omits a foundational aspect of reality, leading to an incomplete understanding of the universe and our place in it.
So the real barrier is cultural and social. Modern science - that is, science since Galileo - pre-determines certain parameters, foremost of which is that the object of analysis be objectively measurable and empirically intelligible, which is what is generally meant by the umbrella term 'physical'.
Evan Thompson and his co-authors are part of a real sea change in Western cuture that are questioning this. David Chalmers is another. So too John Vervaeke. Something in common to all of them is self-awareness, which has been forced on science by various compelling factors. All of which in some real sense, is a return to the Socratic origins of the Western philosophical tradition, and the commandment, 'know thyself'.
Yes, but it is worth asking whether a methodology as culturally significant as methodological naturalism can ever be prevented from spawning its own metaphysics (even on the questionable assumption that methodological naturalism was born metaphysics-free). I think it would require an enormous amount of energy to prevent methodological naturalism from hardening into a metaphysics, culturally speaking. On this account physicalism is just the most prominent metaphysics that methodological naturalism has gestated.
You can trace the lineage of metaphysical naturalism through the Scholastic tradition in books such as Burtt's 'Metaphysical Foundations of Modern Science'. I think it's indisputable that the founders of early modern science - Galileo, Descartes and Newton being the most prominent - all sought to disentangle science from scholastic metaphysics. (In Galileo's case it was crucial, as Aristotle's physics was thoroughly archaic and joined at the hip with Ptolmaic cosmology.) The main point being that the Enlightenment project was to pursue 'natural philosophy' on the basis of what was empirically observable. There was a clause in the foundation documents of the Royal Society that fellows are to avoid 'consideration of metaphysics' as this was deemed 'the province of the Churchmen' which made it politically fraught in those days of religiously-motivated wars. Combine that with Descartes' division of mind and matter, and the roots of physicalist naturalism are pretty clear, I would have thought.
Of course, Newton himself, and to an extent Galileo, observed a kind of deism, acknowledging the Divine Intellect as the source of the Universe, but which was now seen as a kind of self-running machine, from which God was generally absent.
(A) sounds like materialism. Physicalism doesn't really say that. I mean, what is this substance?
(B) is untrue. There are plenty of valid scientific interpretations that are non-deterministic, notably Copenhagen interpretation of QM.
I will essentially agree with (C) since I think that is a reasonable summary on its own.
Quoting BadenOK, it's a methodology, not a premise. Scientific investigation proceeds as if there is nothing supernatural. If this is wrong, then science will presumable hit a wall at some point.
But then you treat it like it is a theory with this:
It proceeds as if.. Saying 'posit' makes it sound like naturalism itself.
Quoting BadenSort of. QM behavior is not, for instance, something predictive, except as a mathematical statement of probability, which quantum theory predicts very accurately.
As for things not yet explained by discovered laws, yes, the methodology presumes there are ultimately some such laws. A good example is the unified field theory, which thus far has proven illusive.
A bad example is consciousness, which shows no signs of not being a function of the currently known laws. An interesting example would be a physically explainable deity that deliberately in some way brought about what we often refer to as 'the universe'. I mean, just about all the conjecture about what's on the 'other side' of the big bang pretty much discards the classical laws as we know them.
Quoting Wayfarer
That came up in the other topic, especially when taking observer selection biases into account. Any observation is necessarily biased by this, and cannot be objective.
That's why I mentioned reductionism. For many in the physical sciences, the disciplines you listed can ultimately be reduced to physics. That's not how I see it.
Quoting J
It's not clear to me that, when we get to that level of organization, we are still dealing with phenomena that are deterministic and comprehensively and ultimately law-given and law-abiding.
Quoting J
I would guess that most people who agree with the physicalist approach also agree that a reductionist approach is also correct. I think the argument could be made that they are the same thing.
[edit] in last paragraph changed is not also correct to is also correct.
I don't remember participating in the discussion five years ago. This time I read the essay you linked. I was disappointed to see it was the same argument you and I go back and forth with every month or so. First off, any philosophical discussion that brings in quantum mechanics is immediately suspect. They trotted out the old QM interpretation that reality is dependent on observation while ignoring the fact that those interpretations are unfalsifiable. Their other prime example was the hard problem of consciousness.
My biggest gripe is that there are good arguments for the involvement of us humans in the establishment of reality, but they ignored them.
The 'Copenhagen interpretation' is not a scientific theory per se. It comprises philosophical reflections on what can and can't be said on the implications of quantum physics.
Quoting T Clark
Such as?
I think it's regarded as a little outdated nowadays but still covers some valuable ground.
Sure, but when I read that I see a great deal about metaphysical naturalism and nothing at all about methodological naturalism.
I am wondering if the empty suitcase is actually methodological naturalism. Who needs it? Not the naturalist. He has as much need of methodological naturalism as a Saudi Arabian Muslim needs methodological Sharia. Not the non-naturalist. For her methodological naturalism is irrational. If methodological naturalism is superfluous for the naturalist and irrational for the non-naturalist, then it looks like an empty suitcase or an outward badge of honor. Probably it is part of the pact of classical liberalism, a kind of compromise.
What about the Original Post? Perhaps "methodological naturalism" is doublespeak for soft metaphysical naturalism, and physicalism really does deviate insofar as it is a form of hard metaphysical naturalism. On that view the problem is not that physicalism is metaphysical, but rather that it is too confident, too far out over its skies. The underlying issue is the difficulty or impossibility of adopting a thoroughgoing epistemological methodology without also adopting some form of metaphysical commitment.
I don't think anyone needs to say they're a methodological naturalist. It's basically an assumption, an implicit principle of natural science. For the natural scientist, most often, and aside from some borderline subject areas like psychosomatic medicine or parapsychology, all naturalism means is a commitment to the kinds of explanations that can be subject to third-party scrutiny and empirical validation. Where methodological naturalism needs to be made explicit is when it appears in the guise of a metaphysic - which happens most often in the attempt to subject philosophical problems to scientific scrutiny. To scientism, in other words. That's when it becomes metaphysical, as distinct from methodological, naturalism.
You seem to be talking about Hempel's dilemma? If the physical is defined just as whatever is explained by our current scientific theories then physicalism is false because our current scientific theories do not explain everything. If the physical is defined just as whatever is explained by some future scientific theory that does explain everything then physicalism is circular.
But then the same can be said of methodological naturalism. What does it mean to be natural or supernatural?
What do you suppose this can be characterized as? For example, superstitions that manifest in physical realities for that person as if they are real- but to that person, they are real?
I thought it interesting. Im not sure id characterize it as metaphysical, certainly a case of mental affects/effects reality. Beliefs shouldnt create such distortions/delusions in reality, but they do. X action shouldnt lead to Y deluded distortion, but it does. Generally we think of chemicals doing this, like drugs, not beliefs. The physical causes the mental change. Of course, this can just be more proof that mental beliefs are physical events whereby the x delusions are simply unhealthily potentatiated neural pathways with physiological centers that simulate the same feeling as if it was a physical cause.
And that would be stringent or hardcore physicalism. But I'm trying to be fair to physicalism as a more general thesis (one I don't agree with, but it deserves a hearing). I have a number of friends who would, if pressed, probably deny that there's anything out there except the physical world. But nor would they claim that you can use the fundamental entities of physics to explain macro-phenomena like economic behavior. Are they simply refusing to accept the consequences of their physicalism? Not necessarily. We can construct a sort of "best we can do right now" position that would go: "Sure, we have loads of unanswered questions about how physical realities interact, and how they can be causally effective. But at the end of the (scientific) day, I'm betting that the answers will still fail to reveal anything beyond the physical. We have to wait and see, but my money is on physicalism."
I think that sort of physicalism is much harder to argue against.
What is the difference between "scientism" and let's say something like a "pansemiosis"? Would scientism not add any more than what is gleaned from the scientific theories/conclusions? Pansemiosis (like the totalizing ones that someone like apokrisis advocates for), add a non-scientific addition- a mechanism that connects all the disparate things in a connective tissue. It isn't "physical" but some sort of logical structure that transcends the physical but totalizes it. These kind of theories aren't based on "physicalism", but neither do they seem to rely on/point to anything related to "mental" let alone "supernatural". Where do those theories fall then? I wouldn't say it's "scientism". That is to say, it would seem like "scientism" itself would never even come to the level of philosophy. It would simply be repeating the conclusions of science. Philosophy would have to take that and structure it into something more than these conclusions. The instant you try to do such a thing, you have to answer metaphysical questions (e.g.'What is the nature of X") the instant this is answered, you have a metaphysics beyond the scientific conclusions. Presumably, this would no longer be "scientism". Or perhaps, scientism is more about fooling oneself. One doesn't realize that one's metaphysical beliefs are in fact metaphysical.
Yes.
Quoting schopenhauer1
Methodological naturalism says behave as if it were and get on with it. Physicalism seems like a vacuous piece of extra metaphysical naturalist baggage in that context.
Quoting Leontiskos
Quoting T Clark
This is where I wonder if a certain logic to the situation is obscured. Is there something practical to the suitcase I can't see? What is the minimum we should need to get on with science optimally? Methodological natualism seems to be the answer to me. But I am open to reasons why more might be needed.
Quoting noAxioms
Yes, that was poorly phrased. I've edited it.
Quoting noAxioms
I had this under the rubric of "most". Changed to "some" to avoid being misleading.
Many thanks for identifying those issues.
Quoting noAxioms
The first "it" I've bolded in your quote is methodological naturalism. The second one is metaphysical naturalism. You seem to be talking as if you think I was referring to the same thing. But the difference is crucial as it's roughly where I think the dividing line against unnecessary metaphysical assumption (the suitcase) comes into play.
I'd tend to agree, but I think what's going on here is that physicalism is a set of beliefs that one commits to when answering questions regarding the nature of things. Presumably, you can have the same critique of any number of metaphysical takes on reality, not just physicalism. These metaphysical takes can be grounded in non-supernatural beliefs, even but be very disparate. For example, the metaphysics of someone, let's say like Richard Dawkins (who I would presume comes close to what @Wayfarer means by a "scientism") and the metaphysics of someone like apokrisis (who whatever else you think of his ideas, is scientifically oriented in regards to his metaphysics), would be very different.
Presumably, BOTH consider metaphysical questions, but maybe not. Perhaps it is the case that someone like Richard Dawkins, may not really grapple with metaphysical questions, yet unknowingly takes a metaphysical stance anyways (i.e. physicalism). My question then is:
Which is worse?
1) Being scientifically-oriented (using methodological physicalism), considering the metaphysical questions and making a (critical yet speculative) stance on it.
OR
2) Being scientifically oriented (using methodological physicalism), but not consciously considering metaphysical questions at all, YET inadvertently making metaphysical conclusions about reality from it?
If 1 is worse, then you have something against any metaphysical speculation. If 2 is worse, you simply don't like non-critically examined metaphysical theories.
I think this highlights an important tension within physicalism. Broad physicalist interpretations certainly add nothing conceptually, but the more physicalism is restricted, the more objections arise. There's an ironic tradeoff there where in order to make physicalism meaningful, you pretty much have to make it wrong or at least so problematic as to be questionably worth defending.
This feeds into Hempel's dilemma as mentioned by @Michael "if physicalism is defined via reference to contemporary physics, then it is false after all, who thinks that contemporary physics is complete? but if physicalism is defined via reference to a future or ideal physics, then it is trivial after all, who can predict what a future physics contains?"
https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/physicalism/#HempDile
Hempel's dilemma wasn't exactly what I had in mind writing the OP. The later criticism I discovered by Chomsky though is almost identical to my main point as he essentially makes the same argument--that movement beyond the boundary of methodological naturalism adds unnecessary and undesriable metaphysical commitments, i.e. creates the empty suitcase.
Here are the clearest formulations I've been able to find online so far:
https://plato.stanford.edu/archIves/sum2020/entries/physicalism/
"[Chomsky argues that] the physicalist project in philosophy of mind is on the face of it rather different from the naturalistic project. In the first place, the physicalist project is, as we have noted, usually thought of a piece of metaphysics. But there is nothing metaphysical about the [methodological] naturalistic project, it simply raises questions about what we can hope to explain.
...
It is precisely at the place where the physicalist project departs from the naturalistic project that Chomsky's criticism begins to take shape. For insofar as it is different from the naturalistic project, there are a number of ways in which the physicalist project is questionable. First, it is hard to see what the project might be it is true that throughout the history of philosophy and science one encounters suggestions that one might find out about the world in ways that are distinct from the ones used in the sciences, but these suggestions have always been rather obscure. Second, it is hard see how this sort of project could recommend itself to physicalists themselves such a project seems to be a departure from methodological naturalism .but most physicalists endorse methodological naturalism as a matter of fact"
And:
https://teorievedy.flu.cas.cz/index.php/tv/article/download/271/293
'Chomskys objection is that the doctrine has no clear content. He thinks that those who advocate physicalism and those who would endeavour to prove it false are both wrong in thinking that there is a substantive doctrine at issue. Chomsky holds this general view about physicalism because he also holds the more particular view that the concept of the physical (or the material), which must inevitably enter into any characterisation of physicalism, is devoid of clear meaning. At best, talk of the physical acts as a placeholder for whatever we discover, or could discover, to be true about nature. He writes:
"There is no longer any definite conception of body. Rather, the material world is whatever we discover it to be, with whatever properties it must be assumed to have for the purposes of explanatory theory." '
Thanks for the references. :up: I will take a look at that article.
Good point. My response to @T Clark, above, is an attempt to mount such a defense, in the spirit of charity. But you're right, it's open to a lot of questions.
In this context, amenable to the scientific method or not. In order to employ the scientific method, you employ it on that which it can be employed but you don't make a prior assumption that everything is this or that, you act only as if it were and the results justify your efforts (or not). The supernatural is just that which can't be reliably measured, replicated etc. in principle.
Right, and I think this is a good way to capture methodological naturalism:
Quoting Baden
I want to ask whether this is coherent, and perhaps the physicalist would want to ask that too. How much mileage can we really get out of "behave as if it were," or, "pretend"?* My nephew recently told me that it was incumbent upon me to pretend that the dog is a tiger. If I had asked him why, he might have said, "Because it will be fun!"
I think methodological naturalism asks us to do more than behave as if reality were measurable. It seems that it asks us to behave as if naturalism were true, at least for the duration of our inquiry. If I asked methodological naturalism why, what would it say? Whatever its answer, I suspect that the answer will betray metaphysical commitments that it purports to not have.
On this account we might have an interaction like the following:
(I would say that the second and third statements are both true.)
More succinctly, you seem to be saying, "Methodological naturalism is sound and solid in itself; physicalism is problematic; therefore we should take the former and leave the latter." I think there is a strong argument to be made that methodological naturalism is not sound and solid in itself. The first premise here aligns with your (1), which in the OP is more of a presupposition than an argument.
* It is curious to me how much pretending we are told to do with it comes to religion, both from secularists and religious alike. Apparently this began when the phrase "etsi Deus non daretur" took on a certain meaning.
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Quoting Baden
But can't the same be said about talk of "the natural"? Is naturalism any less shifty than physicalism? In each case it would seem that certain explanations are ruled out a priori for no articulated reason, and whenever phenomena which support those explanations are encountered, the conception of what is "natural" or "physical" is simply broadened to accommodate. My thesis here is that these critiques of physicalism also function as critiques of naturalism, just in a mitigated way.
Quoting Baden
This is a crucial attempt to articulate a reason for ruling out supernatural explanations, and as always it is bound up with a specific conception of science. On this definition science has to do with what is repeatable, and therefore the supernatural is ruled out (along with, perhaps, the psychological, the sociological, the historical, etc.). For the Western mind supernatural encounters fall into the genus of interpersonal encounters, and it is the interpersonal nature of the phenomenon that is not repeatable.
The alternative is a view of science which opens the door to the soft sciences, including theology. If the repeatability requirement is softened then interpersonal realities can be the subject of scientific study, because repeated interpersonal interactions do yield true and reliable knowledge, even though the repeatability is not as strict as that of the lab scientist who deals with a passive and subordinate substance.
I first came to this realization through the Tao Te Ching. "The Tao that can be spoken is not the eternal Tao." It has become a central part of my understanding of how the world works - reality is not objective, it is a mixture of an external non-human existence interacting with our human nature. Kant described something similar when he talked about aspects of reality, i.e. space and time, that we know a priori. Recently I've been reading Konrad Lorenz who connects Kant's a priori with evolution. He says that we have evolved to survive through an interaction between objective reality and our biological nature. In his understanding, human nature is a reflection of objective reality. I don't see it that way, but I think his understanding of the mechanism is correct. Here's a link to an article of his.
https://archive.org/details/KantsDoctrineOfTheAPrioriInTheLightOfContemporaryBiologyKonradLorenz
I have some other ideas about this too, but I haven't got them put together enough to go into them here.
Quoting Leontiskos
To give a pertinent example, can Chomsky's mysterianism really be said to conform with naturalism?
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Edit: This is perhaps a pithy way to phrase my objection: If the physicalist pivots to methodological physicalism, has he then solved the problem? Or is there something suspicious about trying to solve the problem in this way?
I think there are a lot of people out there, probably mostly physical scientists, who do think psychology, sociology, and economics are nothing but physics.
Quoting J
As I see it, this is not a "best we can do right now" issue. It's not a question of inadequate theory and technology, it's that it is not possible. Here's a link to one of my favorite papers - Anderson's "More is Different." Written in 1972, but it always gets brought up when this subject is discussed.
https://www.tkm.kit.edu/downloads/TKM1_2011_more_is_different_PWA.pdf
I've learned a lot about biosemiotics from Apokrisis (including that it exists!) and benefitted a lot from it, although I don't agree with his metaphysics. Biosemiotics on the whole is not materialist in orientation so I dont see biosemiotics as scientistic in the sense that Dawkins/Dennett neo-darwinist materialism is. (Notice, though, that even though C S Peirce is categorised as an idealist philosopher in most directories, Apokrisis will generally downplay his idealist side.)
Quoting Leontiskos
I'd vote yes. I think there are plenty of scientists who are to all intents physicalist as far as their work is concerned but agnostic or open-minded with respect to matters that can't be adjuticated by science.
Quoting T Clark
:100: It might interest you to know that Evan Thompson, co-author of The Blind Spot article, did a higher degree in Chinese philosophy and was one of the authors of The Embodied Mind. His approach is very much aligned with what you're saying here.
Well again, the definition of science comes into it.
If methodological naturalism means (temporarily) behaving as if naturalism is true, and if science is bound up with methodological naturalism, then to instruct someone to, "Behave as if you're doing science," amounts to the same thing. Yet the instruction, "Behave as if you're doing science," is useful in showing up the circularity of the argument in question.
And as far as your set of interests are concerned, I would say that methodological naturalism is little more than a stand-in for mechanistic natural philosophy. It asks us to behave as if mechanistic natural philosophy is true. But if mechanistic natural philosophy is false, then why would we behave as if it is true? This is one example of what I meant earlier when I said that for the non-naturalist methodological naturalism is irrational. Then the rejoinder says that science itself presupposes the scientist's behaving as if mechanistic natural philosophy is true. The obvious question is, "Why?" Why accept such a definition of science?
It appears to me that you miss the point. Physicalism is a metaphysical theory, not a scientific theory. All coherent metaphysical theories are unfalsifiable. It's certainly reasonable to remain agnostic to metaphysical theories, but it's not UNreasonable to treat some metaphysical theory as a working hypothesis to see if it can account for everything we know about the world. Personally, I treat physicalism is the most reasonable default position- my working hypothesis, so I label myself a physicalist. I haven't encountered anything that isn't explainable from this framework, and it gives me a basis for discussions with supernaturalists (particularly theists). Metaphysical naturalism/physicalism is a counter to the epistemological problem posed by scientism, which is the belief that science and the scientific method are the best or only way to render truth about the world and reality. Here's an excerpt from an article exposing the flaw in scientism:
[I]"... scientism...is either self-refuting or trivial. Take the first horn of this dilemma. The claim that scientism is true is not itself a scientific claim, not something that can be established using scientific methods. Indeed, that science is even a rational form of inquiry (let alone the only rational form of inquiry) is not something that can be established scientifically. For scientific inquiry itself rests on a number of philosophical assumptions: that there is an objective world external to the minds of scientists; that this world is governed by causal regularities; that the human intellect can uncover and accurately describe these regularities; and so forth. Since science presupposes these things, it cannot attempt to justify them without arguing in a circle. And if it cannot even establish that it is a reliable form of inquiry, it can hardly establish that it is the only reliable form. Both tasks would require getting outside science altogether and discovering from that extra-scientific vantage point that science conveys an accurate picture of realityand in the case of scientism, that only science does so.[/i]-' source.
Metaphysical naturalism (or physicalism) fills in the gap that scientism leaves. Of course, it's not necessarily true, but it does defeat the claim (of some theists) that we "need" supernaturalism to account for aspects of the world.
:100:
:up: :up:
I think you make fair points here, and you are giving my theoretical physicalist rejoinder flesh and blood, which is helpful. But it doesn't sound like you treat physicalism as unfalsifiable. In fact it seems like you believe physicalism would be falsified insofar as you encounter things which are not explainable within the physicalist framework. I think that's as it should be, and what it means is that metaphysical theories are not unfalsifiable. Metaphysical theories are just a bit harder to falsify insofar as they draw nearer to first principles and presuppositions.
Interesting observation - it is falsifiable in one sense. But I don't think it's falsifiable in the scientific sense:
[I]"Falsifiability (or refutability) is a deductive standard of evaluation of scientific theories and hypotheses, introduced by the philosopher of science Karl Popper in his book The Logic of Scientific Discovery (1934).[B] A theory or hypothesis is falsifiable if it can be logically contradicted by an empirical test."[/i]
I think mechanistic analogies of organic life and nature are on the wane, not least because of emergence of movements like biosemiosis, previously mentioned, which sees nature as more language-like than machine-like (although residual mechanistic analogies are still prevalent in molecular biology. I think it's always been rather an anachronism that quantum physics is also called 'quantum mechanics' as the goings on of sub-atomic phenomena have never seemed remotely 'mechanical'.) But I have no problem with the idea that natural philosophy is true within its range of application.
Speaking of 'range of applicability' I could mention a principle here that is articulated in Buddhist philosophy - that of the 'two truths'. This is associated with early Mah?y?na Buddhism, and is the view that there are two levels or domains of truth - sa?v?tisatya, meaning conventional or relative, and param?rthasatya, meaning ultimate. In this schema, natural philosophy falls under the heading sa?v?tisatya. This does not necessarily deprecate 'conventional' knowledge, which includes science, but situates it relative to the insight (jñ?na) of the enlightened.
The Wikipedia entry says 'The conventional truth may be interpreted as "obscurative truth" or "that which obscures the true nature". Conventional truth would be the appearance that includes a duality of apprehender and apprehended, and objects perceived within that. Ultimate truth is free from the duality of apprehender and apprehended' (a clear reference to non-dualism which in the Buddhist form is 'advaya' to distinguish it from the Hindu 'advaita' ref).
This schema has an advantage over the rupture that is encountered in Western thought in the opposition between 'natural and supernatural' which is what lies behind the 'culture wars' over religion and science. It recognises the validity of conventional knowledge within its range of applicability, but at the same time makes explicit the essential dualism (e.g. self/other, mind/world), and hence the contingent nature, that characterises natural science, and that there is a real possibility of transcendental insight.
However, Western intellectual culture doesn't really have an equivalent to the Prajñ?p?ramit? (transcendental wisdom) which apprehends param?rthasatya, as that will generally be associated with religious revelation and be rejected on those grounds. It's part of the Western cultural predicament. But I still think it's worth considering this way of framing the issue in the context of the question in the OP.
I don't think this argument holds water. Or maybe it's nihilistic. To start, I don't think science is the only valid way of understanding the world. Is it valid? Yes, I think so. Is it rational? Yes, I think it is. What standard would we apply to determine rationality? Here's a first shot.
As I indicated, that's just off the top of my head. Looking at this now, it strikes me this is really just a description of the scientific method. The position described in the quoted text is just Hume's problem of induction. It's always seemed obvious to me that the perfect refutation of that position is that induction works. Beyond that, it strikes me that if the scientific method is not rational, then there is no rational way of knowing the world.
The point here is that the metaphysics involved in physicalism and the metaphysics that I would argue is present in methodological naturalism are adjudicable and non-arbitrary, and therefore they do not succumb to the critiques of metaphysics that many have leveraged. We don't need to be afraid of metaphysics, or believe that it represents some kind of unadjudicable free for all.
The Buddhist idea is not at all like that. With respect, I think this gives you a preconceived idea of what it means.
What gap?
As to Buddhism, it is strongly influenced by a significantly dualistic ontology in a way that the West is not. I think the Buddhist theory is also wrong, but it is more complicated given the way that it fits more nicely into that organic dualistic ontology. Beyond that, Buddhism grows out of praxis and Western science grows out of theoria, and therefore these are very different animals (even though the West is now becoming preoccupied with a different praxis, namely a Baconian praxis).
According to Buddhists, in reality, there are not two domains. Only from the perspective of the conventional domain is there considered to be a separate domain, that of the 'ultimate truth'. But in reality, that perceived division is a consequence of a dualistic outlook and the 'two truths' teaching is merely a 'skillful means' (upaya) intended to demonstrate the limitations of that mindset.
Quoting Leontiskos
I agree in some ways.
[quote=TRV Murti]The Madhyamika ('Middle Way') has no doctrine of existence, ontology. This would be, according to him, to indulge in dogmatic speculation. To the Vedanta (Hindu) and Vijñanavada (Mind Only), the Madhyamika, with his purely epistemological approach and lack of a doctrine of reality, cannot but appear as nihilistic. The no-doctrine attitude of the Madhyamika is construed by Vedanta and Vijñanavada as a no-reality doctrine; they accuse the Madhyamika, unjustifiably, of denying the real altogether and as admitting a theory of appearance without any reality as its ground. In fact, the Madhyamika does not deny the real; he only denies doctrines about the real. For him, the real as transcendent to thought can be reached only by the denial of the determinations which systems of philosophy ascribe to it.[/quote]
But in the absence of 'the real as transcendent to thought', actual nihilism looms an ever-present threat.
The author's argument against scientism doesn't claim to show science is irrational, but rather that it's core principle (that the scientific method is the only way to render truth about the world and reality) cannot be established with the scientific method - which he asserts makes it self-defeating.
The author of the paper I linked is Ed Feser, a proponent of Thomist metaphysics (the theistic metaphysics developed by Thomas Aquinas). Feser is basically trying to claim is system is superior to scientism because it has no such gap. My point is that metaphysical naturalism provides a similarly complete metaphysical system, one in which science fits perfectly - with no gap.
100% agree.
That the core principle of scientism (that the scientific method is the only way to render truth about the world and reality) cannot be established with the scientific method. This implies the core principle is an unjustified belief- that's the gap.
He said more than that. He said science can not be shown to be a rational method of inquiry. My post was an attempt to refute that. We don't have to take this any further. I just thought his argument was sloppy and wanted to express my disagreement.
Ah, I see. Somewhat similar to the fact that positivism fails according to the very criteria that it sets. Not a co-incidence. One of my lecturers used to compare positivism to the legendary uroborous, the snake that eats itself. The hardest part, he would say, with a mischievous grin, is the last bite.
Quoting Relativist
But you would only say that, if you think that metaphysical naturalism is metaphysically sound, wouldnt you? That metaphysical naturalism is capable of being all knowing?
I've emphasized that and wondered why others don't seem to realize the import of that even in the text you quoted.
Great OP. I tend to agree on most fronts so I will note the two places where I disagree.
First, "methodological naturalism," seems equally open to Hemple's Dilemma. If we discovered good empirical evidence for immaterial souls or ghosts, these would be considered "natural phenomena " Likewise, if a proper sort of magical ritual could reliably get spirits to manifest, this would also be considered natural, and so "methodological naturalism," would include seances.
"Naturalism" is probably best defined in terms of opposition to the "supernatural," but it's not readily obvious what this entails either. Sometimes "naturalism" is pulled out to imply that no concious intent or intentionality exists outside the "mind," but such a presupposition seems to go beyond method, and in any event wouldn't rule out mindless supernatural forces like karma. This problem seems particularly acute when it is extended into blanket presuppositions prohibiting teleology, etc.
The problem I see here is that it is actually quite difficult to disentangle intentionality and the intelligibility of the world. Moreover, many physicalists and naturalists will claim that certain aspects of nature are just uncaused "brute facts" (e.g. "why does Cosmic Inflation occur?" or "why was the starting entropy of the universe so low?"). But allowing "there is no explanation, it just is," seems every bit as open to abuse as "God did it and God's will is inscrutable." The key difference seems to be the reduce to the presence of some sort of intentionality being involved, things can "just be" but they cannot "just be" according to some will. I fail to see how this really makes a methodological difference though, either way we seem to allow for explanation to bottom out in the unintelligible and inscrutable.
Second, I object to the hard separation of "science" versus "philosophy." This is a relatively recent distinction and seems to me to have a lot of baggage associated with it (chiefly the dogmatic enforcement of the particular philosophy of the anti-metaphysical movement). I think it's an unhelpful distinction in general. Work in the "philosophy of physics," or "philosophy of biology," overlaps significantly with what physicists and biologists do, and theoretical science, particularly paradigm defining work, almost always involves a great deal of philosophical analysis.
Hence, I am not sure if I would necessarily criticize physicalism for being "unscientific." I think your point has merit though, in that physicalism very often ambiguously spreads itself across discrete fields (e.g. natural philosophy/physics and metaphysics), and uses this equivocation to advocate for its position.
Just looking at some of the replies, this has already come up. "Physicalism is metaphysics, not science," (e.g., ) of course presupposes that metaphysics is not a science (historically it was considered one) and that science is not philosophy (historically they were considered to overlap). I'd argue that the fire wall between these is illusory, and people routinely slide between them. This, to me, says the distinction is simply not a good one. We don't mistake botany for chemistry or psychology for physics in this way, and I'd argue that's because those distinctions are less ambiguous and arbitrary.
Of course, popular opinion in cosmology is now that a period of cosmic inflation lies prior to and is the source of the Big Bang. It was not meaningless to make such inquiries.
Such "brute fact" prohibitions on inquiry have a habit of dissolving whenever a better answer can be provided.
To the extent that "methodological naturalism," allows for such responses, it seems not far off from supernaturalism. What is the key difference? In one case we have the inscrutable and untinelligible "just happening," and in the other we posit some sort of mind, purpose, or moral force lying behind the inscrutable. But if we're going to say something is inscrutable, we might as well plead ignorance as to why it is, rather than make assertions as to its purpose or lack thereof.
I think this is a good line of argument. I had thought of physicalism, also metaphorically, as kind of a snake pit where whenever one snake pops its head up and you cut it off, another one simply reappears in its place, reflecting the adaptive ability of physicalism to proliferate new versions of itself in response to new objections. This overall amorphism seems highly suspect in the context of scientifc endeavour. But then the question arises, as you and others have pointed out, is it really realistic to presume you can entirely rid yourself of that type of problem and "just do" science under the guidance of methodological naturalism or some other supposedly more neutral framework? Aren't there snakes everywhere? Aren't there metaphysical commitments inherent in making your job philosophically coherent as an enterprise?
I think to an extent there are. And an associated problem is even finding generally accepted definitions of the concepts in question, so that hard lines can be drawn. Perhaps the scientific method, methodological naturalism, metaphysical naturalism (including physicalism) can be placed on a kind of spectrum of increased commitment and perhaps even that modest enterprise has its complications. But I still think its useful to try to get out Occam's razor and try to do what we can, especially when one finds oneself defending science against ideological and metaphysical encroachment in general. Let's take the beam out of our own eyes first.
Quoting Leontiskos
Here's another interesting line of approach. I had been thinking of the hard sciences, but most of my own background is in the soft sciences. And there's again a specturm to be considered. But qualitative studies do play a part in science and the soft sciences are absolutely drenched in philosophical commitments, particularly structuralist ones. Though, again, there is some kind of division envisioned between methodologies and metaphysics, it's very hard to see where that line really is. That's probably a conversation that's too broad for the scope of this thread, though I won't deny its relevancy.
Yes, I did notice that downplaying of idealism. The reason I bring up his philosophy is here we have an example of a scientifically-oriented philosophy that is not simply "scientism". Science is sifted through a sort of totalizing "information theory", which transcends and encapsulates it (and everything apparently). It does not appeal to supernatural, consciousness, or transcendental aspects of being (at least purposefully, but as you said, it is a kind of idealism at its root, based on a meta-logic, not a a traditional physicalist approach, though perhaps the "apeiron" with "symmetry-breaking" or whatnot might fall under a kind of very specific physicalism that follows a semiotic formula of Peirce, etc. etc.). But notice, like more traditional physicalist theories, there was no accounting for the terrain. It's all map. Whether you emphasize the arrangements of the physical or the physical substrates themselves (the form or the matter), none of that gets you closer to metaphysical questions regarding hard stuff, like consciousness. Clearly "being" a conscious entity and "describing" a conscious entity brings on a whole terrain of metaphysical questions about the nature of reality- what it means to "be".
On the whole, I think physicalism is on the wane. It's real heyday was actually the late 19th century, I think the scientific justification for it was demolished by the introduction of quantum physics in 1927.
I'll take a look..
Quoting Wayfarer
:up:
As Baden was indicating, if you provide physicalism with the baggage of every phenonemon, it loses its explanatory power as to what "physical" even means.. However, a lot of the metaphysical questions belie the framework needed for physicalism. What does "perspective" even mean for a physicalist? The view from a place (somewhere/nowhere/everywhere) doesn't matter to physicalism, but it is important to us, the conscious human who knows there are perspectives. And then what does an a-perspectival philosophy entail? If it is math, forces, and energy/matter, what are we talking about without perspective really? Then we are back to things like panpsychism, object-oriented philosophy, process philosophy, and information theory.. all things that would stretch the concept of "physical" beyond what we often mean by a naive physicalism.
Quite! The sources I've been reading and listening to of late - these include Bernardo Kastrup, Evan Thompson and John Vervaeke - are open to perspectives more often associated with religious philosophies. They're not formally religious - Thompson has a book called Why I am not a Buddhist - but they're open to considering those perspectives. And I think much of the motivation for physicalism has been based on the delineating it from anything that might be associated with such perspectives. It's like an implicit prohibition, or even a taboo (as Alan Watts said). That is one of the main points of the Thomas Nagel essay mentioned above, Evolutionary Naturalism and the Fear of Religion, resulting, he says, in 'the ludicrous overuse of evolutionary biology to explain everything about life, including everything about the human mind. Darwin enabled modern secular culture to heave a great collective sigh of relief, by apparently providing a way to eliminate purpose, meaning, and design as fundamental features of the world. Instead they become epiphenomena, generated incidentally by a process that can be entirely explained by the operation of the non-teleological laws of physics on the material of which we and our environments are all composed.' And that is the default for a lot of people and questioning it often results in accusations of 'supporting creationism' (one which was actually levelled at Nagel!) So that's a fault line, like a cultural tectonic plate.
But there has been a sea change in culture since the 1960's, what with the growth of ecological awareness, ideas relating to higher consciousness (mainly originating from the East) and a kind of scientically-informed idealism which you can find even in relatively hard-headed popular intellectuals like Paul Davies. Tao of Physics was another pop milestone. The times they are a'changing.
Quoting Leontiskos
Quite agree. As a resident idealist, I'm often challenged to prove my claim that there can be such a thing as 'higher knowledge', beyond merely subjective conviction or faith. The argument is there is no method of inter-subjective validation for such claims, in the way there is for peer-reviewed, objective science.
I will often answer that there is indeed a kind of peer-review and 'quality control' method, if you like, in spiritual cultures, such as Zen Buddhism, and I'm sure there have been analogies in other cultural settings. These provide an environment where there is instruction, execution and judgement by higher authorities, in lineages that have persisted for centuries, millenia even. (The Buddhist Sangha is arguably the oldest social organisation still in existence.)
The real problem with the idea of higher knowledge is the lack of a vertical axis against which the term 'higher' is meaningful. But that is the very thing that physicalism has undermined. Physicalism has a 'flat ontology', with matter (or nowadays, matter-energy-space-time) being the sole constituent of existence. This was the point of Robert M. Pirsig's book Zen and the Art of Motorcycle Maintenance which recognised the lack of a 'metaphysics of quality' in Western culture. Another of those 'consciousness raising' books from that era.
Yep, and intersubjective validation/confirmation.
Quoting Wayfarer
Yes, that's a good point. What's curious is that often higher knowledge is called "wisdom," and I would think that the physicalist would admit that a physicalist possesses wisdom that a non-physicalist does not possess. That is, the ability to know and understand the metaphysical basis of reality constitutes wisdom. Then enters the age-old question of how to account for reason or intellect in terms of the physical.
There's a nice term you encounter in the writings of some of those who advocate for a philosophia perennis, the perennial philosophy. That is, sapiential, as distinct from (but not necessarily in opposition to) scientific. Hence, the 'sapiential traditions.' In my case, those that I know at least something about are Christian Platonism, Vedanta, and Mah?y?na Buddhism.
In all of them, there is the implicit idea of the 'philosophical ascent', and that knowledge of the real is contingent upon qualities of character - which is something different to 'scientific detachment' even if you can trace how the latter developed out of the former (James Hannam's 'God's Philosophers' is really good on that.) That what is 'higher' is also possessed of a greater reality. You find that also in the German idealists (ref).
But I think the key thing is, all of those traditions emphasise self negation and the requirement of transcending egoic consciousness ('he who looses his life for My sake'), whereas science and liberal individualism is grounded very much in the individual's self -awareness. I'm not wishing to present that as a value judgement or to dissapprove of it, but as a philosophical perspective.
I think the only way the kind of physicalism you described can be tenable is if we buy into reductionism. I can easily identify phenomena that are obviously not physical, e.g. the mind, society. The only way those can be reasonably considered physical is if you could support the claim that they are reducible to physics.
I find the metaphysics of science interesting, so I bought it. Ive only just started reading, but it looks pretty good so far. I especially like that he has been very specific about whats included in the metaphysics of modern pre-quantum physics as well as medieval and ancient science.
Yes, good. First I want to say that every metaphysics is going to be a little bit like a regenerating hydra by definition. This is because the metaphysics provides a scientific paradigm, and to falsify a paradigm is more difficult than to falsify a theory. Paradigm shifts are unwieldy. Nevertheless, if a paradigm shift is made impossible by the ambiguity of the metaphysics then there is something wrong with the metaphysics. A metaphysics should be durable but not invincible.
Second, there is a significant difference between an explicit metaphysics and an implicit metaphysics. In some ways those on my side of the aisle want to say that the methodological naturalist should get explicit about his implicit metaphysics. I think this is clearly right, at least to the very limited extent that the methodological naturalist needs to explicitly admit that he has an implicit metaphysics. Does he need to go further and "make it explicit"? Not necessarily. That may not be the job of the scientist, and it may be imprudent for him to try if he is not up to the task. If his metaphysics is a fuzzy background to his theories, then it may be better to leave it fuzzy rather than try to explicate what is not clear. I want to say that the scientist only needs to muster his metaphysics when he is challenged on that front, but that for the most part he should leave it alone.
Quoting Baden
Sure, but if science is the grass and metaphysics is the soil then I would want to talk about the kind of soil/metaphysics required, namely rich or fertile soil. If that is the right analogy, then we would never talk about soil encroachment in general.
I was just told about a new book in this area: Spencer Klavan's, "Light of the Mind, Light of the World: Illuminating Science through Faith." Apparently he makes a case that the (religious) metaphysics of the West birthed science.
Quoting Baden
:up:
And this has crossed over into the "political right" as well. Jordan Peterson opens up his self-help book aimed at young men by defining the human good in terms of research on lobsters. From the first chapter, the human good is the cultivation of "feel good chemicals," the acquisition of resources, and access to sexual partners.
To be clear, I certainly wouldn't want to say that the human good has nothing to do with these things, or that studying them isn't relevant. Quite the opposite. However, it's seems to me that it's the residue of reductionism that sends authors like Sam Harris off looking for the explanation of societal and individual good in terms of hormone and neurotransmitter levels. To me, this seems a lot like trying to figure out how to build a plane, or how some animals fly, in terms of the chemistry at work in the organelles of flying animals' wings. No doubt, the animals need wings to fly and the wings are composed of cells, but this completely missed the idea of generating principles or unification as set over (or at least as a balance to) reduction.
I guess part of the problem is that unifications are often misunderstood as reductions in popular science.
This of course brings up metaphysical notions of emergence. This is taken for granted in naive physicalism / scientism.
Is it not thereby falsifiable, or at least made progressively more unlikely? At some point we might encounter a phenomenon whose behavior we despair of ever fitting a law like framework around. For instance, suppose beings seen in supernatural horror movies became commonly observed. Their seeming ability to bend reality to their will would pose a stark challenge to physicalism. Of course science would attempt to meet that challenge, and some movies will introduce an ersatz set of laws into their world, explaining their ghosts in a way that is supposed to satisfy our physicalist intuitions (but seldom successfully). But, science may simply fail to do so, especially if, as a matter of fact, no such laws existed.
Physicalism is the conviction that empirical phenomenon are determined(not necessarily deterministically) by physical laws (what that means is not clear, granted). This may not be the case.
Well, I think many physicalists have abandoned the idea that phenomena are extrinsically "determined by" natural laws. Rather, natural laws are our descriptions (or approximations, e.g. Cartwright's work) of how "the world works." On the intrinsic view, law-like descriptions are possible because of what things are, which determines how they interact.
This is interesting in that it proposes a return of natures to naturalism. The earlier view you describe (which certainly still has many adherents and is probably the dominant view in the popular imagination to this day) has essentially disposed of natures, making naturalism more a thesis about the primacy of mechanism and efficient cause (Charles Taylor's "A Secular Age," does a good job showing how this grows out of Reformation Era theology; often missed is the fact that the "new science" didn't actually lead to rapid economic or technological advancement until centuries later, so we can't just explain this all in terms of "usefulness.")
The problem, IMO, is that the return of natures hasn't necessarily come with a move away from smallism, so what exactly constitutes ordered wholes remains an unresolved issue. The most common answers in popular physics tend to be "the cosmos as a whole," or "the very smallest things, which are fundemental precisely because they are smallest." I say "problem" because I think a middle ground that finds relatively unified ordered wholes at other levels would be beneficial, particularly in reunifying the study of nature with that of ethics and the social sciences.
Interesting OP!
As I see it methodological naturalism is the counterpart to the phenomenological epoché. It is simply a methodologically driven bracketing of what is irrelevant to or not within the ambit of enquiry.
Physicalism as a metaphysical standpoint consists in the idea that all that is real is the physical. What is the physical? That which can be observed and/ or whose effects can be observed. That which can be measured and modeled and/or whose effects can be measured and modeled.
Success in science does not require scientists to be metaphysical naturalists but it is arguable that the latter is the most plausible metaphysic. Is there even a coherent alternative?
Another question this enquiry seems to raise is as to what could possibly be at stake in the argument between physicalism and idealism. It seems that for at least some folk what is at stake is that they take physicalism to preclude the possibility that this life is for each of us not all that there is. However implausible we might consider the idea of an afterlife to be I don't see that physicalism necessarily precludes the possibility.
Can you think of anything else that could be at stake?
The question is whether "ridding ourselves of physicalism" has any actual meaningful consequences for physicalists. I think what gives physicalists meaning and contrasts them to others like idealists is not just the weight they put onto scientific rigor and perhaps consensus, but the story that science seems to tell you about the centrality of physics compared to other ontologies. Maybe not always in a practical or epistemic sense but it seems hard to contradict the picture that things kind of all sit on top of physics which describes reality at the finest granularity and prescribes the most general descriptions of how our sensory world changes, when we strip away all the redundant complexity. I think many physicalists would then contrast themselves with idealists and others in the sense that idealists don't believe in this kind of centrality, which usually means subscribing to or being open to scientifically unsubstantiated ideas like the afterlife or Kastruppian dissociative alters or psycho-physical laws. I think a lot of these metaphysical debates like physicalism vs idealism can be boiled down to whether you entertain certain hypotheses about nature. Other than that, any underlying fundamental metaphysical notions seem for all practical purposes indistinguishable, unfalsifiable, uninstantiable. Similarly, the idea of a "scientific method" comes up with similar problems. So what are you left with but contending these hypotheses about the afterlife or alters or psycho-physical laws. Anything else isn't substantially different from physical metaphysics which itself is vague and unfalsifiable and insubstantial.
:100: :up:
Contrary to the OP:
Quoting Baden
"Physicalism" is a handy word for conveying my perspective on minds succinctly, but it is 'weightless baggage' in that for me it is simply a word pointing towards a working hypothesis.
Working hypotheses are things we can't help but carry around. It happens effortlessly and automatically. Attempt to throw a reliable working hypothesis away, and unless a better working hypothesis comes along, the old reliable one will come back.
A life spent in scientific pursuits has made it routine for me to attempt to throw away reliable hypotheses, only to have them come back to mind as the well supported and unfalsified working hypotheses that they are. I suspect the same is true of many who use the word "physicalism" to convey their perspectives.
Like saddling physicalism with a commitment to determinism, for example. (OK, that's not quite fair, because this is not central to your criticism, and besides, this is so blatantly false as to be hardly worth focusing on.)
The whole point of physicalism being "unscientific" (i.e., not being entailed by science) misses the mark. If physicalism is a metaphysical position, as you (and most everyone else) characterize it, then its only obligation to science is to be consistent with it and to not give it a priori constraints.
Anyway, I am not here to defend physicalism: I am not attached to such vague labels. I prefer discussing more specific positions. If I ever identify as a physicalist, it is for sociological reasons: often enough, I find myself attracted to positions held by thinkers who identify as, or are identified as physicalists.
@Count Timothy von Icarus @T Clark @wonderer1 @Apustimelogist @Janus @J @schopenhauer1 @Leontiskos @Wayfarer @Relativist
(I hope I got everyone).
Answering this post might be a useful segue into dealing with, or at least acknowledging, the other contributions here since I last posted, some of which have been excellent (I have been reading comments, but struggling to find useful additional things to say).
Quoting SophistiCat
What I said about determinism as written and qualified isnt blatantly false or false at all. However, it may ironically be an empty suitcase for the OP because if determinism cannot be applied to modern versions of physicalism in general as many other metaphysical commitments cannot (e.g. the reductionism of physicalism has been criticised in the thread, but there are non-reductive forms of physicalism toothe snake pit survives even if individual snakes dont) then why mention it at all? So, theres value to that criticism.
Quoting SophistiCat
This ties well into one of my explanations for the empty suitcase: The badge of honour. It generally sounds good for those working in scientific fields to call themselves physicalists. Theres potential social capital there. And it's often not really taken for a metaphysical commitment, but something more akin to common scientific sense.
What are we to say of it then? The suitcase serves a function but often in an indirect way. Maybe many know it's empty or dont know whats in the suitcase, but just so long as you have a suitcase! But then, to avoid hypocrisy, the door should be open to alternative metaphysical commitments that dont have any direct bearing on the conducting of the scientific method, no? Except those who take that route seem to get a much harder time of it---socially.
I suppose I am advocating for a kind of radical agnosticism as to the ultimate nature of things because I think language wont take us anywhere near there and we end up creating word games that unnecessarily divide and polarise. But then that too might be criticized as a metaphysical commitment. Maybe just opening our mouths about these issues creates empty suitcases, wallets, handbags and other accessories, the only difference between them being a matter of taste. But I'll stick to my position until and unless it's shown to be as shaky as I see the others.
There's no non-physical model, period. No model at all. Just the english sentence, "the mind can't be physical" - that's what nonphysicalism has, but no model. So it's not like I'm accepting physicalism and rejecting other models - there simply aren't other models. Nobody's made one. No non-physicalist in the entire history of the world has made a compelling nonphysicalist model of a mind, of how a mind might work.
Maybe physicalism is wrong, I'm not 100% sure it has to be right, but I'm okay believing some things which have some tiny probability of being wrong.
Keep this in mind though: this universe is turing complete, which means that if minds are possible to implement in any way, they're almost certainly possible to implement here, out of physical stuff. The turing completeness of the universe makes non-physical ideas of the mind kind of obsolete - however you could implement them non-physically, you could just do that physically too. That's how I see it. We know we have physical stuff right here, we know it's turing complete, and we know when we mess with our physical brains we're messing with the functions of our minds. I don't see any reason to even entertain the model-less world of nonphysical minds. I imagine my reasoning above has a lot in common with why physicalism is the status quo among scientists.
Being open-minded is a virtue, and most reasonable people, whether physicalists or otherwise, would say that they are - in principle - open to alternative metaphysical commitments. Open-mindedness is not the same as agnosticism, though. One can have strong opinions, yet be open to changing them.
The main issue with physicalism, as with many other broad philosophical and ideological categorizations, is that it is hard to define and articulate with any precision and consistency, while avoiding circularity. I think the best we can do with it is to treat it ethnographically, characterizing it by the sort of philosophical views that self-identified physicalists tend to hold in common. You will generally find a preference for empirical epistemology and scientific method, and non-mentalist ontology.
I don't think the OP is ultimately about physicalism's obligation to science. I think it is about physicalism's claim to be a better (metaphysical) explanation, or at least a better scientific metaphysics.
I suppose your probably right, although rigid atomism and causal closure have the benefit of being a very clear thesis about what being is. And I wouldn't undersell how popular this conception remains.
In his the book he made from his lectures on medieval and renaissance literature (The Discarded Image), C.S. Lewis speaks of the "medieval model," a synchretic fusion of ancient philosophy and literature, and how it acted as a "backcloth" for all speculation about the world in that period (including literature).
It has occured to me that atomistic, reductive materialism remains a strong "backcloth" for our own era. One doesn't seem it so much in popular physics anymore, but it remains a sort of background assumption in the special sciences and particularly in popular science/philosophy (especially the blending of the two). Sam Harris seems like a fine example here. I didn't get through too much of Sapolsky's book because it seemed repetitive and I saw a number of poor reviews of it, but that seems to operate on similar background assumptions.
It has occured to me before if there might not even be a quasi-religious element here, in that this view does seem to make life quite absurd, and so if one embraces an existentialist philosophy of overcoming absurdity and freedom from essence it's an important set of background assumptions.
-From whence intelligibility? Why are things what they are?
Whereas physicalism seems to me to generally focus primarily on questions of "how." We have observable phenomena, but how do they come to be and how are they best predicted and forecast? (Dawkins for instance defines "reality" in terms of prediction). The "physical" is just that which is required for this "how" explanation. But the physical itself is often said to lack any "why." It simply is, a brute fact. Intelligibility is a "construct" of minds and need not be sought in nature or the physical, or might even be said to be mere appearance (and quiddity/phenoenology is [I]usually[/I] demoted to mere appearance as set over and against objective physical reality).
Ricoeur traces the focus on efficient beginnings and the cascade of efficient causes to the Old Testament, and this is no doubt partly an explanation, but it seems to me like this is a distinctly modern move.
Is this adequate for generating a mind? Lots of extremely simple things are Turing complete: Conway's Game of Life, Rule 110, etc. Part of the open questions in the philosophy of information is how to define computation in physical systems because it seems possible the argue that practically everything is a computer (a not unpopular position in physics). But obviously this completely explodes the explanatory power of computational theories of mind, which is why you need something like IIT instead.
At any rate, I don't think physicalism re philosophy of mind has all that much to do with physicalism as an ontology. It seems perfectly possible to accept the former while rejecting the latter.
Panpsychism and participatory universe conceptions of quantum mechanics, or the Wigner-Von Neumann interpretation don't seem necessarily at odds with physicalism, but they do seem to stretch pretty far from what is normally intended by the term, and there are certainly models for these. There are models for dualism too, I just am not particularly familiar with them. They tend to posit the body as something like a "radio receiver." Whether they are convincing is another matter (technically Descartes has a model, it just bottoms out unconvincingly in the pineal gland).
Interesting points, which I'd like to respond to.
Physicalism focuses on both what exists and how things happen (i.e. causation). Everything that exists is physical (this is axiomatic, but it can be defended epistemically), and causation is accounted for through laws of nature - and this explains how things come to be. It does depend on the physical world existing by brute fact (a metaphysically necessary brute fact), but AFAIK, every metaphysical theory depends on some metaphysically necessary brute fact.
Intelligibility and quiddity strikes me as related to theories of mind and of truth. Something is "intelligible" if it is understood (i.e. it is describable by propositions that are known). Quiddity seems a subset of intelligibility. A complete metaphysical theory (whether physicalist or anything else) is a description of the way things actually are objectively (not merely what we perceive), albeit that we learn about the world phenomenologically.
Quoting Count Timothy von Icarus
I agree with your latter statement, but I'll state the obvious: a committed physicalist will necessarily believe in a physicalist theory of mind.
How's this (as a start):
[i]Naturalism is a metaphysical system that assumes the totality of reality is natural. The "natural" is anything that exists* that is causally connected to the actual physical world through laws of nature.
Physicalism=a form of naturalism that adds the assumption that every existing object is physical.[/i]
Help me understand what is imprecise or circular.
This just strikes me as mapping the common presuppositions of physicalism onto "what a complete metaphysical theory should be." It seems to presuppose the subject - object dualism that a great deal of 20th and 21st century explicitly targets as the cardinal sin of early modern philosophy. That quiddity and truth have to do primarily with philosophy of mind would be another point of contention (e.g. the supposition that things are intelligible because of "what they are). So too would the framing that suggests representationalism (i.e. we know our ideas or mental representations, not the world). Likewise for the assertion that metaphysics deals with a knowledge of the "objective" as set over and against the subjective, as opposed say to the absolute (which covers both reality and appearances, since all appearances are [I]really[/I] appearances.)
Such a definition surely defines subjective idealism out of contention from the get-go, no? But it seems like the assumptions in the definition would also knock out most pre-modern philosophy (and their various modernizations) and a good deal of contemporary Continental metaphysics, Hegelianism, neo-Thomism, etc.
But of course, probably the number one critique of (mainstream representationalist) physicalism is precisely that it axiomatically assumes an unresolvable dualism that makes skepticism insurmountable.
Are laws of nature natural? Theyre never actually observed, only their effects can be discerned by measurement and observation. But the question why nature is lawful or what natural laws comprise, is not itself a question that naturalism has answers for. Naturalism assumes an order in nature, but it doesnt explain it, nor does it need to explain it. That, I suppose, is what youre getting at by saying that the existence of the world is brute fact - which effectively forecloses any attempt to understand why things are the way they are, whether they are as they seem, and so on.
Another argument is that what exists according to natural science, does not include the observing subject who stipulates the axioms upon which it rests. That is the topic of the innumerable and interminable discussions about the hard problem of consciousness. It is also the major topic of both phenomenology and existentialism, which will probably not be cowed with threats of brute fact. :wink:
Ha! Isn't 'the observing subject who stipulates the axioms upon which it rests' another brute fact? :wink:
//I suppose to expand on that a bit, I find @Relativists defense of physicalism is very much grounded in the Cartesian division typical of modern physicalism generally.
And another:
[quote=Alva Noe, Review of Mind and Cosmos, quoted by Edward Feser] The scientific revolution took its impulse from what the philosopher Bernard Williams called the Absolute Conception of Reality. This is a conception of the world as "it really is" entirely apart from how it appears to us: a colorless, odorless value-free domain of particles and complexes moving in accordance with timeless and immutable mathematical laws. The world so conceived has no place for mind in it. No intention. No purpose. If there is mind and of course the great scientific revolutionaries such as Descartes and Newton would not deny that there is mind it exists apart from and unconnected to* the material world as this was conceived of by the New Science.
If modern science begins by shaping a conception of the cosmos, its subject matter, in such a way as to exclude mind and life, then it shouldn't come as a surprise that we can't seem to find a place for them in the natural order so conceived.[/quote]
*while being explainable in terms of
Yep. I had in mind that for those who argue that "all is consciousness" this is amounts to a brute fact - they'd be claiming that consciousness is the foundational reality, beyond which there are no further explanationsit's simply taken as given. I would think that Kastrup, amongst today's more prominent idealists, might argue along these lines. But I think the term 'brute fact' is a bit on the nose and so people seem to talk more about the primacy of consciousness.
Quoting Baden
Quoting Baden
The ultimate nature of things had already been announced way back when the pre-socratics didn't have the scientific method, let alone physics yet. The universe, according to them, is made up of "stuff" (What stuff is, is not important at the moment. We just want to point out that they, too, saw reality as physical). So, the humans' recorded conception of the world predates any scientific method.
But first, I will segue here and talk about the reason why the scientists (I mean scientists, not philosophers) do not have a well-defined explanation of how memories formed in the brain is because they discovered that the human brain is much more complex than previously thought when it comes to determining where exactly the memories are stored. We don't store complete images or stories in the brain. When we try to remember something that happened in the past, it's the network systems that get activated and neurons talk to each other by sending signals in the form of electrical pulses (not to be confused with electricity) and chemicals. These are encoded signals, as they explained, during our experiencing. The formal name for this process is synaptic plasticity.
Going back to the metaphysical view of physicalism, it is necessary that we have to resort to an explanation of how our experiences get stored in the brain. The 'subjective' experiences that we refer to is at the heart of the hard question of philosophy, after all. Because it is here where we assign the place of the consciousness. Consciousness, like memories, is not a thing. It is a status that happens when our neurons get stimulated repeatedly. Our individual, unique memories, which we fondly call subjective are made possible by synapses. The differences in our recollection and our feelings (differences, therefore we say they are subjective) are due to the fact that our brain cells are not pre-mapped so that everyone who eats an apple would have in their brain the same exact set of neurons talking to each other. I could be missing a taste bud for sweets, for example, or tartness. I could be deficient in some vitamins, for example.
Still can't go past Schopenhauer:
Well the [I]Physics[/I] is a study of phúsis, "natures," by which things do what they do and are what they are. I think it's only a particular sort of naturalism that dispenses with natures.
On the one hand you have the tyranny of efficient causation, on the other atomism, which justifies that former, and on a third hand(!) you have representationalism which says that one cannot explain nature in terms of intelligible natures because the intelligibility of things must (axiomatically) by the constructions of minds, not intrinsic features of the things in question.
It could be framed thus, but it need not be. Hegelianism has no brute facts for instance. Arguably, the Principle of Sufficient Reason, a hallmark of many systems, seems to rule out brute facts.
Or as Kenneth Gallagher puts the metaphysical notion of causation: "that the order of becoming and existence must be intelligible; that no phase of the process of contingent existence is intelligible in itself; and that therefore contingent existence is always relative existence, essentially referred, qua existing to another.
But yes, on the view that the universe is just "mental substance," as opposed to "physical substance," and where the "laws of nature," the "initial conditions of the universe," and the universes spontaneous generation are all inexplicable bare facts, the two would essentially be the same.
On that view, wouldn't flight also not be a thing, since it is just "cells in wings responding to chemical signals." The same for "running," or "life" itself (and so also for each instance of living things?) Yet, since we have already successfully mastered heavier than air flight, we know that the principles of flight were not to be found in studying the organelles of cells in the wings of all flying animals, nor in their DNA, etc. (at least not most easily). Indeed, one can build a flying machine while being largely ignorant of the biology of flying animals so long as one understands the principles of lift, etc. that all those animals physiology takes advantage of. The same seems true of running and swimming, or even language production, and perhaps it is even so for conciousness.
I suppose we could define conciousness as a process and not a thing. But it seems to be a process carried out by and possessed by a thing. Of course, one could argue that life is also just a process, and living just an action, akin to running or swimming. Yet then this "processification" would seem to follow for [I]all[/I] contingent being(s) since everything is always changing and only has the properties we attribute to it because of how it inter[I]acts[/I] with everything else.
But then we are at risk of dissolving all things and having only a single universal process. IMO, the solution here is to realize that things (substances) have relative degrees of unity. Break a rock in half and you have two rocks. Break a cat in half and one no longer has a live cat. Some things work to organize themselves and maintain their form, and these have a higher degree of unity. On this view, a unifying reflective self-awareness would be the highest measure of unity and thus thing-hood.
Also, physics seems to show us there are no truly isolated systems, and that energy, cause, information, etc. flow across the boundaries of discrete things as if they didn't exist. This being so, it would seem all there is is the frenetic seething of a few quantum fields (and perhaps even these might be unified eventually, as the electro-weak force, and we'd have just one thing). But then it seems that conciousness is the wellspring of all multiplicity and discrete identity, in which case, the mind seems to be the thingiest thing! The very principle of thinghood!
Well, this is a problem in the literature on conciousness. Very few people state that the answer to the problem of understanding consciousness is that it is "magic." Yet I see no shortage of writers on this topic dragging out the battered corpse of Descartes fairly magical theory of substance dualism as the counter example that must be refuted to prove their own case (e.g., I just reread the Moral Landscape and Harris seems to think refuting the thought of a controversial thinker from the 1600s is the gold standard for supporting one's arguments).
In my reading, it seems that objections to physicalist theories of mind tend to largely center on the appeal to the physical being used to drag along other suppositions, e.g. a sort of reductionism (synapses for instance don't sustain conciousness on their own, nor do whole brains for that matter, or even heads removed from their bodies). For instance, Jaworski's survey text and the Routledge Contemporary Introduction introduce hylomorphism as a competitor to physicalism, but those theories certainly do not deny the connection between the mind and the body, neither does occasionalism for that matter.
Occasionalism is particularly interesting because representationalist versions of physicalism seem to undermine the case for rejecting it.
Isn't the 'brute fact' at the end of this one a necessary being or a circularity? Is this an idea you believe has merit?
Quoting Count Timothy von Icarus
I don't know what this means. I wonder if meaning and reason are human constructions or frameworks, how can we know that they are a part of 'reality' - whatever that might be.
I am representing David Armstrong's metaphysics, which I believe is the most comprehensive physicalist metaphysics out there.
[I]"Are laws of nature natural? "[/i]
Yes. If they weren't, then all forms of naturalism would be false.
[I]"Naturalism assumes an order in nature, but it doesnt explain it, nor does it need to explain it."[/i]
The order in nature needs to be accounted for- and this theory does account for them: as relations between universals*. This portion of the theory is called "law realism" (Law realism was independently proposed by Armstrong, Tooley, and Sosa). Universals*, and the relations between them, are indeed part of the physical world. This as axiomatic to Armstrong's metaphysical system, but it's
(arguably) the best explanation for what we observe and measure.
[I]"Why is nature lawful?"[/i] That's easy: it's because laws of nature exist, and a law is a necessitation (i.e. an effect follows necessarily, not contingently). If you're asking, "why do laws of nature exist?" It's brute fact that they exist: it happens to be the way the world is.
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* A universal is anything that exists in multiple instantiations. Examples: proton and electron are universals. The attractive force between them is a relation between these universals.
Quoting Count Timothy von Icarus
Of course. But What's wrong with that?
Quoting Count Timothy von Icarus
What makes you think that? I'm referring to David Armstrong's ontology- which accounts for everything that (unarguaby) objectively exists.
Quoting Count Timothy von Icarus
Yes and no. Subjective idealism is not consistent with physicalism, and vice versa. What is in contention are complete metaphysical systems, and we can each judge which system a a better, or more compelling, description of reality.
Quoting Count Timothy von Icarus
Please elaborate. I don't see how any sort of dualism fits into physicalism.
No, because "observing subjects" are objects that exist as a consequence of the way the world is and the specific history that it has.
Not necessarily. They could be regularities which serve a descriptive, but not regulative, purpose. The idea that laws necessitate outcomes may presuppose more than physicalism can account for, as it implies a causal force binding outcomes beyond regularities. And the nature of the causation here is far from obvious.
Even if 'scientific laws' appear to be validated through observation, what is observed are instances or effects of them, not the laws themselves. For instance, we observe gravitational effects, but we dont directly observe gravity, and the nature of gravity and electromagnetic fields is still an open question. I suppose a framework like Armstrong's can simply appropriate these as they come along, but that then falls victim to Hempel's dilemma e.g. definitions of 'physical' can be updated on an ad hoc basis as required, which dilutes their explanatory power.
All of this raises questions of whether universals in Armstrongs view are really properties of physical systems or whether they reflect underlying, non-empirical constraints that dictate these regularities. If they are something like "necessitating forces," then Armstrongs physicalism has to account for how these forces exist as part of the physical domain, especially if they are not physical objects themselves.
Furthermore appealing to the entities of sub-atomic physics presents difficulties for Armstrong's style of physicalism. This is because whether such entities are truly objective is still an unresolved question, subject of ongoing debates in philosophy of science. I don't know if Armstrong ever touches on the thorny question of interpretation in quantum physics, but I'm not sure it would support his overall approach.
Quoting Relativist
"observing subjects" are only 'objects' to other observing subjects who, it is hoped, will be sufficiently perceptive to recognise them as subjects, rather than regarding them as objects.
So when I said that laws of nature are necessarily natural, if naturalism is true, I was specifically referring to laws as something ontological, not descriptive.Quoting Wayfarer
No, it doesn't. The standard model of particles physics is trivially consistent with his "states of affairs". The essential element of his ontology is that every thing that exists is a state of affairs (a particular with its attached properties and relations). Even quantum fields, or strings, fit this framework.
Quoting Wayfarer
He's agnostic to interpretations of QM, but I doubt there's an interpretation that isn't consistent with his model. Armstrong defers such matters to physicists.
Quoting Wayfarer
From an Armstrong perspective, this is semantics, not ontology.
But if they're not the laws described by physics, then in what sense are those relations physical? What about the relationship between sign and interpreter? I question that declaring everything to be physical, without any reference to physics itself, is even meaningful.
Quoting Relativist
But that is not true. Scientific realists, including Sir Roger Penrose and Albert Einstein, both criticize quantum physics precisely on the grounds that they provide no description of specification of what the 'state of affairs' of a quantum system is, prior to it being measured. This is why they both insist that quantum physics must be in some sense incomplete. Yet it has withstood every test that has been set for it. (I've published a Medium essay on this topic.)
I'll try to explain with an example.
Consider two specific electrons in close proximity. They each have a -1 electric charge, which results in there existing a repulsive force between them. This force is a physical relation between these two specfic electrons.
The electron is a universal- all individual electrons have the exact same set of intrinsic properties. Similarly, any pair of electrons in the same proximity to each other will necessarily have the exact same repulsive force between them - the physical relation. This is what it means to be a law (under Armstrong's account): the physical relation necessarily exists in the instantiations of the universals. He describes this as a relation between the universal: electron-electron.
Quoting Wayfarer
What Armstrong is doing is acknowledging a distinction between the actual laws of nature and the academic discipline of physics. Physicists endeavors to uncover laws of nature, and is likely correct in many cases, but ontology is not dependent on them getting everything exactly correct. Isaac Newton's theory of gravitation seemed to be a law of nature for quite a long time, but in fact - it had an error, one that was corrected by Einstein's theory. The law of nature didn't change, but the law of physics did change.
Quoting Wayfarer
The state of affairs of a quantum system is perfectly describable as a Schroedinger equation. In that respect, the quantum system evolves in a strictly deterministic way over time. A state of affairs exists at each temporal point of its evolution, and a relation exists between any two such temporal points. This is the case under all interpretations of quantum mechanics.
Where so-called indeterminism comes in is when we consider interactions between a quantum system and the classical world. An interaction results in a physical collapse of the wave function. Repeated measurements (each measurement is such an interaction) will produce a range of results corresponding to a probability distribution. Armstrong describes this as "probabilistic determinism": the "law" results in an interaction measurement that fits this probability distribution. So Armstrong's model fits.
It could be that the world is strictly deterministic. One way it could be strictly deterministic is if the actual world is a quantum system and so-called interactions result in "world-branching" such that all possibilities are actualized (a "many worlds interpretation"). Not a problem for Armstrong. It could be deterministic is if there is a "pilot wave" of the universe, or if there are othewise some remote, hidden variables that results in a specific outcome when the wave function collapses. Again, none are a problem for Armstrong's model.
There are many interpretations of QM, and a scientific realist could embrace any specific interpretation based on their own analyses of the physics, and they could still account for it in Armstrong's model. Armstrong is careful to avoid making scientific judgements, while also endeavoring to fit everything we do know about the physics.
Quoting Relativist
But first, what we know of the 'laws of nature' is customarily understood to be the province of natural philosophy (precursor of today's science). So what 'actual laws of nature' there are, would be in science's court.
Secondly, whether there *are* 'laws of nature' is nowadays contested. See for interest Nancy Cartwright No God, No Laws, where 'laws' can be understood as being prescriptive and determinative of what exists in nature. She argues without them being underwritten by God, then they lack the capacity to 'make things happen' (hence the title. I don't particularly want to pursue that line of argument but it has Armstrong's conception of 'law' in its sights. Nowadays it is common to encounter opinions that the concept of natural or scientific law is obsolete, although I don't agree with that, either.)
And third, if Armstrongs metaphysics is founded on the idea of scientific laws as real and necessary features of the world, then one would expect it to appeal to scientifically established theories. Yet by not being bound by actual physics, Armstrongs conception of laws becomes somewhat abstracted from the very empirical framework that supposedly substantiates it. In a way, hes attempting to have it both ways: appealing to the supposed authority of scientific realism to bolster his metaphysical position while remaining unanchored from sciences provisional and revisable nature (see also Hempel's Dilemma.)
About ontology - strictly speaking, it is 'the study of the nature of being'. 'Ontology' has uses in current English, for example in information technology, where it refers to the inventory of types of system in a network. But the original meaning was the study of the nature of being (derived from the Greek verb for 'to be'). I've had many a debate here about the implications of this term, because I seek to make a distinction between the 'nature of being' and 'the analysis of what exists'*. The former is nowadays associated with phenomenology and existentialism, while the latter is firmly in the province of the natural sciences. Armstrong would of course claim that the former can be reduced to the latter, which is a foundational move of scientific materialism.
Quoting Relativist
You wonder why, then, Schrödinger published his notorious thought-experiment on the not-dead-or-alive cat. He sought to illustrate the fundamental indeterminacy that characterises the so-called 'fundamental particles' of physics by providing a hypothetical example of their absurd implications were they to manifest on the level of everyday experience. The fact that the equation is accurate is not at issue, as it is firmly established that the accuracy of the predictions of quantum mechanics exceeds anything previously discovered in history. It's what they say, or don't say, about the so-called fundamental constituents of reality that is the philosophical point at issue. In other words, it's the ontological implications that are at issue, not the practical effectiveness. The fact that Armstrong can blithely wave these away says something about his theories, in my view.
----
*Regarding the distinction between the nature of being and the study of what exists, one of my opponents linked an apparently-classic article Charles Kahn 'The Greek Verb "To Be" and the Meaning of Being' which unfortunately for him tended to favour my side of the argument.
Armstrong appeals to scientifically established theory as justification for his hypothesis that there are actually laws of nature, and he does agree that it is in science's court to determine what the laws are, but science makes mistakes - the laws of textbook physics may very well change over time. Let's assume General Relativity is 100% true - if so, it is a law of nature that was also true during Newton's time. The same thing could happen with other laws of textbook physics - so if his system were tied to current physics, his metaphysics would be falsified as soon some current law is falsified.
Sure, Armstrong's physicalist metaphysics could be wrong (perhaps the mind isn't physical, or perhaps there are no actual laws of nature), but the same is true of any metaphysical system that has been, or ever will be, proposed. My primary points are that his system appears to me to be the best physicalist system available, and that consequently, when we're discussing physicalism (as some of us have done in this thread) - it's appropriate to bring up his system. I believe it's coherent and that it accounts for most things in the world quite well.
Quoting Wayfarer
Each interpretation of quantum mechanics corresponds to a hypothesis about the an important aspect of reality. It's interesting to discuss these, and their implications (as did Schroedinger), but I don't see any reason to hold this against Armstrong. If physicists can't unequivocally demonstrate which interpretation is true, then certainly a philosopher isn't well-positioned to figure it out for them. So I really don't understand why you'd hold this against him. If one were to embrace his more generalized theory, it wouldn't preclude augmenting it with his favorite ontological basis for QM.
I'm not completely committed to Armstrong's theory, and I also don't think anyone ought to commit to any particular theory - because they are untestable. But in my opinion, physicalism is an appropriate starting point - because it's pretty clear that the physical world actually exists, and I also agree with Armstrong, Tooley, and Sosa that there are laws of nature in the world and these are a better account of causality than the alternatives I'm aware of.
I think the only thing that a physicalist framework struggles with is theory of mind. The struggles don't seem fatal. Non-physical theories of mind also have issues. But as far as I'm concerned, this is the area where the most interesting discussions are.
I would disagree about which work is Armstrong's magnum opus. His life's work was his comprehensive metaphysical system, so I'd vote for "Sketch for a Systematic Metaphysics", which outlines his comprehensive system, as does his earlier "A World of States of Affairs". Both of these books subsume his theory of mind and most of his other various writings. It's rare for a philosopher to be as comprehensive as he was.
That's not an argument, but an observation. If you're an idealist, then you believe that Armstrong's physicalist theory is wrong, and will argue accordingly. I've presented many arguments against physicalism, which I hope are persuasive. (But then, people do have their predispositions.)
Quoting Relativist
I think its failure on that score is beyond reasonable doubt. The crux of that issue is logic itself, reason itself. I don't see how can there be any plausible physicalist account of the nature of reason, which inheres in the relationship of ideas, 'if-then' statements.
Quoting Relativist
Nor can philosophers then appeal to physics in support of what they describe as 'physicalism'. And if their physicalism is not supported by physics, then why does it deserve that designation.
I am not sure of this. The Physics, from which we get the term "nature" and other early forms of naturalism focus on "things acting the way they do because of what they are, i.e. because of their 'nature.'" So there are no extrinsic laws governing things and their behaviors, there is merely the natures of beings (however definedin the Aristotlean tradition "being a being" is said primarily of organic wholes and only analogously of artifacts or accidental wholes such as rocks) and the nature of the cosmos as an ordered whole. Neither is there any chance or randomness in the sense of something being undetermined or uncaused, rather chance is the confluence of different (relatively) discrete natures acting according to their ends (Etienne Gilson's book notes how losing this conception had major consequences for understanding natural selection).
And in Hegel, we see the same denial of extrinsic laws. But it seems to me that this is now a fairly popular conception of what underpins scientific "laws"laws are just descriptions or approximations of how things behave according to what they are. The "laws of nature" can be located squarely in ens rationis; they are an abstraction of the intellect, whereas natures are ens reale.
Well, in a comparison of ontologies I suppose it might be considered question begging. Or on the question of "how might physicalism best be reconceived or reformed," it also seems to include problematic presuppositions.
The idea that intelligibility and truth can be placed squarely into our consideration of the human mind, and not the study of being qua being.
To me, it seems fair to question if the intelligibility of the world and the beings in it can be sui generis creation of minds. Rather, might it be that minds are simply able to access this intelligibility?
Physicalism is monist, yes. But representionalism makes it so that we have to always ask "what of our understanding of the world is 'really real' and what is just the creation of the mind? Is light of such and such a color really light of such and such a wavelength? But then does color, number, and even the concept of "wave" have any correspondence to "the world in itself?"
See Tom's post above: "I don't know what this means. I wonder if meaning and reason are human constructions or frameworks, how can we know that they are a part of 'reality' - whatever that might be." But of course, if [I]all[/I] reason, cause, quiddity, intelligibility, etc. are only on the mind side of the mind-world ledger, then we don't know [I] anything[/I] about this "physical world" "as it really is." (See Kant on knowledge of the noumena).
This is the problem that led the anti-metaphysical movement to simply abandon any metaphysics, to claim that we simply deal with "reasoning about empirical facts," and leave off any metaphysical notion attached to the "physical."
Representationalism wed to physicalism makes it such that phenomenal awareness is mere appearance, whereas reality is the "objective," requiring a "view from nowhere." No doubt there are various solutions proposed to this problem (I have yet to see one I'd consider successful that doesn't simply abandon representationalism), but this problem has probably been the dominant issue of modern philosophy.
This is an unresolved dualism to the extent that representationalism's epistemic challenges cannot be overcome, leaving a hard dividing line between the subjective "in here" and the objective "out there," despite the system ostensibly being monist. Being is one... yet it is cleaved distinctly in two.
Not all necessary facts are brute facts and not all circles are vicious circles.
As for merit, no one accepts "it's a brute fact, some things simply are for no reason at all," if they have any sort of a good answer. We won't accept it in the vast majority of cases, an airplane crashing, our tire being flat, the death of a relative, etc. We might not be able to figure out why these things happened, but we don't thereby assume they happened "for no reason at all."
The proffering up of brute fact claims strikes me as primarily a manifestation of the inability to acknowledge mystery. Lots of things have been said to be brute facts. The Big Bang was said to be a brute fact, yet now we have a fairly popular theory of inflation that falls prior to it and explains many observations, so the brute fact view no longer looks acceptable. The extremely low entropy of the early universe gets thrown out often as a "brute fact," but no doubt if any of the theories that attempt to actually explain it bear out, hardly anyone will bother trying to assert that it is "simply is." It's the sort of explanation that always collapses as soon as a real explanation arrives on the scene. And people have an extremely bad track record of judging what will prove "absolutely inexplicable."
I mean, what are we to do if we do accept the brute explanation, cease all inquiry?
Quoting Count Timothy von Icarus
I don't think that's the case for my claim, because I argue that reality there is a brute fact by logical necessity. Here's my reasoning:
If (1) each temporal state of the universe was caused by the temporally prior states, AND (2) the past is finite, then there is necessarily an initial, uncaused state that exists by brute fact. (A metaphysically necessary brute fact, not a contingent one).
Where's the flaw in this reasoning? How can there be a reason for an initial state? The desire for a reason is not grounds for believing there is necessarily a reason.
Quoting Count Timothy von Icarus
I defined "laws of nature" as extrinsic relations between universals, but intrinsic to the natural world. It indeed entails "things acting the way they do because of what they are". If there were unnatural laws of nature, then it would mean there exists something unnatural - thus falsifying naturalism.
Quoting Count Timothy von Icarus
"Mere appearance"? I'll grant that our perceptions don't necessarily reveal the world exactly as it is, but I'd argue that they do present us with a reflection of reality. It also appears to me that we are indeed able to discern many aspects of reality, both directly through our senses, and indirectly through scientific investigation. How we discern and describe this is intellectually and semantically grounded in our own nature (this is inescapable), but that doesn't make it either invalid or untrue. If you are suggesting objective reality is completely indiscernible to us if physicalism is true, I don't agree. If you mean something else, then please elucidate.
Regarding a "view from nowhere": the best available description of the fundamental layer of material reality is the standard model of particle physics. Objects are made of these particles, and each particle has a well-defined set of properties. The existence of these particles were deduced, not perceived by the faculties of our "phenomenal awareness", but over time - their existence has been confirmed through measurements in particle accelerators. So tell me in what sense is this NOT objective reality.
Logic is semantics, and entails meaningful relations between statements. Computers demonstrate that logic can be mechanized, so I don't understand what you see as a problem.
Quoting Wayfarer
What's the problem with the way Armstrong appeals to physics? (i.e. the basis for believing there exist laws of nature).
Your objection was based on interpretations of QM - and an interpretation isn't really physics, it's metaphysics - ontology. It would be physics if it were testable and falsifiable, but by all accounts I've seen, it is neither.
Computers dont come into existence de novo. They are artefacts built by humans according to human aims and purposes. In other words, whatever purposes they pursue are extrinsic.
Armstrong advocates 'central state materialism' which claims that thought contents simply are brain states - a form of brain-mind identity. But brain states have physical properties (neuron firing patterns, biochemical reactions), whereas propositional content possesses semantic properties (meaning, truth-value). I don't think physicalism can explain how semantic properties emerge from, or are identical to, these physical states without appealing to, or assuming, non-physicalist explanations of meaning. As Feser says 'Brain processes, like ink marks, sound waves, the motion of water molecules, electrical current, and any other physical phenomenon you can think of, seem clearly devoid of any inherent meaning. By themselves they are simply meaningless patterns of electrochemical activity. Yet our thoughts do have inherent meaning thats how they are able to impart it to otherwise meaningless ink marks, sound waves, etc. In that case, though, it seems that our thoughts cannot possibly be identified with any physical processes in the brain. In short: Thoughts and the like possess inherent meaning or intentionality; brain processes, like ink marks, sound waves, and the like, are utterly devoid of any inherent meaning or intentionality; so thoughts and the like cannot possibly be identified with brain processes.' And the attempt to infer the relationship of brain states and inferential content can't proceed without relying on the very faculty that you're seeking to explain.
Quoting Relativist
It's this:
Quoting Relativist
What is that 'something ontological', and how can it be described as physical, when it's not described by physics? It's a bit disingenuous to appeal to science whenever it suits your aims, but then disavow it when it doesn't.
Besides, physics assumes the order of nature - it doesn't explain it, nor need to explain it. As A N Whitehead puts it in Science and the Modern World, science itself depends on the belief that the natural world follows a regular, coherent structure. This regularity allows science to generalize from specific observations and to formulate laws that describe the behavior of natural phenomena. But, he says, this assumption of natural order is itself a metaphysical commitment, one that exceeds the bounds of empiricism, but is essential for science to proceed. In other words, science assumes the universe is not chaotic or random but instead governed by principles that are discoverable and consistent over time*. All of which is patently obvious in Armstrong.
This assumption is grounded in the history of Western philosophy, particularly in medieval and early modern thought, where thinkers like Aquinas and Newton envisioned a rational structure to the cosmos, often influenced by theological ideas of a divine order. Whitehead notes that even as science moved away from explicitly theological explanations, it retained this foundational belief in an orderly universe. I think Armstrong's philosophy is built on this ground - a divinely-ordained cosmos sans divine intellect.
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* Hence the purportedly 'brute facts' of empiricism - those elements for which further explanations ought not to be sought.
The properties of particles are not defined until they are measured. That is the central philosophical problem of modern physics. The Copenhagen interpretation says it's pointless to second-guess what lies behind these measurements as it is indeterminate. The many-worlds interpretation attempts to deflate that mystery but at the cost of infinitely many proliferating universes.
There's an anecdote, told by Werner Heisenberg, of Neils Bohr giving a lecture to the remaining Vienna Circle positivists in the 1950's (some of their principals having died or retired by then.) Bohr laid out the basics of quantum physics, in line with the 'Copenhagen' approach which he helped define. At the end of his talk, the audience applauded politely but had no questions. It was this that prompted Bohr to say 'if you're not shocked by quantum physics, then you can't have understood it!'
My point is that there's nothing about the application of logic that is inconsistent with physical mechanism, so the mere fact that we can apply logic doesn't falsify physicalism. How we evolved the capacity to do this is a different matter and a different discussion.
Quoting Wayfarer
We interact with the world to survive. Successful interaction is dependent on our pattern-recognition capacity which enables us to distinguish types of objects and activities. We also have the physical capacity to make and hear various sounds also fitting recognizable patterns. Relating a recognizable sound (a word) to a type of object or activity doesn't seem at all problematic. The word then "means" the object or activity.
Quoting Wayfarer
A universal exists immanently- in its instantiations, so the "something ontological" is the instantiations of a law of nature.
I may have made Armstrong's metaphysics sound more detached from physics than it really is. A law of physics that is actually identical to a true law of nature, has no detachment at all. I was simply trying to convey that the metaphysics is not dependent on the current state of physics, which is never 100% correct.
Quoting Wayfarer
I disagree that this exceeds the bounds of empiricism. Empiricism in science leads to theories, established by abductive reasoning. By extension, we can abductively conclude there are laws of nature, on the basis that this best explains the success of science.
My point is that the set of properties that emerge are objectively present, as is the fact that they emerge when measured, and that the set of measureable properties is unique to each type of elementary particle. This isn't a matter of phenomenology giving us a questionable view of objective reality- which is what I was addressing.
And mine was that they're not objective until they're measured. And even then, there are experiments which indicate that those measurements will vary for different observers, which again throws their objective status into question.
See Quantum by Manjit Kumar, which is a very detailed account of the Bohr-Einstein debates. Whilst there are many arcane details, the basic point that comes through very clearly is that Einstein held to scientific realism, pretty well exactly in Armstrong's sense, while Bohr challenged that realism, saying things like 'It is wrong to think that the task of physics is to find out how Nature is. Physics concerns what we say about Nature', and 'No phenomenon is a real phenomenon until it is an observed phenomenon.' John Wheeler said of Bohr: 'The dependence of what is observed upon the choice of the experimental arrangement made Einstein unhappy. It conflicts with the view that the universe exists "out there" independent of all acts of observation. In contrast, Bohr stressed that we confront here an inescapable new feature of nature, to be welcomed because of the understanding it gives us. In struggling to make clear to Einstein the central point as he saw it, Bohr found himself forced to introduce the word "phenomenon". In today's words, Bohr's point - and the central point of quantum theory - can be put into a simple sentence: "No elementary phenomenon is a phenomenon until it is a registered (observed) phenomenon".
Quoting Relativist
As we ourselves understand logic, we are able to create systems that perform logical operations. But that doesn't mean that the mechanistic analogies for organism or natural thought, such as those often entertained by materialism, provide an account of the nature of logic. Materialists never tire of telling us that the Universe is devoid of logic and that everything we see is a consequence of the undirected physical 'laws of nature'. So how an organism (if that is indeed what we are) which is purportedly a product of those same undirected forces can come to some degree of understanding the Universe is rather a mystery, isn't it? Charles Darwin himself expressed doubt - 'But then with me the horrid doubt always arises whether the convictions of man's mind, which has been developed from the mind of the lower animals, are of any value or at all trustworthy. Would any one trust in the convictions of a monkey's mind, if there are any convictions in such a mind?'
Quoting Relativist
Right. And practically every other species apart from h.sapiens has survived, often for hundreds of millions of years (such as crocodiles) with no capacity for logic whatever. And trying to account for reason in terms of evolutionary theory reduces reason to an adaptation serving the purposes of survival. But if that is what it is, why do we place trust in reason?
Quoting Relativist
I've pointed out a number of times that it's not clear that the 'laws of nature' are themselves physical. We never observe the laws, but only predictable outcomes which indicate that they exist. Physics can be carried out without reference to such laws, which is instrumentalism or pragmatism. Some have used abductive reasoning as evidence for a higher intelligence. So the point is, the existence of laws is not evidence for physicalism. I say that Armstrong's type of philosophy is hanging on to the remnants of the Christian belief in divinely-ordered nature, sans God, which was replaced with the scientist. There's another Armstrong, Karen, who has an excellent book, The Case for God, on the way the modern belief in natural law grew out of the faith of early modern science, but eventually gave rise to atheism.
I think you might have logical, metaphysical, and nomological (physical) necessity mixed up.
"The universes spontaneous generation is a brute fact," does not seem to be of the mold "all triangles have three sides," A = B and B = C, thus A = C.
If it was a logical necessity we probably wouldn't call it a brute fact.
As for metaphysical necessity, it just seems hard to argue that in all possible worlds the universe must both have a begining and its beginning must be unexplainable. Plenty of physicists think the universe is cyclical and thus without beginning or end, and it seems hard for metaphysics to convincingly settle this question. If we had strong empirical support for a cyclical universe would we still insist on this? (see the post to Tom above on how brute fact explanations are always abandoned when competition arrives).
But the larger issue I see is that this only deals with efficient cause from some time zero. But why does the universe progress from state to state as it does? Why did it have the initial conditions it did? If these are all brute facts then isn't everything that has ever happened necessary and all possible worlds identical with our own? But this seems to be a hard case to make. You have modal collapse, every true statement is necessarily true.
Plus, if things can just start existing, for no reason at all, why don't we ever see anything else just randomly start to exist? Is it also a brute fact that spontaneous brute existence only occurs once? And it only produces whatever we happen to observed? That just seems a little too convenient.
First of all, it is incorrect to suggest that an initial state entails "spontaneous generation". "Spontaneous generation" connotes coming into existence after a time at which it did not exist. Rather, an initial state just entails existing uncaused, with no point of time at which it does not exist.
The initial state of reality necessarily exists uncaused, because causes temporally precede their effects*, and it is logically impossible to temporally precede an initial point of time.
Could this brute fact of an initial state be contingent? No, and here's why.
Classical (non-quantum) physics entails strict determinism: a specific type of cause will necessarily produce a specific effect. If all laws of nature were of this sort, there would be no contingent things in the universe.
Contingency in the universe arises only with quantum systems when the wave-function collapses (i.e. quantum indeterminacy). This is the only known source of contingency in the world. The initial state of the universe is not temporally preceded by a quantum system that collapses, hence there is no source of contingency for the initial state. Therefore it exists out of necessity. This is not strict logical necessity; it is metaphysical necessity because it is the logical consequence of the metaphysical principle that contingency requires a source of contingency*.
If there is a divine creator, the initial state of reality consists solely of this divine creator, existing uncaused, and with no temporally prior state. Therefore it exists as a necessary brute fact (brute fact, because there's no explanation for the specific, actual creator existing rather than not). This creator is a source of contingency for whatever it creates, and it implies everything, other than itself, exists contingently (at the will of this creator).
If there is no divine creator, then there is no source of contingency for the universe, so the universe (the totality of reality) itself exists out of metaphysical necessity. So my analysis doesn't preclude a divine creator, but it clearly shows that a creator is not entailed. It simply implies that something exists uncaused, and that its existence is metaphysically necessary.
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* Notice that I have stipulated two metaphysical axioms:
1) causation is temporal (causes temporally precede effects). This is not an arbitrary first principle, it is consistent with everything we know about reality.
2) Contingency requires a source of contingency. Also not arbitrary: the only known contingency in the world is a consequence of quantum indeterminacy.
The many-worlds interpretation of QM entails no contingency at all: all possible outcomes of a (seemingly) indeterminate quantum effect are actualized. It could entail an initial state of a quantum system, that is comprised of a multitude of eigenstates- each of which evolves into a "universe" (a system of stars, galaxies, etc), causally isolated from each other, except they share a common initial, quantum state.
No it doesn't, per your own explanation. There is a state before which there are no prior states. Call it S1. Now you claim that some thing or things had an S1 for no reason at all. They existed in S1 having not existed in any prior states. Now, why can't anything else have an S1, starting to exist when it has existed in no prior state, for "no reason at all?"
You are trying to read some prior time before S1 back in, which is a strawman.
Anyhow, you have entirely ignored the question of why any certain thing should begin to exist in S1 rather than any other.
This seems to me like a God of the Gaps solve it all to be honest.
That's not entirely true. Consider position and momentum: it is not that they lack a value at all, it is that the they don't have a precise value. Position and momentum are examples of complementary variables. There is a distribution of possible values that the pair will have when a measurement occurs. This distribution constitutes objective information about these particles, and it hints at something weird about fundamental reality that is beyond what we'd expect from our ordinary perspective. My contention is that our perceptions provide a reflection of objective reality, not identical to it, but we can have success at uncovering additional objective truths about reality.
Also, consider that quarks and antiquarks have a color charge, while leptons and antileptons do not have a color charge. Even if the value of the color charge is a complement of another property, it's still an objective fact that color charge is a property that that quarks have, but leptons do not. It's also an objective fact that everything in existence is composed of the elementary particles identified in the standard model (I'm setting aside the fact that the standard model may not be complete, and that it may not actually be the most fundamental basis of reality. I embrace the spirit of structural realism, so that the standard model points to something objectively true about reality, even if not completely accurate).
Quoting Wayfarer
Of course there's more about reality than we truly understand at this time, and I believe it likely that there are aspects of reality that we will never understand. But just because we don't understand everything about the way the natural world works does not imply there is something unnatural at play in the world. To argue that would be an argument from ignorance. Arguments from ignorance can be corrected by recasting as an abductive case, arguing that the chosen hypothesis is a better explanation than alternatives. But it seems to me that any non-physical account will be at a clear disadvantage, because it will depend on ad hoc assumptions that raise more questions than answered.
What seems more likely?: 1) that intelligent minds would gradually develop in isolated instances (as few as once), somewhere in a vast universe that's evolved in a myriad of ways over the billions of years of its existence, or 2) that an intelligent mind (with a vast store of magical knowledge that just happens to exist without cause) would just happen to exist by brute fact?
I haven't seen a case for the latter, whereas the former is consistent with statistical entropy.
Quoting Wayfarer
It's not true that homo sapiens are the only organisms that think logically. At its core, logical reasoning entails remembering cause-effect relationships. Many animals exhibit behavior that entails multiple steps to achieve an objective. This is basic logical thinking. Humans differ from most by the fact that they have language and a more fully developed ability to think abstractly, but it's aligned with such behavior.
Why trust reason? Because we each intrinsically trust our sensory perceptions and the inherent reasoning we are born with. Were it not effective, we would not have survived.
Quoting Wayfarer
The existence of laws of nature can't be deductively proven, but their existence seems the best explanation for what we observe. We could test that if you'd care to offer an alternative.
The existence of laws IS evidence for physicalism, in the general sense. I think you mean that the existence of laws does not entail physicalism, which is true. However, abductive reasoning entails determining the best explanation for a set of facts - the set of facts are "evidence" for any of the proferred explanations. Explanatory scope is one aspect of abductive reasoning, and it entails explaining more facts, so all facts are potentially relevant - they are evidence.
Quoting Wayfarer
It's not "hanging on" for the sake of hanging on. It wouldn't make sense to deny the existence of laws of nature just because past natural philosophers identified them as laws ordained by God. Alchemists also got some things right. Human endeavors, including science and philosophy, advance by building on - and correcting- past achievements, not by starting afresh.
Regarding a case for God, I'd be interested in hearing more. I've examined traditional arguments for God, and found none of them at all compelling. They invariably depend on questionable metaphysical assumptions (which seem carefully contrived), and often make the unjustified assumption that magical knowledge is plausible (i.e. knowing things without developing the knowledge, and having this knowledge exist without being encoded - it's just there).Perhaps worse, none of them make a case for a God of religion. Even if sound, they only make a case for deism- a potentially indifferent creator.
This doesn't undercut anything I said.
[Quote]Now, why can't anything else have an S1, starting to exist when it has existed in no prior state, for "no reason at all?"[/quote]
The state of affairs didn't "start to exist", because it exists at all points of time. Rather, time begins as the state evolves.
Quoting Count Timothy von Icarus
No, I'm not. Time begins; the foundation of reality does not begin.
I'll try to make this clearer. I'll assign a label to whatever exists at S1: F (standing for the foundation of existence).
F can have failed to exist only if it exists contingently. But F is contingent IFF there exists something to account for it being contingent. If F were the product of quantum indeterminacy, it would be contingent: F could have failed to obtain, while an alternative F' obtained instead. But this can't be, in our case, because quantum indeterminacy entails a quantum system existing prior to the indeterminate outcome. Nothing precedes F.
F could be a quantum system, such that what follows is the product of quantum indeterminacy. In that case, what follows from F is contingent (F accounts for what follows), but F itself is not contingent.
Let's consider contingency more broadly. Here's a general approach to accounting for contingency*:
x is contingent IFF there exists A, which accounts for x, and A can also account for ~x.
IOW: A accounts for (x or ~x).
But F is uncaused, so there is nothing that accounts for its existence. Therefore there can be no A that accounts for (F or ~F).
You seem to be conflating conceptual possibility with metaphysical possibility: you can conceive of F', so you erroneously assume F' is metaphysically possible. This ignores the need to account for contingency.
Quoting Count Timothy von Icarus
I've answered that now. F did not begin to exist, and F does not exist contingently.
[Quote]This seems to me like a God of the Gaps solve it all to be honest.[/quote]
Then you haven't followed.
"God of the gaps" is a form of argument from ignorance. I've made no such argument. My position is consistent with both deism and naturalism, and it follows logically from the premises I stated as axioms (first principles). Your error seem to be: 1) conflating conceivability with metaphysical possibility, and 2) ignoring the stated need to account for contingency. I hope I've sufficiently clarified these points.
You can reject the metaphysical axioms I've stated: I haven't claimed they are logically necessary. But I do think they are a better explanation than the alternatives, and I think I've shown that. We can discuss that further, once you accept the coherence of the framework I've stated.
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* I've tried to convey my view of contingency in my own words, as clearly as I can - but if it's still unclear - here's an alternative description, taken directly from Amy Karofsky's book, A Case for Necessitarianism:
[i]"A theory of contingency offers a metaphysical explanation for ways things could have been and for the possibility that some actual thing might have been otherwise than it is by explaining why an entity is such as it is rather than not. Such a metaphysical explanation of contingency describes: that in virtue of which a contingent entity could have failed to have existed (obtained, held, happened, etc.); what it is that provides for the possibility that an entity could have been otherwise than what it is; and that which accounts for the ways in which an entity couldand the ways it could nothave been different.
"Metaphysical explanation is often tied to the concept of grounding. Kit Fine explains that philosophy is often interested in questions of explanationof what accounts for whatand it is largely through the employment of the notion of ontological ground that such questions are to be pursued. Thus, a metaphysical explanation for a contingent entity provides the reason why the contingency is such as it is, rather than not, by pointing to an ontologically prior entity that is that in virtue of which the contingency could have been otherwise.
Suppose C is an existing object or past actual event. If C is contingent, this means ~C is a non-actual possibility. What makes ~C truly possible? How do we (metaphysically) account for a non-actual possibility? Heres how: suppose E is the metaphysical explanation for C. If C is contingent, then E must account for this contingency. So E explains: C & possibly(~C).
Suppose B is a brute fact, meaning that it exists for no reason and therefore lacks any further ontological grounding. B exists, and (trivially) B is therefore possible. But is B necessary or contingent? Contingency implies ~B is possible. But B doesnt fit the above: there is no explanation for B, and thus no explanation for B & possibly(~B). So if a brute fact exists, it exists out of metaphysical necessity because theres no ontological basis that accounts for possibly(~B).
.[/i]
Sure, but that doesn't refute the objectivist claim that at a fundamental level, the objects of scientific analysis are 'just so', independently of any knowledge of them. They are not, in that sense, truly mind-independent. That is where quantum physics undermines the intuitive sense of the objectivity of the external world. I'm not denying that there are objective facts - that would be out-and-out relativism - but that objectivity can ever be complete. Consider the titles of three of the popular books I've read about it - Quantum: Einstein, Bohr and the Great Debate About the Nature of Reality, Manjit Kumar; Uncertainty: Einstein, Heisenberg, Bohr, and the Struggle for the Soul of Science, David Lindley; and What is Real?: The Unfinished Quest for the Meaning of Quantum Physics, Adam Becker. Notice the common thread in all these titles. It says something serious about the limitations of objective science and the conundrums that modern physics throw up. And I don't think Armstrong's style of objectivist materialism has the resources to deal with that.
Quoting Relativist
No, it's an argument from epistemic humility.
Quoting Relativist
It is an established fact that the forebrain of h.sapiens evolved explosively over the period from the early australopithecus until the arrival of h.sapiens approximately 100,000 years ago. The neural capacities that this provide are exponentially more powerful than anything possessed by other animals including our simian forbears. My claim is that due to this, h.sapiens crossed an evolutionary threshhold that cannot be explained purely in terms of biological theory, as we have realised 'horizons of being' that are simply not available to other animals. These include abstract reasoning, language, art, scientific invention, moral reflection, symbolic thought, and awareness of mortality, that are all uniquely human. They indicate a qualitative leap, a difference in kind, rather than a mere quantitative increase in cognitive ability.
(Interestingly there's a 1950's book by one of the founders of the modern neo-darwinian synthesis, Theodosius Dobzhansky, called The Biology of Ultimate Concern, one of many books that address this theme, but notable because of Dobzhansky's status in the formulation of modern evolutionary science. (It was Dobzhansky who coined the phrase 'nothing in biology makes sense except for in the light of evolution'.) This book contradicts Dawkin's type of argument that there is an irredeemable conflict between evolutionary biology and religious philosophy.)
Quoting Relativist
I think it's unarguable that Armstrong's belief in the power of natural law is a natural outcome (pardon the irony) of the trajectory of Western religious and philosophical thought.
Quoting Relativist
The book I referred to was by Karen Armstrong, published around 2009. To give you an idea, here's a review by philosopher Alain de Botton, and also an OP by Armstrong, Should We Believe in Belief?
Personally, I don't evangalise faith in God, but as I am critical of the philosophy of secular humanism it sort of puts me in the camp of those who do.
I think the throughline through all this is a self-awareness.. a sort of Russian Doll Effect, whereby a sort of awareness of "something" is gleaned, but never obtained. Art, Beauty, Elegant Theories of Math and Science, yet none of it is sustainable. It appeals to a sensibility that is aesthetic, but there is always a remainder leftover. This may be akin to Schopenhauer's Will.. We feel it most acutely, whereas other animals only feel the acuteness of perhaps at most boredom. They don't have the Russian Doll Effect though, which amplifies it. We have anxieties foisted upon ourselves, mental disorders even, and then we have ANGST. It's reflected in literature going back to Egypt and Babylonia, ancient China, India, and anywhere where man could write more than a few thoughts down beyond the transactional.
It's existential angst, isn't it? That's the subject of John Vervaeke's 52-episode lecture series on Awakening from the Meaning Crisis, which I'm part way through.
Here's the thing, the angst-driven "What do I focus my attention on?" precedes everything. Even someone who represents naive physicalism, someone like say a "Dawkins type", someone who supposedly "only cares about facts", has to "care about" something, that precedes the "facts" that are deemed most important.
The supposedly hard-nosed person who admonishes the baroque-types and their fancies, still found a VALUE and PRIORITIZED, this is all prior to any "facts of experience" or "facts of nature" or "facts of reality".
Nothing is defined until it is in some sense "measured". It does not follow that the properties of particles do not exist until measured.
Quoting Wayfarer
How could you possibly know that crocodiles have no capacity for logic? If reason is an evolutionary adaptation we can place trust in it because it has stood the test of timethe ultimate test.
Quoting Wayfarer
In other words you don't have a standpoint other than your personal dislike of secular humanism and your constant attempts to marshal, arguments from (imagined) authorities to try to prove that it is self-defeating and/ or to explain it away by psychologizing it.
I wonder when the penny is going to drop for you that everything beyond what is directly observable is a matter of faith with the only arbiter being coherence and plausibility.
:100:
One of the bits of terminology I've picked up from Vervaeke is 'relevance realisation', which operates right from the inception of organic life. However in human life, the requirement is extended beyond the requirements of survival into the domain of meaning.
Quoting Janus
Then read some of those refs I mentioned. That is *exactly* what is being said.
Otherwise known as reason or meaning.
Ok, from your initial post I thought you were making the claim that this was logically necessary, as in tautological.
Does it follow? IDK, maybe. Those are pretty complex terms in the premises and metaphysical necessity can be defined in various ways.
Do I find it convincing? No. I mean, suppose there was a breakthrough in cosmology that showed strong evidence that the universe was cyclical, that the Big Bang would be followed by an infinite series of other Big Bangs. Would you still want to push the brute fact line?
But cosmology has had many sea changes in the past century, and many presumed "brute facts" have turned out to have explanations (or at least have plausible theories explaining them that need more observational data to bear out). Black Hole Cosmology has some legs, it fits the data, but it would suppose an explicable cause prior to the Big Bang. Eternal varieties of cosmic inflation suppose the universe is without beginning or end, as does Penrose's cyclical universe. In Tegmark's Mathematical Universe Hypothesis the universe and its attributes are intelligible and explicable. I don't see metaphysics as having much of a role here in deciding the issue as simply brute fact.
It seems to me like the inverse of more the simplistic theistic arguments on the origins of the universe TBH. Each bottom out in the ineffable and unintelligible while making broad pronouncements on open empirical questions in the natural sciences that have promising leads.
Anyhow, this is pretty off topic so I'll leave it there.
What do you mean by"refute"? Do you simply mean the objectivist claim hasn't been proven logically impossible? That would be an unreasonable standard. A better question is: how does an objectivist justify believing what they do?
What we believe ought to be based on evidence and reasoning. So what's the basis for claiming the world is actually mind-dependent? Then we can analyze whether that is a rational belief.
Quoting Wayfarer
It's perfectly reasonable to believe there are aspects of reality we will never figure out, and it's also true that a metaphysical theory can never be verified, but it could be falsified if there's some known aspect of the world that is incompatible with the metaphysical theory.
So...is there something incompatible with Armstorong's theory? If so, then what is it?
Quoting Wayfarer
Are you suggesting remaining agnostic to the existence of the unnatural? What is a reasonable attitude toward something that is merely logically possible?
Quoting Wayfarer
I don't see how you could justify such a claim. It's true that a retrospective analysis of our evolutionary history tracks with increasing brain size. I imagine the evolutionary history of giraffes tracks increasing neck size. But how can you evaluate how long a feature should take to evolve? Evolution proceeds through such things as genetic mutations, genetic diversity within the populations, changing environmental pressures, population size, and gene flow between populations - all of which would influence the time for adaptive change. We don't have data about these factors to form the basis of a fair judgement. So, again, I see no basis to claim the evolutionary sequence was too fast or "explosive" to be due to natural processes.
I get it, that to a committed theist, God's involvement is always a live possibility - but how can one apply this, in practice, without getting in the way of actual scientific advance? Couldn't God be sufficiently clever to simply get the ball rolling when he created the universe, without needing to intervene along the way? Did he also kill the dinosaurs, who's continued existence would have changed the subsequent paths evolution took? I suggest that the most intellectually honest position to take is to simply assume God is responsible for everything, but in unknown ways- rather than inserting him as the answer to any scientific unknown.
Quoting Wayfarer
Thanks. The review suggests that she doesn't actually make a case for God's existence. Instead, she criticizes religious fundamentalist and polemical atheists. Good for her. I agree with both sets of criticisms.
Quoting Count Timothy von Icarus
I guess we can a draw a Venn diagram and show that all of the above would be inside the circle of consciousness. It goes without saying that all of that would require consciousness.
In philosophy, depending on what philosopher you subscribe to, a thing is something that has 'wholeness' and perceptibility as its core features. No one, at least that I know of, has defined consciousness as a thing.
Quoting Count Timothy von Icarus
If by dissolving all things and having only a single universal process you mean 'reductionism', there is no risk associated with using the view of physicalism, in my opinion. I understand that there are some members on this forum that detest the word reductionism. I myself do not care about this idea. I don't support it. Physicalism is not a reductive theory. It is a foundational theory that purports to show that the world cannot exist without matter or the physical components.
And I say this, gravity is there because of the forces of masses. Yet, we cannot see or touch gravity.
So, the only thing one is risking by holding the view of the physical is, they let go of the ideas of the magical phenomena, about which an explanation is impossible. Gravity is not magic. Consciousness is not magic. They can be explained and traced back to the origin.
Quoting Count Timothy von Icarus
Vide supra.
It's a philosophical claim in support of idealism. It is developed in more detail in The Mind-Created World OP and its linked essay.
Quoting Relativist
I didn't say it wasn't due to natural processes. I said it opened up horizons of being and cognitive skills that are different in kind to other species, including abstract reasoning, language, art, scientific invention, moral reflection, symbolic thought, and awareness of mortality. I would have thought this a completely unexceptionable empirical claim, although the implications may not be obvious to empiricist philosophy. I say that amounts to an ontological distinction, a different kind of being. You seem to assume that I am therefore appealing to a 'creator God' but this is something even acknowledged by existential philosophers who are not in the least theistic in orientation.
Quoting Relativist
Curious, then, that the title of the book is The Case for God.
None of which are incompatible with physicalism and evolutionary theory.
As I've said many times I'm not arguing for physicalism but rather against your simplistic idea that it is self-refuting or that the existence of areas of inquiry where physics is of no use is sufficient to refute physicalism.
There are quantum interpretations which are entirly objective.
Alas, such interpretations don't afford sell-able book titles as the ones you suggest.
Its never clear what youre arguing for but I do know that you enjoy an argument, regardless. ;-)
Check out The Timeless Wave.
I don't think you can have your cake and eat it. Physicalism is reductionist by definition. Why? Because it methodically excludes or reduces what may be deemed anything other than the physical to the physical. Physicalism is 'the view that all phenomena, including complex processes like consciousness, emotions, and social behaviors, can be explained without residue in terms of physical components and lawstypically those of physics and chemistrywithout requiring additional principles or explanations'. It is of course true that when it comes to phenomena such as gravity and the composition of massive bodies, then physicalism is a sound assumption (which is the 'methodological' aspect). But the extension of that methodology to the problems of philosophy is what is objectionable about it.
Thanks. I'll read it, and respond in that thread.
Quoting Wayfarer
I read some addition reviews. This one says, "Armstrong is not presenting a case for God in the sense most people in our idolatrous world would think of it...Armstrong promises that her kinds of [religious] practice will make us better, wiser, more forgiving, loving, courageous, selfless, hopeful and just. Who can be against that?"
So I surmise that she is making a case for religious practice, or having God in one's life, not an intellectual basis for establishing the alleged fact of God's existence. If you've read the book and see something these reviewers missed, please identify it.
My objection to an infinite past is not based on cosmology. Rather, I am persuaded that an infinite past is logically impossible.
I first came to this view after analyzing William Lane Craig's defense of the Kalam Cosmological Argument. His defense of a finite past wasn't persuasive but it got me thinking. I landed on the fact that an infinite past entails an infinite series being completed in a sequential, temporal process. That seems logically impossible.
I don't know that cosmology can necessarily establish this. The big bang doesn't: it just raises the scientific question of what conditions led to the big bang.
Perhaps a theory of the nature of time could support it - if it could be shown that time (as we know it) is an emergent aspect of something more fundamental. I understand that Sean Carroll is working on something like this.
Not sure what you are trying to convey here.
Actually, I was thinking of mereological nihilism, that there are no true part whole relations, and that arrangements of them are ultimately arbitrary. Thus, the world contains no cats, trees, stars, etc. These only exist in the mind. There are only a few fundemental fields (perhaps unifiable, in which case there is just one thing). This seems to make "saying true things about things" virtually impossible.
I would say reductionism is problematic though, at least in its most popular form, as smallismi.e. the belief that all facts about larger wholes are totally explainable in terms of facts about smaller composite parts, and that "smaller = more fundemental."
There is no prima facie reason for this to be true. Bigism, where all parts are only definable in terms of wholes, works just as well and flows better with information theoretic accounts of nature, QFT, and process metaphysics. But then there also isn't good empirical evidence for reductionism either. How many reductions have been successful? Thermodynamics to statistical mechanics is the canonical example and I (having asked this question many times in many places) don't know if there is a single other example. More than a century from the high water mark of reductionism, chemistry, even the basics of molecular structure, still hasn't been reduced to physics. That doesn't mean it's wrong, but it does seem like it shouldn't be something that is assumed to be true until proven otherwise (in part because it is probably unfalsifiable).
There is an interesting section in either the SEP article on the philosophy of chemistry or on emergence that references a good paper on how quantum phenomena:
1. Don't jive at all well with the early, conventional accounts of emergence but also;
2. Don't jive well with reductionist accounts either
My guess, which is mostly based on how other "problems in the sciences," have progressed, is that the terms currently applied need to be radically rethought. That's just a guess though.
Yes, I think that's reasonable. She's focussing on religious practice as a different mode of being, not as propositional knowledge. But that also has considerable bearing on the question of 'what is the nature of being'.
Quoting Apustimelogist
That ? is not inside space-time.
Well this is interpretation dependent. It isn't a fact that quantum mechanics formally, or otherwise, entails inherent subjectiveor non-objective universe. There are interpretations where the wave function is not a real object but the world is still perfectly objective in the sense of pre-quantum classical kinds of physics.
It's supported by an argument based on the double-slit experiment. That argument is that the interference exhibits the same wave-like pattern even if photons are fired one at a time. So the 'wave' is nothing like a physical wave, and it doesn't inhere in any medium so far as science can determine. (I put this to PhysicsForum, which said 'Don't be ridiculous, the particle interferes with itself' :lol: )
This is why the nature of the wave function is contentious - its true nature is a lacuna that appears at the basis of fundamental physics. Sir Roger Penrose can't accept that due to his convictions about the way the world 'should be':
Why should it? :brow:
(It's OK not to answer, it's a rhetorical question.)
You just ignore any point that tells against your position. I've already said that I am arguing against the idea that because everything cannot be explained in terms of physics it follows that physicalism is false.
Address this (The first word there "they" referring to) Quoting Wayfarer
Quoting Janus
I'll also add that although physicalism (like physics itself), does not explain those things evolutionary theory can produce explanations for those things. Theoretical explanations are not provable of course, but it is equally true that they are not provably false. Such explanations may be counted as false if it can be definitively shown that they cannot possibly explain what they purport to. Nothing you have presented has shown that.
All our experience of a world of uncountable physical constraints supports the conclusion that we inhabit a world that is basically energetic in nature. Do you really believe that the Universe would not exist without us or that it is not most basically a field of energetic relations and interactions?
I've just fielded that question in the mind-created world thread. It would be better to discuss it there.
I think Plantinga's evolutionary argument against naturalism and Victor Reppert's version of the argument from reason are both plausible arguments against evolutionary materialism. In evolutionary theory, the mind and capacity to reason are presented in terms of biological adaption. However if the mind and reason are reduced to these terms, then this undermines the sovereignty of reason. We can discuss the details of that if you like.
What do you mean by the "sovereignty of reason"? Reason by itself delivers no knowledge. As I understand it the main principles are the LNC and validity. I think the LNC features in the demand for validity or consistency. That in any example of valid reasoning the conclusion must be entailed by the premises. Obviously premises which contradict one another or the conclusion will not pass muster.
What is the actual argument for why accepting the evolution of reason would undermine those principles?
But it delivers considerable capacity to gain knowledge, surely you would agree. H.sapiens by dint of reason is able to do many things which animals can not. (There have been interminable, and to my mind pointless, arguments about this in the Rational Thinking Human and Animal thread.)
Quoting Janus
The 'argument from reason' is that reasoned inference must convey facts that are internal to reason. Seeking to justify such reasons with reference to the extent to which they provide an adaptive or evolutionary advantage undermines the sovereignty of reason by saying that it's claims have some grounds other than their self-evident nature. As Thomas Nagel puts it:
[quote=Evolutionary Naturalism and the Fear of Religion, from The Last Word, Thomas Nagel]The only form that genuine reasoning can take consists in seeing the validity of the arguments, in virtue of what they say. As soon as one tries to step outside of such thoughts, one loses contact with their true content. And one cannot be outside and inside them at the same time: If one thinks in logic, one cannot simultaneously regard those thoughts as mere psychological dispositions, however caused or however biologically grounded. If one decides that some of one's psychological dispositions are, as a contingent matter of fact, reliable methods of reaching the truth (as one may with perception, for example), then in doing so one must rely on other thoughts that one actually thinks, without regarding them as mere dispositions. One cannot embed all one's reasoning in a psychological theory, including the reasonings that have led to that psychological theory. The epistemological buck must stop somewhere. By this I mean not that there must be some premises that are forever unrevisable but, rather, that in any process of reasoning or argument there must be some thoughts that one simply thinks from the inside--rather than thinking of them as biologically programmed dispositions. ...
The reliance we put on our reason implies a belief that even though the existence of human beings and of ourselves in particular is the result of a long sequence of physical and biological accidents, and even though there might never have come to be any intelligent creatures at all, nevertheless the basic methods of reasoning we employ are not merely human but belong to a more general category of mind.[/quote]
I would say not by dint of reason but by dint of symbolic language. Symbolic language enables collective learning and perceived history. I believe animals do possess reason, but of course if they do not possess symbolic language, it would seem they do not possess symbolically augmented reason or in other words they would not be capable of abstract reasoning.
Quoting Wayfarer
It is not the fact (if it be such) that reason has evolved that "justifies" reason. Reason is never justified it is merely valid or invalid, consistent or inconsistent, As I already said this has to do with the LNC as I see it. That law is integral to our worldly experience. Something cannot both be and not be itself for example. Or for another example, something cannot be a round square or both red and blue all over I believe that (some) animals (for example dogs) show by their behavior that they instinctively comprehend this.
You said somewhere recently that Vervaeke's "relevance realization" operates at all levels of life. What could this be but some kind of understanding (however) rudimentary) that something is of whatever significance it is for the organism". A predator is a predator not a prey, Perhaps the LEM also comes into play here as well as the LNC. As I replied before this is the root of both meaning and reason.
Agree. But Vervaeke would also say that h.sapiens have greater horizons of being than do other animals, because of reason, language, self-awareness, and all that this entails. So what is relevant for human existence has greater scope than for non-human animals, although that aspect of his work is more concerned with philosophy than biology, per se, whereas relevance realisation is something characteristic of organisms in general. But this is where evolutionary biology tends to be reductionist as its criteria are chiefly concerned with the requirements for adaptation and survival. As a Dawkins or a Crick would put it, you are ' robot vehicles blindly programmed to preserve the selfish molecules known as genes' or 'You, your joys and your sorrows, your memories and your ambitions, your sense of identity and free will are in fact no more than the behaviour of a vast assembly of nerve cells and their associated molecules'. Nothing buttery, as it has been called.
I would put that a little differently since I believe animals (to varying degrees of course) do non-symbolic or non-abstract reasoning and have non-symbolic or non-abstract self-awareness and I believe it is on account of symbolic language (and the opposable thumb) that humans have "greater horizons of being" or in other words collective and accumulative learning and culture.
Quoting Wayfarer
The first quote is a ridiculous anthropomorphism. The second quote is perhaps true in the sense that we can be understood that way, but it is only one among many possible perspectives, so the "nothing but" part is not true.
Nothing about that inherently suggests anything about subjectivity. There are quantum interpretations with a mathematical basis from which you can build models showing particles going through slits and forming interference patterns one at a time in an objective way, even if the wavefunction may not be real in these interpretations.
That wasnt the point at issue, which was that ? is outside of spacetime. (Among the interpretations are subjectivist ones like QBism, which makes sense to me.)
Anyway - I had the realisation the other day, when challenged with name one thing that is outside space and time that the wavefunction fits that description, and yet is also at the heart of the success of modern physics.
It was because you were saying quantum theory undermines objectivity, to which I say - not necessarily.
Quoting Wayfarer
But this can be in the trivial sense of the wavefunction being a predictive construct without explicit physical instantiation. There are many other constructs in physics and science that fit that description.
Right. Like the standard model of particle physics itself. Something which physicalism tends to overlook. But the main point is, I think the non-physical nature of the wavefunction mitigates against 'objective collapse' theories like Penrose's. As I said in the essay I wrote on it, his theories, like Einstein's, are based on the conviction that the universe *should* be deterministic. But that is a philosophical, not a scientific, argument.
It applies only to science and ethics isn't a science, so it wouldn't apply to that.
I myself can be sympathetic to the view that scientific knowledge may be applicable-but-insufficient for ethics due to something like a normativity objection.
I also tend to think scientific knowledge is unnecessary for ethics even though it may be able to provide evidence concerning moral facts.
I think we more or less agree. E.g. The claim "abortion is wrong" obviously doesn't allow for direct application of the scientific method---it's not a scientific hypothesis---but scientific knowledge can certainly be (and certainly is) used both to support and oppose it.
Perhaps it may be asked whether what is bad for an organism is morally bad, but, to my eyes, the answer seems to be "yes."
Drinking coffee is morally wrong? Sitting too much is morally wrong? How about, spending countless hours without sleep tirelessly working on a suicide helpline is morally wrong? Or hurting one's elbow on a rock while jumping into a pond to save a drowning child is morally wrong?
You get the idea...
Ok, well, feel free to start a thread on that unorthodox position on ethics. We've rather veered off topic here.
Not sure what you mean by this.
I really meant in a much more trivial way that doesn't threaten physicalism tbh. The fact that some constructs in science don't represent real physical objects doesn't imply anything about physicalism vs. alternatives.
[quote=Werner Heisenberg, The Debate between Plato and Democritus (i.e. between idealism and materialism)]...the inherent difficulties of the materialist theory of the atom, which had become apparent even in the ancient discussions about smallest particles, have also appeared very clearly in the development of physics during the present century.
This difficulty relates to the question whether the smallest units are ordinary physical objects, whether they exist in the same way as stones or flowers. Here, the development of quantum theory...has created a complete change in the situation. The mathematically-formulated laws of quantum theory show clearly that our ordinary intuitive concepts (of existence) cannot be unambiguously applied to the smallest particles. All the words or concepts we use to describe ordinary physical objects, such as position, velocity, color, size, and so on, become indefinite and problematic if we try to use them of elementary particles. I cannot enter here into the details of this problem, which has been discussed so frequently in recent years. But it is important to realize that, while the behavior of the smallest particles cannot be unambiguously described in ordinary language, the language of mathematics is still adequate for a clear-cut account of what is going on.
During the coming years, the high-energy accelerators will bring to light many further interesting details about the behavior of elementary particles. But I am inclined to think that the answer just considered to the old philosophical problems will turn out to be final. If this is so, does this answer confirm the views of Democritus or Plato?
I think that on this point modern physics has definitely decided for Plato. For the smallest units of matter are, in fact, not physical objects in the ordinary sense of the word; they are forms, structures or in Plato's sense Ideas, which can be unambiguously spoken of only in the language of mathematics.[/quote]
Well this is not really the context of what I was talking about and I dont agree with his sentiment anyway.
I'm not sure where you got that definition.
I haven't looked up the fitting definition for this purpose. But it certainly isn't what you define as physicalism. Reductionism by design denies other existents except for one thing. Whatever that one thing is. That is not what physicalism suggests. I already mentioned this before -- physicalims doesn't deny gravity and consciousness or the subjective experience. It denies that there is an unexplained gap between the physical and the intangible, subjective experiences.
Quoting Wayfarer
I see where your objection is -- that physicalism implies that there's only one explanation for both the celestial bodies and our consciousness (which is rightly the domain of philosophy). It doesn't. There are types of matter, just as there are types of existents. What physicalism denies is that there is no explanation at all for the mind or the consciousness.
Quoting Count Timothy von Icarus
Okay, you can hold this view, but it doesn't undermine physicalism. I wrote above to Wayfarer that physicalism can be all inclusive, except for the belief that there is this divide between our consciousness and our body composition.
Quoting Count Timothy von Icarus
I agree with this.
[quote=SEP]Physicalism is, in slogan form, the thesis that everything is physical. The thesis is usually intended as a metaphysical thesis, parallel to the thesis attributed to the ancient Greek philosopher Thales, that everything is water, or the idealism of the 18th Century philosopher Berkeley, that everything is mental. The general idea is that the nature of the actual world (i.e. the universe and everything in it) conforms to a certain condition, the condition of being physical. Of course, physicalists dont deny that the world might contain many items that at first glance dont seem physical items of a biological, or psychological, or moral, or social, or mathematical nature. But they insist nevertheless that at the end of the day such items are physical.[/quote]
Quoting L'éléphant
It takes more than a denial, it takes an argument. The 'explanatory gap' is similar to the 'hard problem of consciousness', which is basically that physical descriptions fail to properly depict or describe the subjective sense of being, for which there is no analogy in physical terms.
Quoting L'éléphant
What it denies is that there can't be a physical explanation for the mind. A physical explanation for the mind must be given in terms proper to physics, such as mass, velocity, number, composition, and other attributes of matter, otherwise it's not a physicalist explanation.